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Question 1
Correct
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 56-year-old man who has lethargy, haematuria, haemoptysis, hypertension, and a right loin mass, and whose CT scan shows a lesion in the upper pole of the right kidney with a small cystic centre?
Your Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma
Explanation:The most frequent type of renal tumors are renal adenocarcinomas, which usually impact the renal parenchyma. Transitional cell carcinomas, on the other hand, tend to affect urothelial surfaces. Nephroblastomas are extremely uncommon in this age range. While renal adenocarcinomas can cause cannonball metastases in the lungs that result in hemoptysis, this is not a characteristic of PKD.
Renal Cell Carcinoma: Characteristics, Diagnosis, and Management
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma that develops in the renal cortex, specifically in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is a solid lesion that may be multifocal, calcified, or cystic. The tumor is usually surrounded by a pseudocapsule of compressed normal renal tissue. Spread of the tumor may occur through direct extension into the adrenal gland, renal vein, or surrounding fascia, or through the hematogenous route to the lung, bone, or brain. Renal cell carcinoma accounts for up to 85% of all renal malignancies, and it is more common in males and in patients in their sixth decade.
Patients with renal cell carcinoma may present with various symptoms, such as haematuria, loin pain, mass, or symptoms of metastasis. Diagnosis is usually made through multislice CT scanning, which can detect the presence of a renal mass and any evidence of distant disease. Biopsy is not recommended when a nephrectomy is planned, but it is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken. Assessment of the functioning of the contralateral kidney is also important.
Management of renal cell carcinoma depends on the stage of the tumor. T1 lesions may be managed by partial nephrectomy, while T2 lesions and above require radical nephrectomy. Preoperative embolization and resection of uninvolved adrenal glands are not indicated. Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with chemotherapy or biological agents. Patients with transitional cell cancer will require a nephroureterectomy with disconnection of the ureter at the bladder.
Reference:
Lungberg B et al. EAU guidelines on renal cell carcinoma: The 2010 update. European Urology 2010 (58): 398-406. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and nausea while on the ward. He underwent an emergency laparotomy for a perforated diverticulum four days ago. The patient has already vomited twice this morning and has not had a bowel movement since the surgery. Upon examination, his abdomen is significantly distended with tenderness throughout. Bowel sounds are reduced, but vital signs are normal. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Opiate-induced constipation
Correct Answer: Postoperative ileus
Explanation:After undergoing bowel surgery, experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting may indicate the presence of postoperative ileus.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The leg appears pale and cold, with reduced sensation and muscle strength. She has no prior history of leg pain.
The patient has a medical history of COPD and atrial fibrillation. She has been taking ramipril and bisoprolol for a long time and completed a short course of prednisolone and clarithromycin for a respiratory tract infection 2 months ago. She is an ex-smoker with a 30-year pack history.
What factor from the patient's background and medical history is most likely to contribute to her current presentation of acute limb ischaemia, which required an emergency operation 3 hours after admission?Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute limb ischaemia caused by embolism. Cardiovascular disease is more likely to affect males than females. While ramipril and respiratory tract infections may impact cardiovascular risk, they do not increase hypercoagulability. Smoking tobacco is a risk factor for atherosclerosis and could contribute to progressive limb ischaemia, but in this case, the patient’s lack of previous claudication suggests that the cause is more likely to be an embolism related to their atrial fibrillation.
Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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You are an FY1 doctor working in colorectal surgery. You are looking after a patient following an lower anterior resection of the patients rectum with a defunctioning loop ileostomy to remove a large adenocarcinoma in the proximal third of the rectum. The patient is now 65 years old and is nearly ready for discharge. Your consultant says they will review the patient in three weeks following discharge. They would like you to organise an investigation in two weeks time to ensure that the anastomosis performed to join the colon to the remaining portion of rectum has healed and is not leaking, prior to reversing the ileostomy. Please choose the most appropriate investigation from the options below.
