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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor and a tingling sensation in both...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor and a tingling sensation in both hands. Screening blood tests reveal:

      Hb 110 g/l (115-160 g/l)
      MCV 112 fl (82-100 fl)
      B12 140 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)

      What is the most frequent reason for this patient's macrocytic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. This condition occurs when the stomach lining is destroyed by autoimmune factors, leading to reduced production of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is responsible for binding B12 in the gut, and without it, B12 absorption is impaired. This can result in a deficiency of vitamin B12 and macrocytic anaemia, as well as neurological symptoms due to damage to spinal cord myelination.

      While a strict vegan diet and alcoholism can also lead to B12 deficiency, they are not the most common causes.

      Microcytic sideroblastic anaemia, on the other hand, is caused by lead poisoning, which impairs haem production.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A six-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department due to sudden abdominal...

    Correct

    • A six-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department due to sudden abdominal pain and distension. The infant has a history of lethargy, growth restriction, and overall weakness. Upon abdominal examination, splenomegaly is noted. Further investigations reveal a diagnosis of sickle cell disease, with the acute presentation believed to be an acute crisis. Based on this information, what is the most probable haemoglobin trait in this patient?

      Your Answer: HbS HbS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an abnormal haemoglobin chain, known as HbS, is synthesized due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in people of African descent, as the heterozygous condition offers some protection against malaria. In the UK, around 10% of Afro-Caribbean individuals are carriers of HbS. Symptoms in homozygotes typically do not develop until 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules take over from fetal haemoglobin.

      The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerize and sickle in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and can cause haemolysis, block small blood vessels, and lead to infarction.

      To diagnose sickle-cell anaemia, haemoglobin electrophoresis is the definitive test. It is essential to understand the pathophysiology and symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia to provide appropriate care and management for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      10.5
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of pain in the right upper quadrant. Upon examination, the doctor observes hepatomegaly and ascites, and diagnoses the patient with Budd-Chiari syndrome. The doctor prescribes anticoagulants and conducts a thrombophilia screening, which reveals the presence of a Factor V Leiden mutation.

      What is the mechanism by which this mutation causes hypercoagulability?

      Your Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Explanation:

      The presence of a Factor V Leiden mutation can lead to activated protein C resistance, which is a common cause of thrombophilia. Budd-Chiari syndrome, characterized by abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly, may require a thrombophilia screen to identify potential causes. Antithrombin deficiency, caused by a mutation in the SERPINC1 gene, is another type of thrombophilia. Antiphospholipid syndrome, an immunological disorder that increases the risk of thrombosis, is not related to Factor V Leiden mutations. Protein C deficiency, caused by mutations in the PROC gene, is another type of thrombophilia.

      Understanding Factor V Leiden

      Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.

      Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.

      Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.

      Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.

      Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
      — | — | —
      Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
      Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
      Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
      Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
      Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
      Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      26.2
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  • Question 4 - A 44-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department with facial swelling and...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department with facial swelling and difficulty breathing. Stridor and dilated neck veins were observed on examination. A CT scan revealed a mass obstructing the superior vena cava, which was later confirmed to be non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The patient received initial chemotherapy treatment for the lymphoma.

      After five weeks, he returned to the emergency department complaining of a tingling and painful sensation in his hands and feet bilaterally. Additionally, he was observed to have a high steppage gait. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms during his second visit to the emergency department?

      Your Answer: Vincristine

      Explanation:

      The standard chemotherapy regimen for non-Hodgkin lymphoma is R-CHOP, which includes Rituximab (in certain patients), cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, Oncovin (vincristine), and prednisolone. However, one of the significant side effects of vincristine is chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy, which can cause tingling or numbness starting from the extremities. It can also lead to severe neuropathic pain and distal weakness, such as foot drop.

      While Rituximab can cause adverse effects such as cardiotoxicity and infections, it is not commonly associated with neurological effects. Cyclophosphamide, on the other hand, can cause chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, bone marrow suppression, and haemorrhagic cystitis due to its toxicity to the bladder epithelium.

