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Question 1
Incorrect
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When discussing the advantages and disadvantages of donepezil with a patient during a regular clinic visit, what would you inform him is the most prevalent adverse effect of the medication?
Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Nausea
Explanation:Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the definition of latency period in pharmacology, and how does it related to the time between drug absorption and the onset of a specific pharmacologic effect?
Your Answer: Latency period
Correct Answer: First pass effect
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about valproate?
Your Answer: Valproate is mainly metabolised by the kidneys
Correct Answer: If using sodium valproate rather than semi-sodium valproate higher doses are required
Explanation:The liver is responsible for metabolizing valproate, and drugs that disrupt the CYP enzymes can greatly impact its levels. Valproic acid and semi-sodium valproate are approved for treating bipolar disorder, while sodium valproate is solely approved for epilepsy.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Mutations in the gene that produces alpha-synuclein have been linked to early-onset Parkinson's disease
Explanation:Lewy bodies, which are present in Parkinson’s disease, are composed of alpha-synuclein.
Genetic Contributors to Parkinson’s Disease
Genetic contributors to Parkinson’s disease can range from highly penetrant DNA variants to variants that individually increase the lifetime risk of the disease. These genetic risks are often divided into rare DNA variants with high effect sizes, typically associated with familial Parkinson’s disease, and more common, smaller effect variants, usually identified in sporadic cases. While rare variants in over 20 genes have been reported to cause Parkinson’s disease, most cases are idiopathic.
One gene implicated in Parkinson’s disease is SNCA, which codes for alpha-synuclein. Autosomal dominant mutations of SNCA have been identified in several families with inherited Parkinson’s disease. Mutant forms of alpha-synuclein aggregate and induce other proteins to incorporate into the aggregate, forming Lewy bodies, which are similar to the beta-amyloid plaques found in Alzheimer’s patients. Another gene implicated in Parkinson’s disease is the Parkin gene.
It is important to note that the known genes responsible for Parkinson’s disease are responsible for a minority of cases, with the majority being sporadic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What EEG finding has consistently been associated with the use of clozapine?
Your Answer: A decrease in all four main waveforms
Correct Answer: Decreased alpha, increased theta, increased delta
Explanation:Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.
Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.
Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.
Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.
Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.
Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A post marketing trial is also referred to as which phase of a clinical trial?
Your Answer: Phase IV
Explanation:Clinical Trials: Phases and Objectives
Clinical trials are conducted in four phases to evaluate the safety and efficacy of drugs of treatments. In Phase I, a small group of healthy individuals (15-20) is given the drug to determine its safety, dosage range, and side effects. Phase II involves a larger group (100-300) to assess the drug’s effectiveness and safety. In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger population (1,000-3,000) to confirm its efficacy, compare it with existing treatments, and collect data for safe use. Phase IV, also known as post-marketing trials, is conducted after the drug is licensed to gather additional information on safety and potential uses. These trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of drugs and treatments before they are made available to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Correct
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What illness is brought about by prions?
Your Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Explanation:Prions are responsible for causing Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), a fatal and uncommon condition that leads to progressive neurodegeneration. The disease is characterized by swiftly advancing dementia as one of its primary symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Correct
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A physician declines to administer clozapine to a middle-aged man with treatment-resistant schizophrenia due to his previous history of developing neutropenia when he was first prescribed the medication. Which ethical principle is being upheld in this scenario?
Your Answer: Non-maleficence
Explanation:Healthcare Ethics and Conflicting Principles
British physician Thomas Percival is credited with developing the first modern code of healthcare ethics, which prioritizes the principle of non-maleficence. This principle dictates that a clinician’s primary obligation is to avoid causing harm to the patient, even if it means overriding the patient’s autonomy. This idea has been echoed in classical medical writings and is a fundamental rule in common morality.
In the given scenario, the clinician chooses not to prescribe clozapine, which is likely to cause neutropenia, in order to avoid causing harm to the patient. This decision is in line with the principle of non-maleficence.
However, the principle of autonomy recognizes an individual’s right to self-determination, which can sometimes conflict with the principles of beneficence and non-maleficence. The principle of beneficence requires clinicians to act in the patient’s best interest and prevent harm.
Teleology is an ethical theory that evaluates actions based on their final outcome of causality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 62-year-old woman with mild cognitive impairment. You need to determine her baseline cognitive abilities. What test would be the most suitable for this purpose?
