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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman returns for review. She has been experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the last four to five months.
She reports a history of constipation since her teenage years and uses lactulose as needed to ensure regular bowel movements. Currently, she has daily bowel movements with soft and easily passed stools. She denies any rectal bleeding or mucous passage and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding or discharge since her last period at age 50.
On clinical examination, her abdomen feels soft and no masses are palpable.
As part of her investigation in primary care, which tumour marker would be appropriate to request?Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumour Markers in Clinical Contexts
Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts, but they are not a routine primary care investigation. One example of a valuable tumour marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian cancer. Ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms that can be easily attributed to more benign pathology, so a high index of suspicion is needed. The use of the CA125 tumour marker can be helpful in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer during initial primary care investigations.
NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing. These symptoms include bloating, appetite loss, early satiety, abdominal pain, pelvic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, lethargy, weight loss, and change in bowel habit.
Other tumour markers are typically specialist tests that would rarely, if at all, be requested in primary care. These markers are associated with other types of cancer, such as α fetoprotein for hepatocellular carcinoma, CEA for colonic carcinoma, CA19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and Chromogranin A for neuroendocrine tumours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 2
Correct
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You encounter a 36-year-old woman who complains of vaginal discharge. She has a history of bacterial vaginosis (BV) and has been treated for it around five times in the past year. A high vaginal swab reveals BV once again, and her vaginal pH remains >4.5. She is bothered by the unpleasant odor and requests further treatment. She has had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) for three years.
In addition to prescribing a 7-day course of oral metronidazole, what other recommendations could you make?Your Answer: Consider removing the IUD and advising the use of an alternative form of contraception
Explanation:There is not enough evidence to recommend any specific treatment for recurrent BV in primary care. However, in women with an intrauterine contraceptive device and persistent BV, it may be advisable to remove the device and suggest an alternative form of contraception.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive high-risk HPV and low-grade dyskaryosis on cytology. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Return to normal recall
Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical cancer screening sample is positive for high-risk HPV and shows cytological abnormalities, the next step according to guidelines is to refer the patient for a colposcopy. During this procedure, the cervix is closely examined to identify any disease. If significant abnormalities are found, loop excision of the transformation zone may be necessary.
Returning the patient to normal recall is not appropriate as further investigation is required. Repeating the sample in 3 months is also not necessary as the patient has high-risk HPV and needs specialist assessment. However, repeating the sample in 12 months could be considered if the patient has high-risk HPV with normal cytological findings after colposcopy.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sex within the last 24 hours and is not currently using any regular form of birth control. Her menstrual cycle is regular, with her last period occurring 12 days ago. She has no known medical conditions. Upon reviewing her medical records, you discover that she used levonorgestrel for emergency contraception 20 days ago.
She asks for your advice on what options are available for emergency contraception. How should you respond?Your Answer: She can use levonorgestrel or ulipristal, or the intrauterine copper device
Explanation:It is now recommended to use both levonorgestrel and ulipristal more than once in the same menstrual cycle. According to the current guidelines from the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), if a woman has already taken either medication once or more in a cycle, she can be offered it again after further unprotected sexual intercourse in the same cycle. However, if she has already taken one medication, the other should not be taken within a certain timeframe. It is important to note that the intrauterine copper device is the most effective form of contraception and should be offered to eligible patients. Advising that no emergency contraception is needed when a woman is at risk of pregnancy is incorrect.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep pain during intercourse. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent GUM check-up and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan were normal. She is not keen to have any invasive tests at present.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Refer to outpatient gynaecology
Correct Answer: NSAIDs
Explanation:Management of Endometriosis-Related Pain and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
When it comes to managing endometriosis-related pain, a trial of paracetamol or an NSAID (alone or in combination) is recommended as first-line treatment. If this proves ineffective, other forms of pain management, including neuropathic pain treatment, should be considered. Hormonal treatment, such as COCP and POP, is also a sensible first-line option for women with suspected or confirmed endometriosis.
For pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), metronidazole + ofloxacin is often used as first-line treatment. However, there is no indication of this from the patient’s history. Referral to gynaecology would not add much at this stage, as they would likely offer the same options. Additionally, the patient is not keen on any surgical intervention at this point, which would include laparoscopy.
It’s important to note that GnRH agonists are not routinely started in primary care. They are sometimes started by gynaecology as an adjunct to surgery for deep endometriosis. Overall, a tailored approach to management is necessary for both endometriosis-related pain and PID, taking into account the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of a fishy vaginal discharge that she finds offensive. She reports a grey, watery discharge. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Correct
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A 49-year-old female presents with complaints of superficial dyspareunia. Her medical history includes treatment for two UTIs in the past six months, an IUS fitted at age 47, and two years of taking the lower dose of oestrogen only HRT for hot flashes. What is the most suitable course of action from the options provided below?
Your Answer: She should be offered vaginal oestrogen therapy in addition to her oral HRT
Explanation:Topical Oestrogens for Genitourinary Symptoms of Menopause
Topical oestrogens can be used alongside transdermal/oral HRT to treat genitourinary symptoms of menopause. In fact, systemic HRT doesn’t improve these symptoms in 10-15% of women. Topical oestrogens are effective in these cases and can be combined with systemic HRT.
Combined HRT is not better than oestrogen-only therapy for treating genitourinary symptoms, and progestogens are only used for endometrial protection. If a patient already has protection via an IUS, combination therapy would not be beneficial. Topical oestrogen preparations have been shown to improve vaginal symptoms, including vaginal atrophy and pH decrease, and to increase epithelial maturation compared to placebo or non-hormonal gels.
It is important to note that systemic absorption of vaginal oestrogen is very low. Therefore, topical oestrogens work better for genitourinary symptoms of menopause compared to oral HRT and can be used in combination. According to NICE NG23, vaginal oestrogen should be offered to women with urogenital atrophy, including those on systemic HRT, and treatment should continue for as long as needed to relieve symptoms.
If vaginal oestrogen doesn’t relieve symptoms, the dose can be increased after seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in menopause. Women should be informed that symptoms often return when treatment is stopped, but adverse effects from vaginal oestrogen are very rare. They should report any unscheduled vaginal bleeding to their GP. Additionally, moisturisers and lubricants can be used alone or in addition to vaginal oestrogen for vaginal dryness. Routine monitoring of endometrial thickness during treatment for urogenital atrophy is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Correct
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A 29-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of severe pain and swelling around her vagina, making it difficult for her to sit, walk or have sexual intercourse. Upon examination, the left side of the labia majora appears red and inflamed, and a 4 cm tender, warm, tense mass is present at the four o'clock position in the vulvar vestibule. The patient is treated with marsupialisation.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bartholin's abscess
Explanation:Marsupialisation is the definitive treatment for Bartholin’s abscess, which presents with sudden pain and difficulty urinating. On examination, a hard mass with surrounding cellulitis is found at the site of the Bartholin’s glands in the vulvar vestibule. The abscess is caused by infection of the Bartholin’s cyst. Bartholin’s cyst, on the other hand, is caused by a buildup of mucous secretions from the Bartholin’s glands and is typically asymptomatic unless it grows larger. Inclusion cysts, which are caused by vaginal wall trauma, are usually small and found on the posterior vaginal wall. Skene’s gland cysts, which form when the duct is obstructed, may cause dyspareunia or urinary tract infection symptoms. Vesicovaginal fistulas, which allow urine to continuously discharge into the vaginal tract, require surgical treatment.
Understanding Bartholin’s Abscess
Bartholin’s glands are two small glands situated near the opening of the vagina. They are typically the size of a pea, but they can become infected and swell, resulting in a Bartholin’s abscess. This condition can be treated in a variety of ways, including antibiotics, the insertion of a word catheter, or a surgical procedure called marsupialization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Correct
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A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple pain. She describes sharp pain during feeds which eases afterwards. She has been seeing her health visitor for baby weighing and he is growing along the 75th centile, but she has not had an observed feed. She doesn't have any concerns about the baby. On examination you notice some fissuring on the right nipple inferiorly but otherwise examination is normal. She is afebrile.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Nipple damage from inefficient infant attachment (‘latch’)
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers may experience nipple damage due to poor latch, which can cause pain and fissuring. This is often caused by incorrect positioning and attachment of the baby to the breast. It is important to seek help from a breastfeeding expert to improve positioning and address any underlying issues, such as tongue tie.
