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Question 1
Correct
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A number of tests have been ordered for a 49 year old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?
Your Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage
Explanation:Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.
DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for developing this condition?
Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in the UK. Degeneration of the central retina (macula) is the key feature with changes usually bilateral. Smoking and genetic factors are risk factors for macular degeneration. The severity is divided into early, intermediate, and late types. The late type is additionally divided into dry and wet forms with the dry form making up 90% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female presented to her ophthalmologist with a complaint of weakening eyesight despite continued use of her corrective glasses. She also had a history of mild headaches for a few weeks. On fundoscopy, the disc had blurred margins with mild cupping and a sickle shaped scotoma in both eyes. What is the most appropriate treatment in this case?
Your Answer: Scleral buckling
Correct Answer: Pilocarpine eye drops
Explanation:Frequent change of eye glasses, scotoma, and mild cupping are suggestive of primary open angle glaucoma. This means that the anterior angle of the eye is normal but there is a problem in the trabecular meshwork, where the Schlemm’s Canal is not allowing the drainage of the aqueous humor. Pilocarpine should be given to the patient because it is a parasympathomimetic agent. It causes the ciliary muscle of the eye to contract, causing the trabecular meshwork to open up, allowing the aqueous humor to drain again.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals splenomegaly associated with pale conjunctivae. Her full blood count (FBC) report shows: Hb: 10.9 g/dL, Plts: 702 x 10^9/L, WCC: 56.6 x 10^9/L. Moreover, all stages of granulocyte maturation are seen on her blood film. Given the likely diagnosis, what should be the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Repeat full blood count in 3 months
Correct Answer: Imatinib
Explanation:This patient is a case of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and should be started on imatinib as the first-line drug of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast. Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?
Your Answer: Dilated pupils
Correct Answer: Sweating
Explanation:Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.
Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.
Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.
Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.
Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.
Treatment of opioid overdose:
Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.
Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.
Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital CMV infection can occur when a pregnant woman is infected with the cytomegalovirus (CMV) and passes the virus to her unborn child. Infants infected with CMV during pregnancy can exhibit a range of symptoms, including jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly (abnormally small head size). These symptoms are consistent with congenital CMV infection.
Given the mother’s HIV-positive status, the infant may have been at increased risk of acquiring other infections, including CMV, due to potential immunodeficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water. On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic. What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?
Your Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level
Explanation:Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.
In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.
Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.
Management:
– Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.
– Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline).
– On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.
– Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Varicose eczema
Explanation:Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was treated with radiotherapy which led to complete remission. What is the most likely long-term risk of radiotherapy?
Your Answer: Bone marrow failure
Correct Answer: Secondary cancer
Explanation:The major delayed problem with radiotherapy is the development of secondary cancers. This risk begins to appear ten years after therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected. Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?
Your Answer: Low phosphate
Correct Answer: Low corrected calcium
Explanation:Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.
TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.
Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35 year old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which wakes him up in the night. He also has a itchy, dry and scaly skin rash. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Eczema
Explanation:The skin lesion is most probably eczema. It is common among atopic people. Asthma is a common association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 53 year old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a review. Which of the following features are commonly associated with her condition?
Your Answer: Uveitis
Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joint involvement in the hands
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is a polyarthritis that results in symmetrical pain and swelling of the affected joints (also at rest). It particularly affects the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJs) and proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPJs), not the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
Ulcerative colitis and IBD are associated with seronegative arthritides, not RA. The condition can also cause various extra-articular manifestations such as ocular symptoms, rheumatoid nodules and pulmonary fibrosis. Scleritis, episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca are more common than uveitis. Early intervention with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) plays a decisive role in successful treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman presents with 18 month history of gait ataxia, dysarthria, and dysphagia. On examination there is down beating nystagmus and slurred speech. There is past pointing in both upper limbs and a wide-based ataxic gait. Reflexes and sensation are normal. There is no wasting or fasciculations. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Arnold-Chiari malformation
Explanation:Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Arnold-Chiari malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brainstem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction such as DBN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 54 yr. old patient presented with a dry cough after starting treatment for hypertension. He was prescribed ramipril 2.5mg and the dry cough started after that, which disturbed his sleep. His blood pressure was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe a different ACE-inhibitor
Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan
Explanation:ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry cough and they should be stopped, to settle the cough. The next drug of choice is an angiotensin receptor blocker such as candesartan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5 day history of altered personality, and visual and auditory hallucinations. On palpation of the abdomen, a mass is felt in the left iliac fossa. Ultrasound of the abdomen suggests a left ovarian tumour. Her basic observations are as follows: Oxygen saturation 99% on air Heart rate 98 beats/minute Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute Temperature 37.9 °C What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis
Explanation:The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg. On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 – 17.7), White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 – 11), Platelets 180 x109/l (150 – 400), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 – 146), Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 – 5), Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 – 118), HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0). He would like to start sitagliptin. Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?
Your Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before going outside. She also says that she has to wash her hands before and after leaving the house. She explains that she gets very uptight and anxious if these are not done in a certain order. This has been ongoing for the past four years and is upsetting her deeply. What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy
Explanation:Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic and long-lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts (obsessions) and behaviours (compulsions) that he or she feels the urge to repeat over and over.