MRI
11%
Transrectal ultrasound scan
6%
Gastrografin enema
30%
CT colon
25%
Barium enema
28%
A gastrografin enema involves passing a water soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum, then taking radiographs to assess the rectum. If there are any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid should show up as free fluid in the abdomen. As this is a possibility gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less toxic if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.Your Answer: Gastrografin enema
Explanation:To evaluate the rectum, a gastrografin enema is performed by administering a water-soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum and taking X-rays. In case of any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid will appear as free fluid in the abdomen. Gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less harmful if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has a skiing accident and sustains a blow to the occiput, resulting in a 5-minute concussion. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she presents with confusion and a GCS score of 10/15. A CT scan reveals no signs of acute bleeding or fractures, but there is evidence of edema and the early stages of mass effect. What is the optimal course of action?
Your Answer: Burr hole decompression
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol
Explanation:Mannitol can be used to decrease the elevated ICP in the acute phase for this woman.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is undergoing investigation for iron deficiency anaemia. He has no notable symptoms except for mild hypertension. An outpatient CT scan of his abdomen and pelvis reveals no cause for anaemia but incidentally discovers an abnormal dilation of the abdominal aorta measuring 4.4 cm in diameter. The patient reports having undergone an ultrasound scan of his abdomen 6 months ago as part of the national AAA screening program, which showed a dilation of 3 cm in diameter. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Re-scan in 3 months
Correct Answer: Urgent endovascular aneurysm repair
Explanation:Patients with rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysms should undergo surgical repair, preferably with endovascular aneurysm repair. Hypertension is not the cause of the aneurysm and antihypertensive medication is not the appropriate management. Open repair as an emergency is not necessary as the patient is stable and asymptomatic. Intravenous iron infusion is not necessary as the patient’s iron deficiency anaemia is not causing any problems and oral supplementation is more appropriate. Monitoring with a re-scan in 3 months is not appropriate as rapidly enlarging aneurysms should be repaired.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up without new complaints or symptoms. Routine blood tests and a urine dip are performed, revealing the following results:
- Hb: 150 g/L (Male: 135-180)
- Platelets: 200 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC: 11.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 140 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 7.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 98 µmol/L (55-120)
- CRP: 3 mg/L (<5)
- Urine Appearance: Clear
- Blood: +++
- Protein: -
- Nitrites: -
- Leucocytes: +
What should be the GP's next course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Send a urine sample away for microscopy, culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral using the suspected cancer pathway
Explanation:A patient who is 60 years or older and presents with unexplained non-visible haematuria along with either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out bladder cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is a 2-week wait referral. Prescribing treatment for a urinary tract infection is not appropriate as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of a UTI. Similarly, repeating U&Es in 4 weeks is not necessary as the patient’s U&Es are normal. Screening for diabetes is also not indicated as there are no symptoms suggestive of diabetes at present.
Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.
Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.
Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of lethargy. He denies any other systemic symptoms. During the physical examination, a non-pulsatile mass is palpated in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which does not move with respiration. Additionally, he has pale conjunctivae. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Urgent referral to local colorectal service
Explanation:The presence of an abdominal mass along with symptoms of lethargy and pallor may indicate the likelihood of colorectal cancer, which could also lead to anaemia.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman undergoes a lumpectomy for a T2 hormone receptor-positive carcinoma in her right breast. The pathology report shows cancerous cells at the margins of the resected specimen. Should the patient receive any additional non-surgical treatment?
Your Answer: Bilateral chest wall and regional lymph node radiotherapy
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral chest wall and regional lymph node radiotherapy
Explanation:Adjuvant ipsilateral chest wall and regional lymph node radiotherapy are recommended for patients with positive axillary lymph nodes and residual tumor at resection margins post-mastectomy, as studies have shown a beneficial effect on overall survival and locoregional recurrence. However, adding letrozole or trastuzumab is not appropriate for this patient with triple-negative carcinoma, as these treatments are used for ER+ and HER2+ cancers, respectively. It is also not necessary to irradiate both breasts/axillae in cases of unilateral breast cancer. No adjuvant treatment is not appropriate in this case, as there is residual disease that needs to be managed. These recommendations are based on the Nice guideline NG101 (2018).