Nipple candidiasis can cause burning pain, itching, and hypersensitivity in both nipples, as well as deep breast pain. A bacterial infection may result in purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Vasospasm, also known as Raynaud’s disease of the nipple, can cause intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as blanching, cyanosis, and/or erythema.
If a breastfeeding mother experiences itching and a dry, scaly rash on both nipples, it may be a sign of eczema. For more information and guidance on breastfeeding problems, consult the NICE clinical knowledge summary and the GP infant feeding network.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also reported as normal. However, a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary while the right ovary and uterus appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Routine referral to gynaecology
Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks
Explanation:Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.
When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.
For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.
Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with persistent irregular per vaginal bleeding after starting the progesterone only pill 3 months ago. She reports having her last menstrual period 1 week ago and denies any abdominal pain or abnormal per vaginal discharge. A urine pregnancy test was negative. On examination, her heart rate is 65 beats per minute, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, and she is afebrile. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender.
As a male GP, you are faced with the dilemma of performing a speculum examination without a suitable chaperone. The patient declines the only available chaperone, a female receptionist whom she has previously made a complaint against. What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent admission under gynaecology for speculum examination
Correct Answer: Defer the speculum examination to the following day, when the patient can be seen by a female GP
Explanation:If a patient refuses a chaperone for an intimate examination and you are not comfortable performing the examination without one, it is necessary to make alternative arrangements for the patient to be examined.
As per the current guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare, a speculum examination is necessary for a patient who has been experiencing problematic per vaginal bleeding with hormonal contraception for more than three months. It is crucial to examine and visualize the cervix. However, in this case, the patient has declined a male chaperone, making it a challenging situation.
While referring the patient to another service for the examination is an option, it is not appropriate for an urgent same-day admission as this is a longstanding problem. Additionally, some accident and emergency departments may not be comfortable performing speculum examinations and would refer the patient to the gynaecology department if necessary.
Referring the patient to the two-week wait clinic without examining is not appropriate as the referral may not be necessary.
Continuing with the examination without a chaperone is not advisable, especially if the clinician is uncomfortable doing so, as there is no indication of an emergency presentation.
Proceeding with the examination with a female receptionist chaperoning is not recommended as the patient has declined this and has the capacity to do so. This would be without her consent.
The most appropriate course of action would be to arrange for a suitable colleague to examine the patient the following day. As there is no indication of an acute emergency or evidence of ectopic pregnancy, deferring the examination to the following day is entirely appropriate.
GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones
The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.
Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.
It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 24 hours ago and has not had any other instances of unprotected sex. She has no history of using emergency contraception or regular contraception. Her last menstrual period was 12 days ago, and she has a regular 30-day cycle. She has a medical history of severe asthma and takes oral steroids. She declines the use of an intrauterine device.
On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and her body-mass index is 35 kg/m2.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Explain to the patient that oral emergency contraception is unlikely to be effective, and advise the patient to re-consider the copper intra-uterine device
Correct Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 3 mg, and advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3-weeks
Explanation:It is incorrect to advise the patient that she doesn’t require emergency contraception as she is at risk of pregnancy. Although oral emergency contraception may not be effective if taken after ovulation, the patient’s last menstrual period was only 10 days ago, making it a potential option. The patient has declined an intrauterine device, which is the most effective option, but should not be pressured into using it for emergency contraception. Ulipristal acetate is not recommended for the patient due to her severe asthma and use of oral steroids. It is important to note that patients with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70 kg should be given a double dose of levonorgestrel for emergency contraception. Additionally, it is crucial to discuss ongoing contraception and sexual health with the patient.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman complains of multiple occurrences of vaginal candidiasis that have not responded to OTC or prescribed treatments. As per the guidelines of the British Association of Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH), what is the minimum frequency of yearly episodes required to diagnose recurrent vaginal candidiasis?
