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Question 1
Correct
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What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia
Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.
It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.
In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
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A 65-year-old woman is two days postoperative, following a Hartmann’s procedure for bowel cancer. Her haemoglobin levels had dropped to 70 g/l, and as a result, she was started on a blood transfusion 12 hours ago. You are asked to review the patient, as she has suddenly become very agitated, pyrexial and hypotensive, with chest pain.
Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to be occurring in this patient?Your Answer: Acute haemolytic reaction
Explanation:An acute haemolytic reaction is a transfusion complication that can occur within 24 hours of receiving blood. It is often caused by ABO/Rh incompatibility and can result in symptoms such as agitation, fever, low blood pressure, flushing, pain in the abdomen or chest, bleeding from the site of the venepuncture, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Treatment involves stopping the transfusion immediately. Iron overload, hepatitis B infection, graft-versus-host disease (GvHD), and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection are all delayed transfusion reactions that may present after 24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR
Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.
Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats, and a weight loss of 20 pounds over the course of several months. Upon conducting a CT scan, mediastinal lymphadenopathy is discovered, and a biopsy is performed. The genetic analysis of the lesion reveals a translocation between chromosomes 14 and 18. What protein is expected to be overexpressed due to this translocation?
Your Answer: bcl-2
Explanation:Follicular lymphoma is a prevalent type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma that results from a chromosomal translocation between chromosome 14 and chromosome 18. This translocation causes the bcl-2 protein, which is anti-apoptotic, to be moved to the IgH promoter region, leading to overproduction of bcl-2. Consequently, abnormal B cells undergo clonal proliferation and are protected from apoptosis. Follicular lymphoma affects both genders equally, and its incidence increases with age. The disease typically presents with painless adenopathy that progresses over time. Systemic symptoms, such as fevers, night sweats, and weight loss, may occur later in the disease progression and can be associated with anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and lymphocytosis. Diagnosis requires a lymph node biopsy to demonstrate the expansion of follicles filling the node and chromosomal analysis of cells from bone marrow aspiration to detect t(14:18). Chemotherapy is the primary treatment, and rituximab, a monoclonal antibody against the CD20 protein found on B cells, is often used in combination with other agents. In Burkitt’s lymphoma, c-myc overexpression is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14, while chronic myeloid leukaemia results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, forming the Philadelphia chromosome. Ewing’s sarcoma is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 12, leading to the formation of the fusion protein Ewsr1-fli1, which causes aberrant transcription of genes regulating cell growth and development. In a small subset of follicular lymphoma patients, translocations involving the bcl-6 gene and protein are found, which may increase the risk of transformation to a more aggressive form.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she is concerned about his left knee. The child injured his knee while playing outside, and the knee is now significantly swollen and he is experiencing a lot of pain. The mother mentions that the child bruises easily. The mother herself does not have any such issues, but her sister had similar problems when she was young.
What is the most probable pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this boy's symptoms?Your Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation
Explanation:Pathophysiological Mechanisms of Various Medical Conditions
Haemophilia: Deficiency of a Clotting Factor in the Intrinsic Pathway of Coagulation
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition that affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is caused by a mutation in factor VIII or IX, leading to deficient coagulation. Patients present with excessive bleeding, such as spontaneous bruising, prolonged bleeding following a dental procedure or minor injury, bleeding into the joints (haemarthrosis), and epistaxis. Treatment involves correcting the deficiency with concentrated factor VIII or IX.Von Willebrand’s Disease: Deficiency of a Protein Found in Endothelial Cells and Released by Endothelial Damage
Von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant, inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. This protein is found in the endothelial cells lining the vessels and is released following endothelial damage. It promotes adhesion of platelets to the area of damage and stabilizes factor VIII, both actions promoting haemostasis. Symptoms include easy bruising and prolonged bleeding following minimal trauma.Ewing’s Sarcoma: Translocation Between Chromosomes 11 and 22
Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant bone tumour seen in children and young adults. It is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22.Leukaemia: Invasion of Bone Marrow by Leukaemic Cells
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells, leading to pancytopenia, a condition in which there is a deficiency of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is diagnosed with a stroke. Blood results show the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
calcium 3.80 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
creatinine 128 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which investigation is likely to reveal the cause of this man’s stroke?Your Answer: Urinary Bence Jones proteins
Explanation:Investigations for a Patient with Stroke and Suspected Multiple Myeloma
When a patient presents with symptoms of stroke and possible multiple myeloma, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the stroke. The mnemonic CRAB (high Calcium, Renal insufficiency, Anaemia and Bone lesions) can help identify the key symptoms of multiple myeloma.
One potential test is a urinary Bence Jones protein test, which can confirm the presence of multiple myeloma. However, this test alone cannot determine the cause of the stroke.
An MRI of the head may show areas of damage, but it will not reveal the cause of the stroke. A CT scan of the head, on the other hand, can identify changes caused by an ischaemic stroke, but it cannot differentiate the cause of the clot.
Liver function tests and X-rays of the spine are not first-line investigations for this condition, but they may be useful in identifying bone lesions associated with multiple myeloma.
Overall, a combination of tests and imaging may be necessary to diagnose and treat a patient with stroke and suspected multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?
Your Answer: WCC of 21 x 109/L at diagnosis
Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?
Your Answer: Prolactin
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy
In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.
If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.
It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Correct
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What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?
Your Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids
Explanation:Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with a history of easy bruising and excessive bleeding after a dental procedure. She is diagnosed with von Willebrand's disease and is scheduled for additional dental extractions. The physician prescribes DDAVP. What is the mechanism of action of DDAVP in treating von Willebrand's disease?
Your Answer: Stimulates release of von Willebrand's factor from endothelial cells
Explanation:DDAVP for Increasing von Willebrand Factor
DDAVP is a medication that can be administered to increase the amount of von Willebrand factor in the body, which is necessary for surgical or dental procedures. This medication can increase plasma von Willebrand factor and factor VIII concentrations by two to five times. The mechanism of action involves the induction of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)-mediated vWF secretion through a direct effect on endothelial cells. Overall, DDAVP is a useful tool for increasing von Willebrand factor levels in the body, allowing for safer and more successful surgical and dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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