People with OCD may have symptoms of obsessions, compulsions, or both. These symptoms can interfere with all aspects of life, such as work, school, and personal relationships.Obsessions are repeated thoughts, urges, or mental images that cause anxiety. Common symptoms include:
Fear of germs or contamination
Unwanted forbidden or taboo thoughts involving sex, religion, and harm
Aggressive thoughts towards others or self
Having things symmetrical or in a perfect orderCompulsions are repetitive behaviours that a person with OCD feels the urge to do in response to an obsessive thought. Common compulsions include:
-Excessive cleaning and/or handwashing
-Ordering and arranging things in a particular, precise way
-Repeatedly checking on things, such as repeatedly checking to see if the door is locked or that the oven is off
-Compulsive countingResearch also shows that a type of CBT called Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is effective in reducing compulsive behaviours in OCD, even in people who did not respond well to SRI medication. ERP has become the first-line psychotherapeutic treatment for OCD
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this is diagnosed as optic neuritis. Which one of the following statements would be seen in an afferent pupillary defect?
Your Answer: Irregular pupil of the affected eye
Correct Answer: Accommodation response is unaffected
Explanation:Afferent pupillary defect is simply a delayed pupillary response to light. Accommodation is otherwise unaffected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus?
Your Answer: Central cerebellar lesion
Correct Answer: Chiari type I malformation
Explanation:Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Chiari Type I malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brain stem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction, which includes DBN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 68 year old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is reviewed. On examination, there is evidence of cor pulmonale with a significant degree of pedal oedema. His FEV1 is 44%. During a recent hospital stay his pO2 on room air was 7.4 kPa. Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in this patient?
Your Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy
Explanation:Assess the need for oxygen therapy in people with:
– very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 below 30% predicted)
– cyanosis (blue tint to skin)
– polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema (swelling)
– a raised jugular venous pressure
– oxygen saturations of 92% or less breathing air.Also consider assessment for people with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30–49% predicted).
Consider long-term oxygen therapy for people with COPD who do not smoke and who:
have a partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) below 7.3 kPa when stable or have a PaO2 above 7.3 and below 8 kPa when stable, if they also have 1 or more of the following:
– secondary polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema
– pulmonary hypertension. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Correct
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A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis. On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin. It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?
Your Answer: Fenofibrate
Explanation:Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.
Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.
High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.
Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He has been complaining of headaches for the past 2 weeks, although he has been able to continue working at his job. Upon examination, he has mild left hemiparesis and bilateral extensor plantar responses. General examination is otherwise unremarkable. An urgent CT scan of the brain shows a 5cm multicentric mass lesion in the right frontal lobe with surrounding vasogenic oedema and some hemisphere shift. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathology?
Your Answer: Glioblastoma
Explanation:Glioblastoma multiforme, also considered as grade IV astrocytoma, is the most malignant form of the tumour and accounts for about 20% of all cerebral tumours. These often remain clinically silent until they have reached a large enough size. In adults, glioblastoma multiforme usually occurs in the cerebral hemispheres, especially the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. About half occupy more than one hemisphere at presentation, and some are multicentric. Biopsy shows high cellularity with mitoses, pleomorphism, and vascular hyperplasia. Prognosis is extremely poor, with only 20% surviving beyond 1 year and 10% beyond 2 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical attack in the city. The patients are extremely unwell, with symptoms of excessive salivation, lacrimation, diarrhoea, and emesis. Sarin gas was suspected as the most likely agent used in the attack. What is the mechanism of action of this chemical agent?
Your Answer: Anti-cholinergic
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:Sarin acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.
Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This results in high levels of acetylcholine (ACh).The effects of excessive ACh can be remembered by the mnemonic DUMBELLS:
Diarrhoea
Urination
Miosis/muscle weakness
Bronchorrhea/Bradycardia
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation/sweatingOrganophosphate insecticide poisoning:
One of the effects of organophosphate poisoning is inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Features can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation/diarrhoea
cardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardia
miosis, muscle fasciculation.Organophosphate poisoning is treated with the anti-muscarinic atropine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?
Your Answer: X-ray of the knee
Correct Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid
Explanation:Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand. What is the treatment of choice in this case?
Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
Short stature
Stocky habitus
Obesity
Developmental delay
Round face
Dental hypoplasia
Brachymetacarpals
Brachymetatarsals
Soft tissue calcification/ossification
The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?
Your Answer: Airborne
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following statements regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?
Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors typically decrease the prostate specific antigen level
Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases
Explanation:Goserelin (Zoladex) is usually prescribed to treat hormone-sensitive cancers of the breast and prostate not for BPH. All other statements are correct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old hairdresser presented to her GP complaining of tingling in the right palm and right wrist pain. She had intermittently experienced these symptoms; however, recently they had been keeping her awake all night. She had noticed a reduction in grip and was struggling to work at the salon. Otherwise, she felt well in herself and had not noticed any weakness in the other hand or lower limb. Her weight was stable, and she denied any neck problems or swallowing difficulties. She had a past medical history of hypothyroidism and hypertension and took regular thyroxine, Bendroflumethiazide and ibuprofen. She was a non-smoker and rarely drank alcohol. On examination, she appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full. On examination of the upper limb, there was wasting over the right thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the right index finger. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger in the right hand. Nerve conduction studies showed absent sensory action potential in right median palmar branches and denervation of the right abductor pollicis brevis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve palsy
Explanation:The history is consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) arising as a result of pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. The median nerve supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence: the abductor pollicis (C7, C8), flexor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis, and the lateral two lumbricals. The nerve conduction studies confirm marked denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impetigo
Explanation:Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following procedures does not require antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dental procedure for a patient with an atrial septal defect
Explanation:According to latest NICE guidelines, patients with isolated atrial septal defects do not require prophylactic antibiotics originally used in prevention of infective endocarditis in dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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