Your Answer: Six or more episodes per year
Correct Answer: Four or more episodes per year
Explanation:According to BASHH, recurrent vaginal candidiasis is characterized by experiencing four or more episodes per year. This criterion is significant as it helps determine the need for prophylactic treatment to prevent future recurrences.
Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.
Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.
Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 14
Correct
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A woman presents 6 weeks postpartum following a normal vaginal delivery. She is Breastfeeding her son who is growing well along the 50th centile. She does however complain of intermittent severe bilateral nipple pain during feeding which persists for a few minutes afterwards. She has noticed her nipples turn very pale after feeds when the pain is present and occasional also a blueish colour. She has seen the local breastfeeding team who have observed her feeding and reassured that the infant’s latch is good. On examination of her breasts, they appear normal with no tenderness or nipple cracks evident. Her infant appears well with a normal tongue and no evidence of tongue tie.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Raynaud’s disease of the nipple (vasospasm)
Explanation:Raynaud’s disease of the nipple can cause pain in women who are breastfeeding.
Symptoms of Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as nipple blanching followed by cyanosis and/or erythema. Pain subsides when the nipple returns to its normal color. Other possible causes of nipple pain, such as candidiasis or poor latch, should also be considered. Treatment options for Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs after feeding, avoiding caffeine, and quitting smoking. If symptoms persist, referral to a specialist for a trial of oral nifedipine may be necessary (although this is off-license).
Option one is the correct answer, as the clinical history is consistent with Raynaud’s disease of the nipple. Option two is incorrect, as pain would be more localized and may be accompanied by a white spot or tenderness. Option three is also incorrect, as pain is usually more generalized and occurs during the first few minutes of feeding. Option four is incorrect, as an infection would likely present with purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Option five is also incorrect, as an eczematous rash would likely be present with itching and dry, scaly patches.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 15
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing unusual lower back pain for the last couple of months. After an x-ray of her lumbar spine, it was suggested that she may have spinal metastases, but there is no indication of a primary tumor. She was sent for a series of tumor marker tests and referred to an oncologist. Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 15-3?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:Breast cancers can be detected by the presence of the tumour marker CA 15-3.
Understanding Tumour Markers
Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be present in people without cancer.
Monoclonal antibodies are a type of tumour marker that target specific carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens. Some examples of monoclonal antibodies and their associated cancers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer.
Tumour antigens are another type of tumour marker that are produced by cancer cells. Examples of tumour antigens and their associated cancers include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, S-100 for melanoma and schwannomas, and bombesin for small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, and neuroblastoma.
Understanding tumour markers and their associations with different types of cancer can aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. However, it is important to interpret tumour marker results in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old lady who has recently moved to the UK from Haiti presents with post-coital bleeding and an offensive vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for six weeks. She had swabs taken by the practice nurse a week prior to her visit. On examination, an inflamed cervix that bleeds upon touch is noted. She is a gravida 6, para 4, and has never had a cervical smear. She has been sterilized for 10 years and has never used barrier contraception. A high vaginal swab has ruled out Chlamydia, gonorrhoea, and Trichomonas. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Refer for urgent colposcopy
Explanation:Suspected Cervical Cancer
This patient should be suspected to have cervical cancer until proven otherwise, due to inflammation of the cervix that has been shown to be non-infective and no documented smear history, which puts her at higher risk. Empirical treatment for Chlamydia or gonorrhoea would not usually be suggested in general practice unless the patient has symptoms and signs of PID. Referring to an STD clinic is incorrect, as urgent investigation for cancer is necessary. Referring routinely to gynaecology is an option, but it doesn’t fully take into account the urgency of ruling out cervical cancer. Arranging a smear test for a lady with suspected cervical cancer would be inappropriate, as smear tests do not diagnose cancer, they only assess the likelihood of cancer occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD. There are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required
Explanation:If the patient removes her IUD on day 1-5 of her menstrual cycle and switches to the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), she doesn’t need any additional contraception. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days. However, if she starts the COCP from day 6 onwards, she will need to use barrier contraception for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal unless there is another reason. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception, but this is not the case for this patient.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old nulliparous lady is started on continuous HRT 18 months after her last period. Nine months later she starts to get intermittent spotting. Her doctor stops the HRT, wondering if it may be causative, but the spotting is still persisting four weeks later. There is no post-coital bleeding or dyspareunia.