      Hydroxydaunorubicin is known to cause dilated cardiomyopathy, which can lead to heart failure and has a high mortality rate.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      34.2
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old female patient presents to her GP with increasing muscular fatigue, mainly...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient presents to her GP with increasing muscular fatigue, mainly affecting the muscles of face. The fatigue is worse in the evenings or when using the muscle for prolonged periods. She also complains of diplopia and difficulty swallowing. On examination, she has a bilateral, partial ptosis. Tendon reflexes are normal. Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism and pernicious anaemia.

      In which area of the mediastinum is the structure likely to have undergone hyperplasia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anterior inferior mediastinum

      Correct Answer: Anterior superior mediastinum

      Explanation:

      The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function

      The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.

      The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 6 - As a medical student on a general surgical team, I am currently treating...

    Correct

    • As a medical student on a general surgical team, I am currently treating an 82-year-old female who is scheduled for a mastectomy due to breast cancer. Can you inform me of the most prevalent form of breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Pathology: Understanding the Histological Features

      Breast cancer pathology involves examining the histological features of the cancer cells to determine the underlying diagnosis. The invasive component of breast cancer is typically made up of ductal cells, although invasive lobular cancer may also occur. In situ lesions, such as DCIS, may also be present.

      When examining breast cancer pathology, several typical changes are seen in conjunction with invasive breast cancer. These include nuclear pleomorphism, coarse chromatin, angiogenesis, invasion of the basement membrane, dystrophic calcification (which may be seen on mammography), abnormal mitoses, vascular invasion, and lymph node metastasis.

      To grade the primary tumor, a scale of 1-3 is used, with 1 being the most benign lesion and 3 being the most poorly differentiated. Immunohistochemistry for estrogen receptor and herceptin status is routinely performed to further understand the cancer’s characteristics.

      The grade, lymph node stage, and size are combined to provide the Nottingham prognostic index, which helps predict the patient’s prognosis and guide treatment decisions. Understanding the histological features of breast cancer is crucial in determining the best course of treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      15.7
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a lump on the...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a lump on the left side of his neck. During the examination, a firm and non-tender swelling is found over the angle of the mandible. The patient also displays asymmetrical facial features, including drooping of the angle of the mouth on the left and an inability to close his left eyelid. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant parotid tumour

      Explanation:

      Parotid Mass and Facial Nerve Involvement

      Swelling over the angle of the mandible is a common site for a parotid mass. The majority of these masses are benign, with pleomorphic adenomas being the most common type. However, Warthin’s tumour is also a possibility. Malignancy is indicated when there is involvement of the facial nerve, which is a feature found in malignant parotid tumours. Bilateral facial nerve involvement with bilateral parotid swelling may be indicative of sarcoidosis. Parotitis, on the other hand, causes painful acute swelling over the parotid gland with redness. Bell’s palsy is a benign and often temporary paralysis of the facial nerve, which is usually preceded by a viral infection that causes inflammation and paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      14.5
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  • Question 8 - Following a car crash, a 25-year-old male is brought to the hospital and...

    Correct

    • Following a car crash, a 25-year-old male is brought to the hospital and needs a blood transfusion. He has B negative blood type. Which of the following blood types would be the best match?

      Your Answer: O rhesus negative

      Explanation:

      The ideal blood type for the patient would be B rhesus negative, but it is not available. Among the available options, rhesus positive blood is not recommended for a woman of reproductive age as it may lead to haemolytic disease in newborns. A-type blood would also cause hemolysis in this patient. The only suitable option is O rhesus negative, which is the universal donor.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      11.6
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man, who has a history of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, is scheduled to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man, who has a history of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, is scheduled to start chemotherapy treatment. During his consultation with the oncologist, he expressed concern about the potential side effects of his chemotherapy drugs. Specifically, he is worried about the side effects associated with vincristine.