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section due to fetal distress. She expresses concern about the healing of her wound, as she had a previous surgical incision that became infected and resulted in abscess formation.
Which of the following underlying medical conditions places her at the highest risk for poor wound healing?Your Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Factors Affecting Wound Healing: Diabetes, Hypertension, Asthma, Inflammatory Bowel Disease, and Psoriasis
Wound healing is a complex process that can be affected by various factors. Among these factors are certain medical conditions that can increase the risk of poor wound healing and post-surgical complications.
Diabetes, for instance, is a well-known risk factor for impaired wound healing. Patients with poorly controlled diabetes are particularly vulnerable to delayed wound healing and increased risk of infection. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure good diabetic control before and after surgery and closely monitor patients for any signs of infection or wound breakdown.
Hypertension, on the other hand, is not a common cause of poor wound healing, but severely uncontrolled hypertension that affects perfusion can increase the risk of wound breakdown. Asthma, unless accompanied by regular oral steroid use or persistent cough, is also unlikely to affect wound healing. Similarly, inflammatory bowel disease itself does not cause impaired wound healing, unless the patient is malnourished or on regular oral steroids.
Finally, psoriasis is not a common cause of impaired wound healing, but care should be taken to avoid any affected skin during surgery. Overall, understanding the impact of these medical conditions on wound healing can help healthcare providers optimize patient care and improve surgical outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are the F2 in general practice. You see a 75-year-old man who is complaining of changes in the appearance of his legs. On examination, you can see areas of brown on the legs, dry skin, and the calves appear significantly wider at the knee than the ankle.
What is the man most at risk of?Your Answer: Acute limb ischaemia
Correct Answer: Venous ulcers
Explanation:Chronic venous insufficiency is indicated by brown pigmentation (haemosiderin), lipodermatosclerosis (resembling champagne bottle legs), and eczema. These symptoms increase the likelihood of developing venous ulcers, which typically appear above the medial malleolus. Arterial ulcers are more commonly associated with peripheral arterial disease, while neuropathic ulcers are prevalent in individuals with diabetes.
Venous leg ulcers are the most common and are caused by venous hypertension. Arterial ulcers occur on the toes and heel and are painful without palpable pulses. Neuropathic ulcers commonly occur over the plantar surface and can lead to amputation in diabetic patients. Marjolin’s ulcers are squamous cell carcinomas that occur at sites of chronic inflammation. Pyoderma gangrenosum is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and presents as erythematosus nodules or pustules that ulcerate. Management varies depending on the type of ulcer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are summoned to attend to a 22-year-old male patient in the Emergency Department. He had lacerated his arm, and a junior physician had been trying to stitch the wound. During the administration of lidocaine, she had neglected to aspirate the syringe to confirm that she was not in a blood vessel. The patient initially reported experiencing tongue numbness and a metallic taste in his mouth, and he is now experiencing seizures throughout his body.
What is the best course of action for treatment?Your Answer: N-acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: 20% lipid emulsion
Explanation:Local anaesthetic toxicity can be treated with IV lipid emulsion. If a patient has received intravenous lidocaine and experiences symptoms such as confusion, dizziness, dysphoria, or seizures, it is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. Flumazenil is an antagonist for benzodiazepine overdose, while N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol overdose, and naloxone is used for opioid overdose.