On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg and BMI is 35 kg/m2. Abdominal and pelvic examination (including the appearance of her cervix) is normal. Her last smear was nine months ago and they have all been normal to date.
There is a family history of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer and hypertension.
What should be done next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology as urgent suspected cancer
Explanation:Suspected Endometrial Cancer in postmenopausal Woman with Abnormal Bleeding
According to the 2015 NICE guidelines, women aged 55 and over with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This includes women who experience unexplained vaginal bleeding more than 12 months after menstruation has stopped due to menopause.
In this case, the patient’s periods stopped 18 months ago, making her postmenopausal. Her recent bleeding episode, along with her nulliparity, obesity, menopause after 52, and family history of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, all increase her risk for endometrial cancer. Although bleeding can occur when using HRT, the patient began bleeding six months after initiating HRT, and the bleeding persisted four weeks after stopping HRT, making it less likely that the medication is the cause.
Re-initiating HRT would be contraindicated until endometrial cancer is ruled out. While the patient has not experienced post-coital bleeding and has a normal-looking cervix with normal smear results, referral for colposcopy would not be the most appropriate next step. Inserting a Mirena coil may be useful in managing troublesome bleeding associated with HRT, but it would not be appropriate until the patient is investigated for endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine cervical smear. Her previous three smears have all been negative.
However, this latest smear has revealed mild dyskaryosis. The local cervical screening programme has also included HPV (human papillomavirus) testing as part of the screening process. Her sample has tested 'positive' for high-risk HPV.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:HPV Triage in NHS Cervical Cancer Screening Programme
HPV triage is a new addition to the NHS cervical cancer screening programme. It involves testing cytology samples of women with borderline changes or mild dyskaryosis for high-risk HPV types that are linked to cervical cancer development. The aim is to refer women with abnormalities for colposcopy and further investigation, and if necessary, treatment. However, only a small percentage of women referred for colposcopy actually require treatment as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own. HPV testing provides additional information to help determine who needs onward referral for colposcopy and who doesn’t. Women who test negative for high-risk HPV are simply returned to routine screening recall, while those who test positive are referred for colposcopy. HPV testing is also used as a ‘test of cure’ for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and have returned for follow-up cytology. Those with ‘normal’, ‘borderline’, or ‘mild dyskaryosis’ smear results who are HPV negative are returned to 3 yearly recall.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrauterine contraceptive devices should always be removed following diagnosis
Explanation:Mild cases of pelvic inflammatory disease do not require removal of intrauterine contraceptive devices.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient has contacted the clinic for a telephonic consultation regarding an increase in her vaginal discharge. She reports no vaginal soreness, dysuria, or bleeding and doesn't feel sick. The patient had an intrauterine system (Mirena coil) inserted two weeks ago. She has a history of multiple bacterial vaginosis episodes.
What would be the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask the patient to come in for examination and further assessment
Explanation:For women who are at high risk of STIs, have recently undergone a gynaecological or obstetric procedure (including delivery), or are pregnant, it is recommended to undergo an examination. In cases of new-onset vaginal discharge, an intimate examination is advised. If the patient has had an intrauterine system inserted recently and is experiencing a recurrence of bacterial vaginosis, an examination should be conducted before determining the next course of action.
Understanding Vaginal Discharge: Common and Less Common Causes
Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by many women, but it is not always a sign of a serious health issue. In fact, some amount of discharge is normal and helps to keep the vagina clean and healthy. However, when the discharge is accompanied by other symptoms such as itching, burning, or a foul odor, it may be a sign of an underlying condition.
The most common causes of vaginal discharge include Candida, Trichomonas vaginalis, and bacterial vaginosis. Candida is a fungal infection that can cause a thick, white discharge that resembles cottage cheese. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause a yellow or green, frothy discharge with a strong odor. Bacterial vaginosis is a bacterial infection that can cause a thin, gray or white discharge with a fishy odor.