      What side effect is commonly linked to the use of vincristine in chemotherapy treatment?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Vincristine is a medication that belongs to the vinca alkaloid class and works by inhibiting microtubule formation, which prevents the cell cycle from progressing beyond the metaphase stage. However, it is commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.

      Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, are known to cause cardiomyopathy. These medications stabilize topoisomerase II, which prevents DNA replication by inhibiting the coiling of DNA.

      5-fluorouracil is a thymidylate synthase inhibitor that is associated with dermatitis. It works by preventing the formation of the thymidine nucleotide, which is essential for DNA replication. Palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia is a severe form of dermatitis that can occur as a blistering rash on the hands and feet of patients taking this medication.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      14.7
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  • Question 10 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who has presented with new-onset urinary retention over...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who has presented with new-onset urinary retention over the past 8 hours. She was previously diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and is currently undergoing chemotherapy treatment for this. She notes that prior to this, her urine had a reddish-tinge.

      A 3-way catheter was inserted and blood-stained urine with clots was seen within the catheter bag. Urinalysis showed significant blood but no leukocytes or nitrites were seen. A cystoscopy performed did not show any masses and biopsies taken did not show any malignancy. It was felt that this was a likely side effect of one of these chemotherapy agents.

      What is the underlying mechanism of action of the culprit chemotherapy agent?

      Your Answer: Pyrimidine analogue

      Correct Answer: Promotes cross-linking of DNA

      Explanation:

      The chemotherapy regime R-CHOP, which is likely being used to manage the patient’s non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, includes cyclophosphamide, a drug that functions as an alkylating agent and promotes cross-linking of DNA. This can lead to haemorrhagic cystitis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s haematuria. Other drugs in the regime have different mechanisms of action, such as inhibition of microtubule formation with vincristine, inhibition of topoisomerase II and DNA/RNA synthesis with doxorubicin, and monoclonal antibody targeting of CD20 with rituximab. Pyrimidine analogues like 5-fluorouracil, which block thymidylate synthase and induce cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, are not commonly used in the management of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      24.7
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  • Question 11 - A woman in her 30s experiences sudden swelling in both legs during pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s experiences sudden swelling in both legs during pregnancy. Her mother and aunt also had a history of this issue. What is the probable underlying abnormality?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti cardiolipin antibodies

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition where the body’s immune system produces antibodies that cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications. The diagnosis requires one clinical event and two positive blood tests spaced at least 3 months apart. The antibodies associated with this syndrome are lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin, and anti-β2-glycoprotein. Antiphospholipid syndrome can be primary or secondary, with the latter occurring in conjunction with other autoimmune diseases. In severe cases, the condition can lead to organ failure, known as catastrophic antiphospholipid syndrome. Treatment typically involves anticoagulant medication such as heparin, while warfarin is avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects.

      Hypercoagulability is a condition where the blood has an increased tendency to clot. There are several types of thrombophilia, each with their own unique features. Antithrombin deficiency is a rare genetic defect that increases the risk of thrombotic events by 10 times. Heparin may not be effective in treating this condition as it works via antithrombin. Protein C and S deficiency, which accounts for up to 5% of thrombotic episodes, occurs when there is a lack of natural anticoagulants that are produced by the liver. Factor V Leiden is the most common genetic defect accounting for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and may account for up to 20% or more of thrombotic episodes. Antiphospholipid syndrome is a multi-organ disease that can involve pregnancy and cause both arterial and venous thrombosis. It is characterized by either Lupus anticoagulant or Anti cardiolipin antibodies, and requires anticoagulation with an INR between 3 and 4.