Your Answer: Stanford-Binet Scale
Correct Answer: National Adult Reading Test (NART)
Explanation:The National Adult Reading Test (NART) is a commonly used tool to evaluate premorbid intelligence in patients with neurological illness. It assesses the ability to read words with unusual pronunciation, which is believed to be preserved even in those with neurological decline. While the WAIS and Stanford-Binet scales are also intelligence tests, their performance would likely decline in patients with dementia. On the other hand, the MMPI and MCMI are personality tests and not used to assess intelligence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
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Question 10
Correct
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What option has the least likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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This stage of reasoning illustrates the conventional stage of moral development, where individuals make decisions based on social norms and expectations:
Your Answer: Social contract orientation
Correct Answer: Good Boy/Nice Girl orientation
Explanation:The child’s reasoning demonstrates an understanding that actions are evaluated as either positive of negative by others, and that the appropriate course of action is one that is deemed positive (of not negative) by the society.
Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.
The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.
The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.
It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A teenager has a delusional belief that he is the son of god. He remains in touch with reality and incorporates actual facts into his delusional belief system. What is the most appropriate term to describe the structure of his delusion?
Your Answer: Juxtaposed
Correct Answer: Polarised
Explanation:The structure of a delusion is not described by the term grandiose, but rather the content.
Delusional Structure
Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.
The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Correct
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For which condition is the Addenbrooke's exam (ACE-III) most beneficial in evaluating?
Your Answer: Dementia
Explanation:The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia
The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.
The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What factor indicates a negative outcome?
Your Answer: Gradual onset
Explanation:A slow and steady development indicates a negative outcome, while all other factors suggest a positive prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Aetiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A client with schizoaffective disorder who takes olanzapine is concerned about the weight they have gained since beginning treatment. Is there evidence to suggest that switching to a different medication can help reduce weight?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In the OPCS classification, which social class does semi-skilled work fall under?
Your Answer: Social class II
Correct Answer: Social class IV
Explanation:Occupational Classification:
The Office of Population Censuses and Surveys has developed a social and occupational classification system that categorizes individuals based on their employment status and level of skill. The system includes six social classes, ranging from unemployed of student (social class 0) to professional (social class I).
Social class I includes individuals who hold professional positions, such as doctors, lawyers, and engineers. These individuals typically have advanced degrees and specialized training in their field.
Social class II includes intermediate positions, such as managers, supervisors, and technicians. These individuals may have some level of specialized training of education, but not to the same extent as those in social class I.
Social class III includes skilled, manual, of clerical positions, such as electricians, mechanics, and administrative assistants. These individuals have a high level of skill in their field and may require some level of training of certification.
Social class IV includes semi-skilled positions, such as factory workers, machine operators, and retail salespeople. These individuals may have some level of training of experience, but not to the same extent as those in social class III.
Social class V includes unskilled positions, such as laborers, cleaners, and agricultural workers. These individuals typically do not require any specialized training of education and may perform manual labor of basic tasks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Correct
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What is a true statement about cerebrovascular accidents?
Your Answer: Cerebral infarction commonly occurs during sleep
Explanation:It is widely acknowledged that women who have pre-existing cardiovascular disease should avoid taking oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of stroke and DVTs.
Cerebrovascular accidents (CVA), also known as strokes, are defined by the World Health Organization as a sudden onset of focal neurological symptoms lasting more than 24 hours and presumed to be of vascular origin. Strokes can be caused by either infarction of hemorrhage, with infarction being more common. Hemorrhagic strokes tend to be more severe. Intracranial hemorrhage can be primary, caused mainly by hypertension, of subarachnoid, caused by the rupture of an aneurysm of angioma. Primary intracranial hemorrhage is most common in individuals aged 60-80 and often occurs during exertion. Infarction can be caused by thrombosis of embolism, with thrombosis being more common. Atherosclerosis, often caused by hypertension, is the main cause of infarction. CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool during the first 48 hours after a stroke as it can distinguish between infarcts and hemorrhages. Recovery from embolism is generally quicker and more complete than from thrombosis due to the availability of collateral channels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A test dose is not required for paliperidone palmitate if a patient has received an oral loading dose
Explanation:, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of depression is exhibiting symptoms consistent with serotonin syndrome after a recent adjustment to her medication regimen. She has been taking 20 mg of sertraline daily for the past six months. What modification to her medication is most likely responsible for the onset of the syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commencement of sumatriptan
Explanation:Fluoxetine can cause a serotonin syndrome when combined with sumatriptan due to their structural similarity and shared 5HT agonist properties. Agomelatine does not affect serotonin levels. Reboxetine works by inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline. To decrease the risk of serotonin syndrome, the dosage of fluoxetine can be reduced by 20 mg. Changing the form of fluoxetine to a liquid form would not significantly alter its bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A new student, recently enrolled, attends a school assembly. At this assembly, she sees a group of older students whispering to each other. She notices them looking her way as she finds a seat. She thinks that they are judging her and trying to intimidate her. She mentions this to a teacher who seems surprised and encourages her to be open to the fact that the older students might have been discussing something unrelated to her.