Less common causes of vaginal discharge include gonorrhea, chlamydia, ectropion, foreign bodies, and cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with symptoms suggestive of vaginal thrush. She is experiencing a thick white discharge and itching around the vulva. This is the third time in 6 months that she has had these symptoms. Previously, she has been treated with antifungal medications and the symptoms have resolved. The patient has recently undergone a full STI screening which came back negative and she is not currently pregnant.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe an induction-maintenance regimen of antifungal medication
Explanation:Patients with recurrent vaginal candidiasis, defined as experiencing four or more documented episodes in one year with at least partial symptom resolution between episodes, should be considered for an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole, according to NICE guidance. This involves prescribing an induction course of three doses of oral fluconazole 150 mg taken three days apart or an intravaginal antifungal for 10-14 days, followed by a maintenance regimen of six months of treatment with an oral or intravaginal antifungal.
While topical antifungals can be used for uncomplicated episodes of vaginal thrush, prescribing a course of topical treatment would be inappropriate for patients with recurrent symptoms. Instead, the induction-maintenance regime should be used.
Referral to gynaecology or dermatology may be appropriate for patients aged 12-15 years old, those with doubt about the diagnosis, those with unexplained treatment failure, or those with a non-albicans Candida species identified. Swabbing the discharge to confirm the diagnosis is important, but treatment should not be delayed for symptomatic patients. Therefore, starting treatment with the induction-maintenance protocol is appropriate for patients with recurrent infections.
Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.
Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.
Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to you with concerns about her Depo-Provera injectable contraceptive. She has been experiencing irregular bleeding since starting the contraceptive 4 months ago. This is causing her personal inconvenience and putting a strain on her relationship. She denies any vaginal discharge and is in a stable relationship. She has had regular cervical smears and her last one was normal 2 years ago. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of a short-term combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Unscheduled Bleeding in a Young Lady on Depo-Provera Injection
This patient is a young lady who has been experiencing unscheduled bleeding after being put on the Depo-Provera injection. However, she has no red flag symptoms and is up-to-date with her cervical smears, which provides reassurance to her history. At this stage, blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are not necessary, but may be considered later on. Referral to a gynaecologist is not indicated as there are no alarming symptoms present.
It is important to follow advice from the cervical screening hub regarding cervical smears and not order one sooner than indicated. If any alarming symptoms arise, referral to a gynaecologist is recommended. For women experiencing unscheduled bleeding while on a progesterone-only injectable and who are medically eligible, a combined oral contraceptive can be offered for three months in the usual cyclic manner. The longer-term use of the combined contraceptive pill with the injectable progesterone is a matter of clinical judgement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Liam is a 25-year-old man with a diagnosis of cyclical mastalgia. At what point would you anticipate his breast pain to be most severe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around menses
Explanation:The intensity of cyclical mastalgia changes depending on the menstrual cycle phase. It is most severe during menstruation and starts during the luteal phase, gradually worsening until menstruation. However, it improves during the follicular phase. This type of mastalgia is linked to hormonal fluctuations and is not influenced by seasonal changes.
Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding inguinal hernias is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients should be referred promptly due to the risk of strangulation
Explanation:Strangulation of inguinal hernias is a rare occurrence.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are reviewing the results of a cervical smear test for a 33-year-old patient. The test has come back as high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) negative and it is noted that this is a repeat test. Upon further review, you see that this is the patient's second repeat test following an abnormal result at a routine screening 2 years ago. Her last test was 6 months ago when she tested hrHPV positive. Cytologically normal. She has not been invited for a colposcopy.