      In summary, hypercoagulability is a condition where the blood has an increased tendency to clot. There are several types of thrombophilia, each with their own unique features. Antithrombin deficiency, protein C and S deficiency, factor V Leiden, and antiphospholipid syndrome are some of the most common types of thrombophilia. It is important to identify and treat these conditions to prevent thrombotic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 12 - A 47-year-old male with alcoholic cirrhosis and decompensated liver failure is wondering which...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male with alcoholic cirrhosis and decompensated liver failure is wondering which clotting factor is least likely to be affected.

      Your Answer: Factor VII

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is produced in the endothelial cells located in the liver, which makes it less susceptible to the impact of liver dysfunction.

      Abnormal coagulation can be caused by various factors such as heparin, warfarin, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and liver disease. Heparin prevents the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11, while warfarin affects the synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. DIC affects factors 1, 2, 5, 8, and 11, and liver disease affects factors 1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11.

      When interpreting blood clotting test results, different disorders can be identified based on the levels of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), prothrombin time (PT), and bleeding time. Haemophilia is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and normal bleeding time. On the other hand, von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and increased bleeding time. Lastly, vitamin K deficiency is characterized by increased APTT and PT levels, and normal bleeding time. Proper interpretation of these results is crucial in diagnosing and treating coagulation disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      46.1
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  • Question 13 - You are developing a research project to evaluate the impact of a novel...

    Correct

    • You are developing a research project to evaluate the impact of a novel anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. Your focus is on the intrinsic pathway. What parameter will you measure?

      Your Answer: aPTT

      Explanation:

      The aPTT time is the most effective way to evaluate the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. If the aPTT time is prolonged, it may indicate haemophilia or the use of heparin.

      To assess the extrinsic pathway, the prothrombin time (PT) is the preferred measurement.

      The thrombin time is a test that evaluates the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen in plasma. It can be prolonged by heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      A 50:50 mixing study is utilized to determine whether a prolonged PT or aPTT is caused by a factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation

      The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.

      The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 14 - Mrs. Smith, a 67-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with a humerus...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith, a 67-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with a humerus bone fracture. Her husband reports that she sustained the injury from a minor fall. Upon examination, an X-ray reveals a deficiency in the bone at the fracture site and a cavitating lung lesion in the right middle zone. All of her blood tests are normal except for elevated levels of calcium and ALP. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Bone metastases can result in pathological fractures, which may be indicative of underlying conditions such as metastatic lung cancer. The appearance of certain lung cancers on X-ray can aid in the diagnosis of this condition. Other conditions such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, adenocarcinoma of the lung, lung abscess, and multiple myeloma may also present with lung lesions, but do not fully explain the occurrence of a pathological fracture.

      Bone Metastases: Common Tumours and Sites

      Bone metastases occur when cancer cells from a primary tumour spread to the bones. The most common tumours that cause bone metastases are prostate, breast, and lung cancer, with prostate cancer being the most frequent. The most common sites for bone metastases are the spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, and long bones.

      Aside from bone pain, other features of bone metastases may include pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, and raised levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Pathological fractures occur when the bone weakens due to the cancer cells, causing it to break. Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is too much calcium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and confusion. ALP is an enzyme that is produced by bone cells, and its levels can be elevated in the presence of bone metastases.

      A common diagnostic tool for bone metastases is an isotope bone scan, which uses technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates that accumulate in the bones. The scan can show multiple irregular foci of high-grade activity in the bones, indicating the presence of metastatic cancer. In the image provided, the bone scan shows multiple osteoblastic metastases in a patient with metastatic prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      25.8
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman has a left ankle ulcer that has been present for...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman has a left ankle ulcer that has been present for nine months. She had a DVT in her right leg five years ago. Upon examination, there is a 6 cm diameter slough-based ulcer on the medial malleolus without cellulitis. What investigation is required before applying compression bandaging?