Which of the following is illustrated by this case example?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hostile attribution bias
Explanation:Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events
Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.
However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.
Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What strategies can be used to distinguish between normal grief and major depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised guilt
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the big five personality traits is synonymous with the term Surgency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extraversion
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:By week 12 of embryonic development, the lip and palate region is usually completely developed. Cleft lip and palate are primarily caused by the use of anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and steroids as medications.
Teratogens and Their Associated Defects
Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of misusing anabolic steroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications
Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.
There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.
Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.
Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is a characteristic of drugs that are eliminated through zero order kinetics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zero order reactions follow non-linear pharmacokinetics
Explanation:As the concentration decreases, the half-life of a zero order reaction becomes shorter. This is because zero order kinetics involve constant elimination, meaning that the rate of elimination does not change with increasing concentration. Therefore, as the concentration decreases, there is less drug available to be eliminated at a constant rate, resulting in a shorter half-life.
The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Who coined the term 'schizoaffective disorder'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jakob Kasanin
Explanation:Several notable psychiatrists have made significant contributions to the field of mental health. Jakob Kasanin, born in Russia in 1897, introduced the term schizoaffective psychosis in his 1933 paper published in the American Journal of Psychiatry. Karl Theodor Jaspers, a German psychiatrist and philosopher, distinguished between true delusions and delusional-like ideas. Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum, also a German psychiatrist, pioneered modern clinical practices in mental health and conducted research on catatonia. Kurt Schneider, another German psychiatrist, is known for his work on the diagnosis and understanding of schizophrenia, including his compilation of first-rank symptoms that are particularly characteristic of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An example of a delusional belief held by a middle-aged woman who thinks that the government is communicating with her through television advertisements.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusion of reference
Explanation:The patient has a false belief that others are manipulating situations of occurrences to communicate with them, which is known as a delusion of reference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about OCD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be diagnosed in the presence of delusions and hallucinations
Explanation:According to current diagnostic criteria in both the ICD-10 and DSM IV, OCD can co-occur with psychotic disorders. OCD is a chronic and debilitating disorder characterized by intrusive and distressing obsessions and/of compulsions that cause significant distress to the individual and their loved ones. Obsessions are recurrent and unpleasant thoughts, images, of impulses, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors that a person feels compelled to perform. These behaviors are often ritualistic and follow intrusive thoughts, with resistance to carrying out compulsions resulting in increased anxiety. Patients with OCD typically recognize that their obsessions and compulsions are irrational and experience them as ego dystonic. While an obsessional personality is over-represented among OCD patients, about a third of patients have other types of personality. While magnetic resonance imaging has not revealed any consistent structural brain abnormality specific to OCD patients, studies using SPECT and PET have shown increased activity in certain brain regions, such as the frontal lobe and orbitofrontal activity. Contrary to Freud’s theory, OCD has been linked to anal fixation rather than oedipal fixation, with obsessional symptoms occurring as a way of avoiding impulses related to the subsequent genital and oedipal stages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What does each codon code for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amino acid
Explanation:Codons and Amino Acids
Codons are made up of three bases and each codon codes for an amino acid. There are 64 different triplet sequences, with three of them indicating the end of the polypeptide chain. The start codon always has the code AUG in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine. This leaves 61 codons that code for a total of 20 different amino acids. As a result, most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which can form short polymer chains called peptides of longer chains called polypeptides of proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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