What would be the most appropriate next step in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Return to routine recall (in 3 years)
Explanation:If the results of the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months show that the patient is now negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the appropriate action is to return to routine recall in 3 years. This is based on the assumption that the patient had an initial abnormal smear 2 years ago, which showed hrHPV positive but with normal cytology. The patient then had a repeat test at 12 months, which also showed hrHPV positive but with normal cytology. If the patient had still been hrHPV positive, she would have been referred for colposcopy. However, since she is now negative, there is no need for further testing or repeat smear in 4 weeks or 12 months. It is also not necessary to check cytology on the sample as the latest cervical screening programme doesn’t require it if hrHPV is negative. It is important to note that transient hrHPV infection is common and doesn’t necessarily indicate a high risk of cervical cancer.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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During a phone consultation, a 32-year-old transgender man seeks advice on cervical screening. He is sexually active and had a normal cervical smear five years ago. However, he has changed GP practices and has not received any further invitations. He wants to know if he needs any further smear tests.
The patient is generally healthy and has not experienced weight loss, dyspareunia, or abnormal vaginal bleeding. He has not had a period for over 18 months and is only taking testosterone therapy since his gender reassignment two years ago. He has no surgical history and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.
What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient regarding cervical screening?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical screening should be offered to this patient
Explanation:All sexually active individuals with a uterus, including transgender patients, should be offered cervical screening. This patient, who is sexually active and has an intact uterus, requires regular cervical smear tests regardless of their menstrual cycle or symptoms of abnormal vaginal bleeding. Testosterone therapy may affect the patient’s gender characteristics, but gender reassignment allows for legal recognition of their gender identity and rights, such as obtaining a new birth certificate, driving license, passport, and the ability to marry in their new gender. However, neither of these factors exempts the patient from cervical screening.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You encounter a 35-year-old woman who is interested in initiating the combined hormonal contraceptive pill (COCP). She doesn't smoke and has a regular blood pressure. Her body mass index is 26 kg/m².
She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently on levothyroxine.
Although you discuss the option of long-acting reversible contraception, she insists on starting the COCP.
What UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) category does this fall under?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:The choice of contraceptive for women may be affected by comorbidities. The FSRH provides UKMEC recommendations for different conditions. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women under 35 and UKMEC 3 for those over 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes/day, but is UKMEC 4 for those who smoke more. Obesity increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² and UKMEC 3 for those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or more. The COCP is contraindicated for women with a history of migraine with aura, but is UKMEC 3 for those with migraines without aura and UKMEC 2 for initiation. For women with epilepsy, consistent use of condoms is recommended in addition to other forms of contraception. The choice of contraceptive for women taking anti-epileptic medication depends on the specific medication, with the COCP and POP being UKMEC 3 for most medications, while the implant is UKMEC 2 and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS are UKMEC 1. Lamotrigine has different recommendations, with the COCP being UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS being UKMEC 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her recent smear test results. The report indicates 'mild dyskaryosis', but HPV triage shows that she is 'HPV negative'. She is anxious about the possibility of needing treatment for the dyskaryosis. What is the appropriate follow-up plan in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should have a cervical smear in 3 years time
Explanation:HPV Triage in NHS Cervical Cancer Screening Programme
HPV triage is a new addition to the NHS cervical cancer screening programme. It involves testing cytology samples of women with borderline changes or mild dyskaryosis for high-risk HPV types that are linked to cervical cancer development. The aim is to refer only those who need further investigation and treatment, as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own.
If a woman tests negative for high-risk HPV, she is simply returned to routine screening recall. However, if she tests positive, she is referred for colposcopy. HPV testing is also used as a ‘test of cure’ for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and have returned for follow-up cytology. Those who are HPV negative are returned to 3 yearly recall. This new approach ensures that women receive the appropriate level of care and reduces unnecessary referrals for colposcopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She reports not having a normal period for approximately 7 months. Despite a recent negative pregnancy test, she remains concerned. The doctor orders blood tests, which reveal the following results:
FSH 2.2 IU/L (0-20 IU/L)
Oestradiol 84 pmol/l (100-500 pmol/l)
Thyroid stimulating hormone 3.1 mIU/L
Prolactin 2 ng/ml (0-10 ng/ml)
Free androgen index 3 ( < 7 )
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excessive exercise
Explanation:Secondary amenorrhoea is frequently caused by hypothalamic hypogonadism in highly athletic women. This condition can be attributed to stress or excessive physical activity. Premature ovarian failure would be indicated by elevated FSH levels in the blood.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.
To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.
In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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