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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has presented with recurrent respiratory distress over the last 4 years. She has also complained of wheezing at night and coughing up of tenacious sputum, which was occasionally black. Blood reports showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 6.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Eosinophil count 1.5 × 109/l 0–0.4 × 109/l
Lymphocyte count 4.1 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) 2800 IU/l 1–87 IU/l
Which of the following is the most likely finding on a chest computerised tomography (CT) scan?Your Answer: Lower lobe fibrosis in both lungs
Correct Answer: Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Bronchiectasis and Their Possible Underlying Causes
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become permanently damaged and widened, leading to chronic cough, sputum production, and recurrent infections. However, bronchiectasis can have different patterns and locations, which may indicate different underlying causes or associated conditions. Here are some examples:
– Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes: This may suggest allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) or allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis (ABPM), which are allergic reactions to Aspergillus fungi. ABPA can also occur without bronchiectasis, but the presence of bronchiectasis can worsen the prognosis. Other possible differentials include sarcoidosis, Churg–Strauss syndrome, bronchocentric granulomatosis, or eosinophilic pneumonia.
– Bronchiectasis mainly in upper lobes: This may be seen in chronic asthma, but usually, it is focal and limited to one or two lobes.
– Central bronchiectasis in mainly a single lobe: This may also suggest chronic asthma.
– Lower lobe fibrosis in both lungs: This may suggest interstitial lung disease, which is a group of conditions that cause inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue.
– Diffuse bronchiectasis involving mid-lung fields: This may suggest immotile Ciliary syndrome, which is a genetic disorder that affects the function of Ciliary, the tiny hair-like structures that help move mucous out of the airways.In summary, the location and pattern of bronchiectasis can provide clues to the underlying cause or associated conditions, but further tests and evaluations are needed to confirm the diagnosis and guide the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing pain on the lateral side of her left thigh for the past two weeks. The pain has been gradually worsening and extends downwards to just above her left knee. She reports that the pain is more intense when she sleeps on her left side and sometimes wakes her up at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes point tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the left hip, which triggers the radiation of the pain down the thigh. The pain is exacerbated when the hip is passively externally rotated. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Iliopsoas tendonitis
Correct Answer: Trochanteric bursitis
Explanation:Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an 'inadequate sample' result from her cervical smear test. After a repeat test 3 months later, she still receives an 'inadequate sample' result. What should be done next?
Your Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:In the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical cancer screening involves testing for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) first. If the initial test results in an inadequate sample, it should be repeated after 3 months. If the second test also returns as inadequate, then colposcopy should be performed. This is because without obtaining hr HPV status or performing cytology, the risk of cervical cancer cannot be assessed. It would be unsafe to return the patient to normal recall as this could result in a delayed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test after 3, 6 or 12 months is also not recommended as it may lead to a missed diagnosis.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 3-hour history of acute loin pain associated with haematuria and fever. He has a past medical history of hyperparathyroidism. Observations show:
Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
Pulse of 110 beats/min
Temperature of 38.9ºC
Blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg
Oxygen saturations of 95% on room air
Blood results show:
Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180)
Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 15.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neut 14.8 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
A CT kidney, ureters and bladder (KUB) identifies hydronephrosis of the left kidney and a renal stone in the left ureter, measuring 1.6cm in diameter. The sepsis 6 pathway is initiated.
What is the most appropriate immediate management step for this patient?Your Answer: Shockwave lithotripsy
Correct Answer: Nephrostomy tube insertion
Explanation:Nephrostomy tube insertion is the recommended management for acute upper urinary tract obstruction. This is particularly important in cases where the obstruction is caused by renal calculi and is accompanied by sepsis, as confirmed by CT KUB imaging showing hydronephrosis. The European Association of Urology advises urgent decompression to prevent further complications in such cases. Antibiotics alone are not sufficient to treat the underlying cause of sepsis, and deferred surgical intervention is not an option for urosepsis, which is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Shockwave lithotripsy is not suitable for addressing urosepsis and is only effective for small renal calculi.
Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.
To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.
The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.
Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department following a rugby game collision that resulted in an awkward landing on his arm. He cannot recall the exact details of the fall due to its suddenness. An x-ray is conducted, revealing a transverse fracture of the radius 1.5 cm proximal to the radiocarpal joint, with posterior displacement of the distal fragment. No significant signs are observed during examination of the elbow joint. What is the type of fracture sustained by this patient?
Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Correct Answer: Colles' fracture
Explanation:The correct answer is Colles’ fracture, which is characterized by a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement of the most distal fragment, resulting in a dinner-fork type deformity. This type of fracture typically occurs after a fall onto an outstretched hand. On the x-ray, we would expect to see a transverse fracture of the radius, 1 inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, with dorsal displacement and angulation.
Bennett’s fracture, Galeazzi fracture, Pott’s fracture, and scaphoid fracture are all incorrect answers. Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture associated with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, Pott’s fracture is a bimalleolar ankle fracture, and scaphoid fracture is a fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist. None of these conditions match the x-ray findings described in the question.
Understanding Colles’ Fracture
Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radius fracture that typically occurs when an individual falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture is characterized by the dorsal displacement of fragments, resulting in a dinner fork type deformity. The classic features of a Colles’ fracture include a transverse fracture of the radius, located approximately one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation.