      Your Answer: Bacteriological swab of the ulcer

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      Venous Ulceration and the Importance of Identifying Arterial Disease

      Venous ulcerations are a common type of ulcer that affects the lower extremities. The underlying cause of venous congestion, which can promote ulceration, is venous insufficiency. The treatment for venous ulceration involves controlling oedema, treating any infection, and compression. However, compressive dressings or devices should not be applied if the arterial circulation is impaired. Therefore, it is crucial to identify any arterial disease, and the ankle-brachial pressure index is a simple way of doing this. If indicated, one may progress to a lower limb arteriogram.

      It is important to note that there is no clinical sign of infection, and although a bacterial swab would help to rule out pathogens within the ulcer, arterial insufficiency is the more important issue. If there is a clinical suspicion of DVT, then duplex (or rarely a venogram) is indicated to decide on the indication for anticoagulation. By identifying arterial disease, healthcare professionals can ensure that appropriate treatment is provided and avoid potential complications from compressive dressings or devices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      18.8
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man with a history of Crohn's disease complains of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of Crohn's disease complains of fatigue and a burning sensation in his mouth. His blood work shows:

      Hb 11.2 g/dl
      MCV 110 fl
      Plt 190 * 10^9/l
      WBC 6.2 * 10^9/l

      What could be the possible reason for these symptoms and abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a history of gastrectomy and is experiencing macrocytic anaemia, it is likely that they are suffering from B12 deficiency.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A medical alert call is put out by a nurse concerning a patient...

    Correct

    • A medical alert call is put out by a nurse concerning a patient on the ward who has recently received a blood transfusion. He is complaining of shortness of breath and itchiness, and his lips are notably swollen. A transfusion reaction is suspected. The giving set is disconnected and 0.5 mg 1:1000 adrenaline administered intramuscularly, which appears to improve the patient's symptoms.

      Which of the following are recognized risk factors for this type of reaction in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: IgA deficiency

      Explanation:

      Anaphylactic blood transfusion reactions are known to be associated with IgA deficiency, which increases the risk of such reactions. Classic symptoms include sudden onset shortness of breath, angioedema, and wheeze, and require immediate treatment with intramuscular adrenaline, followed by IV hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine to prevent a secondary reaction. Other conditions such as adult polycystic kidney disease, HIV infection, and liver cirrhosis are not known to be associated with anaphylactic blood transfusion reactions.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman has been found to carry a BRCA 1 mutation. Besides...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been found to carry a BRCA 1 mutation. Besides breast cancer, what other type of cancer is she most susceptible to developing?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      It is more probable for individuals with a history of colorectal cancer to develop a second colorectal cancer. However, the risk of developing other types of cancer is only slightly elevated and does not warrant screening.

      Genetic Conditions and Their Association with Surgical Diseases

      Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic condition caused by mutations in the p53 tumour suppressor gene. Individuals with this syndrome have a high incidence of malignancies, particularly sarcomas and leukaemias. The diagnosis is made when an individual develops sarcoma under the age of 45 or when a first-degree relative is diagnosed with any cancer below the age of 45 and another family member develops malignancy under the age of 45 or sarcoma at any age.

      BRCA 1 and 2 are genetic conditions carried on chromosome 17 and chromosome 13, respectively. These conditions are linked to developing breast cancer with a 60% risk and an associated risk of developing ovarian cancer with a 55% risk for BRCA 1 and 25% risk for BRCA 2. BRCA2 mutation is also associated with prostate cancer in men.

      Lynch Syndrome is another autosomal dominant genetic condition that causes individuals to develop colonic cancer and endometrial cancer at a young age. 80% of affected individuals will get colonic and/or endometrial cancer. High-risk individuals may be identified using the Amsterdam criteria, which include three or more family members with a confirmed diagnosis of colorectal cancer, two successive affected generations, and one or more colon cancers diagnosed under the age of 50 years.

      Gardners syndrome is an autosomal dominant familial colorectal polyposis that causes multiple colonic polyps. Extra colonic diseases include skull osteoma, thyroid cancer, and epidermoid cysts. Desmoid tumours are seen in 15% of individuals with this syndrome. Due to colonic polyps, most patients will undergo colectomy to reduce the risk of colorectal cancer. It is now considered a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis coli.