Local anaesthetic agents include lidocaine, cocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Lidocaine is an amide that is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and renally excreted. Toxicity can occur with IV or excess administration, and increased risk is present with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Cocaine is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice and is cardiotoxic. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lignocaine and is cardiotoxic, while levobupivacaine is less cardiotoxic. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic and is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with a swollen knee. Upon examination, the knee appears red, hot, and has limited range of motion. The patient has no history of prior surgeries and no significant medical history. What is the most suitable test to rule out a septic joint?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration
Explanation:Diagnosis of Joint Sepsis and Acute Gout
When diagnosing joint sepsis or acute gout, it is important to note that a neutrophilia may not always be present. Additionally, serum uric acid levels can be normal, low, or high in both conditions. While x-rays may show advanced sepsis with bony destruction, they are not always sensitive enough to detect early stages of the condition. An MRI is more sensitive, but the gold standard for diagnosis is joint aspiration. However, it is important to note that joint aspiration should not be performed outside of a theatre if the patient has a prosthetic joint. Proper diagnosis is crucial in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old receptionist visited her GP due to a rash on her left nipple area. She expressed discomfort and itchiness in the areola region. Upon further inquiry, she revealed that the rash has persisted for 8 weeks and has not improved with the use of E45 cream. The patient has a history of eczema, which is usually managed with E45 cream. She also mentioned that the rash started on the nipple and has spread outwards to the areola. During examination, the rash appeared crusty and erythematosus, but it did not extend beyond the nipple-areola complex. What additional measures should be taken?
Your Answer: Breast clinic referral to be seen urgently by breast specialist
Explanation:The crucial aspect of this inquiry lies in the progression of the rash, which originated on the nipple and has since extended to encompass the areola. Despite any previous instances of eczema, it is imperative that a breast specialist is consulted immediately to eliminate the possibility of Paget’s disease.
Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.
One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is five days post-laparotomy for subacute intestinal obstruction secondary to underlying Crohnās disease. He has suddenly become breathless and complains of pleuritic chest pain. On examination, the patient is confused and his chest is clear to auscultation. However, he is tachypnoeic and has a mildly raised jugular venous pressure (JVP).
Observations:
Blood pressure 97/70 mmHg
Heart rate 126 bpm
Respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute
Oxygen saturations 92% on room air
Arterial blood gas:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.53 7.35ā7.45
Pa(CO2) 3.1 kPa 4.6ā6.0 kPa
Pa(O2) 8.3 kPa 10.5ā13.5 kPa
An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and right bundle branch block.
Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) confirms the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism.
Which is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous (iv) fluids, oxygen, enoxaparin (treatment dose), rivaroxaban
Correct Answer: iv fluids, oxygen, rivaroxaban
Explanation:Management of Pulmonary Embolism postoperatively
Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication that can occur after surgery and is associated with high mortality rates. The prompt diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial, and anticoagulant treatment is typically recommended. Patients can be started on apixaban or rivaroxaban at a therapeutic dose or a combination of LMWH and either dabigatran or warfarin until therapeutic levels are reached. In the case of warfarin, it is typically started concurrently with LMWH since it takes 48-72 hours for its anticoagulant properties to take effect.
In addition to anticoagulant therapy, patients with pulmonary embolism may require iv fluids and high-flow oxygen if they are hypotensive and hypoxic. Enoxaparin is typically used as a treatment dose, but unfractionated iv heparin may be used as an alternative in patients with renal impairment.
Warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation in patients who have had pulmonary embolism, but it is not appropriate for immediate management since it is initially pro-thrombotic. Thrombolysis is indicated in patients who are haemodynamically unstable, but it is generally avoided postoperatively due to an increased risk of bleeding.
In summary, the management of pulmonary embolism postoperatively involves prompt diagnosis, anticoagulant therapy, and supportive measures such as iv fluids and oxygen. The choice of anticoagulant and duration of therapy will depend on the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Correct
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A 26-year-old man has been hit on the side of his head with a cricket bat. Upon initial examination, he has a Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) of 12 and shows some bruising at the point of impact. There are no indications of a basal skull fracture or any neurological impairments. He has not experienced vomiting or seizures. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Perform a CT head scan within 1 hour
Explanation:When it comes to detecting significant brain injuries in emergency situations, CT scans of the head are currently the preferred method of investigation. MRI scans are not typically used due to safety concerns, logistical challenges, and resource limitations. If a patient’s initial assessment in the emergency department reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13, a CT head scan should be performed within one hour. The specific indications for an immediate CT head scan in this scenario can be found in the guidelines provided by NICE (2014) for the assessment and early management of head injuries.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with creamy nipple discharge. She had a mammogram screening a year ago which was normal. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, there were no alarming findings. A repeat mammogram was conducted and no abnormalities were detected. Although she is concerned about the possibility of a tumor, she is not bothered by the discharge itself. Her serum prolactin level is provided below.