In simpler terms, Colles’ fracture is a type of wrist fracture that occurs when an individual falls and lands on their hand, causing the bones in the wrist to break and shift out of place. This results in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork. The fracture typically occurs in the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of flu-like symptoms. He reports experiencing sharp central chest pain that worsens with coughing and improves when he sits forwards. Upon examination, he is found to be tachycardic and has a temperature of 39 °C. A third heart sound is heard upon auscultation. What is the most probable cause of this patient's chest pain?
Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Chest Pain: Pericarditis, Aortic Dissection, Myocardial Ischaemia, Oesophageal Reflux, and Pneumonia
Chest pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice. It can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pericarditis, aortic dissection, myocardial ischaemia, oesophageal reflux, and pneumonia.
Pericarditis is an acute inflammation of the pericardial sac, which contains the heart. It typically presents with central or left-sided chest pain that is relieved by sitting forwards and worsened by coughing and lying flat. Other signs include tachycardia, raised temperature, and pericardial friction rub. Investigations include blood tests, electrocardiography, chest X-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment aims to address the underlying cause and manage symptoms, such as analgesia and bed rest.
Aortic dissection is characterized by central chest or epigastric pain radiating to the back. It is associated with Marfan syndrome, and symptoms of this condition should be sought when assessing patients.
Myocardial ischaemia is unlikely in a 35-year-old patient without risk factors such as illegal drug use or family history. Ischaemic pain is typically central and heavy/’crushing’ in character, with radiation to the jaw or arm.
Oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) typically presents with chest pain associated with reflux after eating. Patients do not typically have a fever or history of recent illness.
Pneumonia is a possible cause of chest pain, but it is unlikely in the absence of a productive cough. Pleuritic chest pain associated with pneumonia is also unlikely to be relieved by sitting forward, which is a classical sign of pericarditis.
In conclusion, a thorough history and examination, along with appropriate investigations, are necessary to differentiate between the various causes of chest pain and provide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with unilateral limb weakness and slurred speech. A CT scan of the head reveals a haemorrhagic stroke, but the medical team has no access to his records as he was found on the street. However, a warfarin card is discovered in his wallet. Upon conducting blood tests, his International Normalised Ratio is found to be 8.5. Which medication from his history is most likely to have caused this?
Your Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:The only medication from the given list that inhibits the P450 system is isoniazid. This is relevant in the case of a patient who has suffered a haemorrhagic stroke and has a high INR due to warfarin not being cleared away by the P450 system, which is being inhibited. Carbamazepine, on the other hand, is a P450 inducer and would be expected to lower INR levels. Paracetamol does not significantly affect the P450 system, but is itself affected by it, leading to liver failure. Rifampicin, like isoniazid, is an antibiotic used in the treatment of tuberculosis, but it is a P450 inducer, not an inhibitor.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger that has been bothering her for the past 3 weeks. She has also discovered a soft lump at the base of her left calf and requests that it be examined. She denies any fever, weight loss, or trauma, and has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus.
During the examination, the GP observes erythema and swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joint of the left index finger. The patient can move the joint independently, but pain limits her range of motion. Arthrocentesis reveals yellow fluid without crystal formation or gram stain, but a high level of leukocytes (40,000/μL) and a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the cytology.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pseudogout
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:A joint aspiration is recommended for this patient who presents with new-onset monoarticular arthritis and no confirmed diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. In cases of rheumatoid arthritis, the synovial fluid will typically appear yellow and have increased opacity due to the quantity of leukocytes present. The leukocyte count can range from 2,000 to 50,000 per microlitre, with a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). There will be no crystals present. Despite the patient’s atypical history of rheumatoid arthritis, the arthrocentesis findings, along with their past medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and the presence of constitutional symptoms and an Achilles tendon nodule, support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, osteoarthritis, and pseudogout can be ruled out based on the absence of their characteristic arthrocentesis findings.
Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.
Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear. Later, she receives a phone call informing her that the smear was insufficient. She recalls having an inadequate smear more than ten years ago.
What is the correct course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Repeat smear in 3 months
Explanation:When a cervical cancer screening smear is inadequate, the recommended course of action is to repeat the smear within 3 months. It is not necessary to consider any previous inadequate smears from a decade ago. Therefore, repeating the smear in 1 month or 3 years is not appropriate. Referral for colposcopy or gynaecology is also not necessary at this stage, as it should only be considered if the second smear in 3 months’ time is also inadequate.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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Among the various chromosomal anomalies, which one has the highest incidence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem autoimmune disease associated with genetic defects in the immune system and triggered by environmental factors?
Your Answer: 47,XXY (Klinefelter’s syndrome)
Explanation:Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Association with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have a 14-fold increased risk of developing SLE compared to those with a normal karyotype, although the exact mechanism for this is unknown. However, there is no evidence to suggest an increased risk of SLE in individuals with Down syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, or Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ syndrome). Bloom syndrome, which is associated with a short stature, skin sensitivity to sun exposure, and an increased risk of malignancies, also does not appear to increase the risk of SLE. It is important to understand the potential associations between chromosomal abnormalities and SLE to better manage and treat patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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