      Overall, these genetic conditions have a significant association with surgical diseases, and early identification and management can help reduce the risk of malignancies and other associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 19 - The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      A helpful mnemonic to remember the causes of a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve is CADET face RIGHT. This stands for C O2, Acidosis, 2,3-DPG, Exercise, and Temperature. A right shift in the curve indicates an increased oxygen demand by the tissues, which can be caused by factors such as higher temperatures, acidosis, and increased levels of DPG. DPG is a molecule found in red blood cells that is elevated during glycolysis and can bind to hemoglobin, releasing oxygen to the tissues. Conditions associated with poor oxygen delivery, such as anemia and high altitude, can also lead to increased DPG levels.

      Oxygen Transport and Factors Affecting Haemoglobin Saturation

      Oxygen transport in the body is mainly carried out by erythrocytes, with only 1% of oxygen being transported as a solution due to its limited solubility. The amount of oxygen transported depends on the concentration of haemoglobin and its degree of saturation. Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of four subunits, with two alpha and two beta subunits forming globin. Haem, which surrounds an iron atom in its ferrous state, can form two additional bonds with oxygen and a polypeptide chain. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction, and the molecular shape of haemoglobin facilitates the binding of subsequent oxygen molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood, and it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration. The curve can be shifted to the right or left by various factors. Chronic anaemia, for example, causes an increase in 2,3 DPG levels, which shifts the curve to the right, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. The Haldane effect causes a shift to the left, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, while the Bohr effect causes a shift to the right, resulting in enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. Factors that shift the curve to the left include low levels of H+, pCO2, 2,3-DPG, and temperature, as well as the presence of HbF, methaemoglobin, and carboxyhaemoglobin. Factors that shift the curve to the right include raised levels of H+, pCO2, and 2,3-DPG, as well as increased temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      17
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  • Question 20 - A sickle cell anaemia patient arrived at the emergency department after taking aspirin....

    Incorrect

    • A sickle cell anaemia patient arrived at the emergency department after taking aspirin. The peripheral blood film revealed bite cells and fragmented red blood cells, while the serum free haemoglobin levels were elevated. Which blood protein would the serum-free haemoglobin bind to?

      Your Answer: Ferritin

      Correct Answer: Haptoglobin

      Explanation:

      Free haemoglobin is bound by haptoglobin.

      Copper is bound by ceruloplasmin.

      Stored iron in the body is in the form of ferritin.

      Free heme molecules are bound by hemopexin.

      Laboratory Findings in Haematological Disease

      Haptoglobin is a laboratory test that measures the level of a protein that binds to free haemoglobin. A decrease in haptoglobin levels is often associated with intravascular haemolysis, a condition where red blood cells are destroyed within blood vessels. On the other hand, an increase in mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is commonly seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anemia. In contrast, a decrease in MCHC is often observed in microcytic anaemia, which is commonly caused by iron deficiency. It is important to note that autoimmune haemolytic anemia is often associated with spherocytosis. These laboratory findings are commonly tested in haematological disease exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating, reduced appetite, and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating, reduced appetite, and fatigue that have been worsening for four months. The GP refers her to gynaecology on a two-week-wait pathway for an ultrasound-guided biopsy, which confirms ovarian cancer. A staging CT scan reveals the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes.

      Which lymph nodes are the most probable to be affected?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal nodes

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Metastatic ovarian cancer is often first detected in the para-aortic lymph nodes, as this is where the ovaries drain. The fundus of the uterus drains to the deep inguinal nodes through lymphatics that follow the round ligament. The inferior mesenteric nodes receive drainage from the upper part of the rectum, sigmoid colon, and descending colon. The body of the uterus drains to the iliac nodes through lymphatics that follow the broad ligament, while parts of the cervix may drain to the presacral nodes via lymphatics that follow the uterosacral fold.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 22 - What is the lymphatic drainage of the ovaries? ...