Prolactin 200 mIU/L (<600)
What is the most probable diagnosis and what would be the best initial treatment?Your Answer: Total duct excision
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Duct ectasia does not require any specific treatment. However, lumpectomy may be used to treat breast masses if they meet certain criteria such as being small-sized and peripheral, and taking into account the patient’s preference. Mastectomy may be necessary for malignant breast masses if lumpectomy is not suitable. In young women with duct ectasia, microdochectomy may be performed if the condition is causing discomfort. It is also used to treat intraductal papilloma.
Understanding Duct Ectasia
Duct ectasia is a condition that affects the terminal breast ducts located within 3 cm of the nipple. It is a common condition that becomes more prevalent as women age. The condition is characterized by the dilation and shortening of the ducts, which can cause nipple retraction and creamy nipple discharge. It is important to note that duct ectasia can be mistaken for periductal mastitis, which is more common in younger women who smoke. Periductal mastitis typically presents with infections around the periareolar or subareolar areas and may recur.
When dealing with troublesome nipple discharge, treatment options may include microdochectomy for younger patients or total duct excision for older patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Correct
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A 38-year-old construction worker complains of sudden onset groin pain on the left side that radiates from the flank. The pain is intermittent but excruciating when it occurs and is not related to movement. The patient's examination, observations, and blood tests are normal, but a urine dip reveals ++ blood. The patient reports that his job involves heavy lifting and he rarely takes breaks. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ureteric calculus
Explanation:The young man is experiencing pain on his right side, from his lower back to his groin, and has microscopic blood in his urine. It is suggested that he may be frequently dehydrated due to his job. Based on these symptoms, it is highly likely that he has a kidney stone on his right side, which is causing the colicky pain. Although his job involves heavy lifting, there is no indication of a visible lump during examination, making a hernia unlikely.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What actions can result in a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus of the tibia?
Your Answer: Rotation of foot
Correct Answer: Eversion
Explanation:Three Sequential Injuries Caused by Pronated Foot and Abducting Force
The injury mechanism that occurs when a pronated foot experiences an abducting force on the talus can result in up to three sequential injuries. The first injury is a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus, which is caused by a tense deltoid ligament. The second injury occurs when the abducting talus stresses the tibiofibular syndesmosis, resulting in a tear of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. Finally, continued abduction of the talus can lead to an oblique fracture of the distal fibula.
This sequence of injuries can be quite serious and may require medical attention. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with a pronated foot and to take steps to prevent injury. This may include wearing appropriate footwear, using orthotics or other supportive devices, and avoiding activities that put excessive stress on the foot and ankle. By taking these precautions, individuals can reduce their risk of experiencing these types of injuries and maintain their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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A 26-year-old man has arrived at the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, deteriorating right lower quadrant abdominal pain. He has a significantly decreased appetite and has vomited multiple times in the past few days. During the examination, there is notable tenderness upon palpation in the right iliac fossa. A CT scan of the abdomen confirms the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. After consulting with a surgeon, it is decided that an emergency open appendectomy is necessary. What is the most suitable preoperative management for this patient?
Your Answer: A single dose of intravenous (iv) TazocinĀ® 30 minutes before the procedure
Explanation:Preoperative Management for Gastrointestinal Surgery
Surgical site infections are a common complication of gastrointestinal surgery, with up to 60% of emergency procedures resulting in infections. To prevent this, a single dose of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as TazocinĀ®, should be given intravenously 30 minutes before the procedure. Patients should also be hydrated with iv fluids and be nil by mouth for at least six hours before surgery. In cases of potential post-operative intestinal obstruction or ileus, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. However, narrow-spectrum antibiotics like iv flucloxacillin are not appropriate for prophylaxis in this case. Finally, VTE prophylaxis with LMWH should be given preoperatively but stopped 12 hours before the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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