    Correct

    • What is the lymphatic drainage of the ovaries?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The para-aortic nodes receive lymphatic drainage from the ovary through the gonadal vessels.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year old man presents to the clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old man presents to the clinic with a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and increasing issues with erectile dysfunction. During the examination, you observe a pigmented appearance, gynaecomastia, a lack of body hair, and hepatomegaly of two finger breadths. What diagnostic investigation should be performed?

      Your Answer: Iron studies

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis Diagnosis and Overview

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is caused by abnormalities in the HFE gene. The diagnosis of haemochromatosis can be suggested by the presence of diabetes, hypogonadism, deranged liver function, and pigmentation. An elevation of serum ferritin is expected in this condition, and further assessment of iron storage can be done by measuring transferrin saturation. Other investigations may also be necessary to assess the complications of type 2 diabetes and the end organ consequences of haemochromatosis.

      Overall, haemochromatosis is a condition that affects iron metabolism in the body. It can lead to iron overload and damage to various organs, including the liver, heart, and pancreas. Early diagnosis and treatment are important to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      27
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old woman visits the maternity assessment unit two weeks after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits the maternity assessment unit two weeks after giving birth with complaints of perineal pain and discharge. She had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery at 40+5 weeks and suffered a type 3a perineal tear. Her primary concern is that the wound may be infected as it appears red and inflamed when she tries to examine it with a mirror.

      During the examination, the perineal wound shows signs of purulent discharge, erythematous surrounding skin, and a buried suture. Given the complexity of the repair, the consultant orders a CT scan to rule out a pelvic abscess. The CT report reveals a small fluid collection in the perineal wound and lymphadenopathy.

      Based on this information, where is the likely site of lymphatic drainage?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The patient’s CT scan showed lymphadenopathy in the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, which is expected as the infection is located in the perineum. The deep inguinal lymph nodes, which drain the glans penis and clitoris, are not the primary site for perineal drainage. The medial group of external iliac lymph nodes drain the urinary bladder, membranous aspect of the urethra, cervix, and upper part of the vagina, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, the lower part of the rectum, the cervix, and the inferior uterus. If there were retained products of conception in the uterus causing an infection or a type 4 perineal tear involving a substantial portion of the rectum, lymphadenopathy of the internal iliac lymph nodes may be seen on the CT scan. The para-aortic lymph nodes drain the ovaries, but this is not relevant to the patient’s case as there is no indication of an ovarian pathology.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old individual undergoes a lump excision procedure and upon examination of a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old individual undergoes a lump excision procedure and upon examination of a histological section, a clump of Reed Sternberg cells is identified by the pathologist. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hodgkins lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.

      The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.

      When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.

      In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.5
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman with a past medical history of polycythemia rubra vera complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a past medical history of polycythemia rubra vera complains of increasing fatigue and low-grade fever for the past three weeks. Upon blood tests, she is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia. Which of the following types of immune cells are produced from myeloid progenitors?

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells

      Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.

      The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.

      This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed by his pediatrician with a condition characterized by...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed by his pediatrician with a condition characterized by a slightly low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and a haemoglobin at the lower end of normal. Upon full investigation, it is discovered that he is missing a gene for one of his four alpha globin alleles. The doctor explains the condition to the boy and his parents, writing (aa/a-) to describe it. What is the name of this condition?

      Your Answer: Silent carrier (alpha(+) heterozygous)

      Explanation:

      There are five potential disease phenotypes of alpha thalassaemia based on the number of faulty or missing globin alleles in a patient’s genotype. These include silent carrier (alpha(+) heterozygous) for one missing allele, alpha thalassaemia trait: alpha(0) heterozygous for two missing alleles, alpha thalassaemia trait: alpha(+) homozygous for two missing alleles, haemoglobin H disease for three missing alleles, and (–/–) for four missing alleles.

      Understanding Alpha-Thalassaemia

      Alpha-thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that results from a deficiency of alpha chains in haemoglobin. The condition is caused by a mutation in the alpha-globulin genes located on chromosome 16. The severity of the disease depends on the number of alpha globulin alleles affected. If one or two alleles are affected, the blood picture would be hypochromic and microcytic, but the haemoglobin level would typically be normal. However, if three alleles are affected, it results in a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly, which is known as Hb H disease. In the case of all four alleles being affected, which is known as homozygote, it can lead to death in utero, also known as hydrops fetalis or Bart’s hydrops. Understanding the different levels of severity of alpha-thalassaemia is crucial in diagnosing and managing the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A patient comes to the clinic with a few months of experiencing head...

    Correct

    • A patient comes to the clinic with a few months of experiencing head fullness and vision deterioration. After undergoing various blood tests, all results appear normal except for an Hb level of 188 g/L. What is linked to primary polycythemia in this case?

      Your Answer: JAK2 mutation

      Explanation:

      JAK2 Mutation and Primary Polycythaemia

      Polycythaemia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of red blood cells in the body. In primary polycythaemia, over 95% of cases are associated with a mutation in the JAK2 pathway. This mutation causes the pathway to be constantly active, leading to the production of red blood cells even in the absence of erythropoietin (EPO). The most common mutation occurs in exon 12, affecting position V617F.

      On the other hand, secondary causes of polycythaemia include COPD and smoking, which lower blood oxygenation and trigger the secretion of EPO by the kidney’s peritubular cells. ADPKD also promotes the secretion of increased EPO, resulting in the production and release of more red blood cells. Dehydration, on the other hand, reduces plasma volume, leading to an apparent/relative polycythaemia. While these factors can cause an increase in red blood cells, they are not associated with a primary haematological disorder like the JAK2 mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of painful axillary lymphadenopathy that...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of painful axillary lymphadenopathy that developed just one day ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he sustained a scratch while gardening a couple of days prior. The patient states that he cleaned the wound at the time, but it has since deteriorated and is now oozing yellow fluid.

      During the examination, the wound appears hyperemic, and there is a purulent exudate.

      Where is the wound most likely located?

      Your Answer: C6 dermatome

      Explanation:

      The upper limb drains into the axillary lymph nodes, which can become painful and may lead to lymphadenitis in cases of secondary bacterial infection. The correct dermatome for sensory innervation of the lateral half of the forearm is C6, while C2 provides sensory innervation to the posterior half of the head, L2 to the anterior thighs, and T8 to a horizontal band around the torso below the umbilicus (T10), all of which are drained by different lymph nodes.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his right femur. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals a growth located at the metaphysis that elevates the periosteum and appears to extend into the surrounding soft tissues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Bone Tumours

      Osteosarcomas are the most frequent primary bone malignancy, often occurring in the metaphysis around the knee. They are more common in boys and affect those aged between 14 and 20 years old. Symptoms include pain, low impact fracture, or a mass. On an x-ray, they appear as an area of new bone beneath the periosteum, lifting it up, known as Codman’s triangle. Another feature is sunray spiculation, where opaque lines of osteosarcoma grow into adjacent soft tissues.

      Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that usually develops from benign chondromas, often in hereditary multiple exostoses. Ewing sarcoma is a tumour of unknown origin that develops in limb girdles or the diaphysis of long bones. It has a characteristic onion appearance on x-ray, with concentric rings of new bone formation. Bone metastases are rare in children, and there are no features to suggest a primary tumour, although it should be considered.

      Osteoid osteoma is a benign cystic tumour that occurs in the long bones of young men and teenagers. It causes severe pain and shows as local cortical sclerosis but does not invade into soft tissues. the different types of bone tumours and their characteristics is crucial for early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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