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  • Question 1 - You see a 3-month old baby girl with her mother. She is worried...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-month old baby girl with her mother. She is worried about her daughter's weight gain as she seems to be struggling. The baby is formula fed and frequently vomits after feeds. She also has loose stools which have been blood stained today. Her mother has noticed that she develops a raised red rash around her mouth after feeds. The baby seems to experience abdominal pain after feeds and draws her knees up to her stomach.

      You suspect that the baby has cows milk protein allergy and discuss this with her mother before referring her for acute admission under the paediatric team for urgent assessment.

      Which statement below regarding cows' milk protein allergy is correct?

      Your Answer: doesn't occur in breastfed infants

      Correct Answer: Typically presents in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants

      Explanation:

      To confirm the suspected IgE mediated allergy diagnosis, an atopy patch test is utilized.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
    Select from the list of serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
      Select from the list of serum biochemical investigations the single one that is typical for a patient with this condition.

      Your Answer: High sodium

      Correct Answer: Low bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Renal Failure and its Effects on Electrolyte Balance

      Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis due to decreased excretion of H+ ions and reduced synthesis of urinary buffers such as phosphate and ammonia. This results in a marked decrease in urinary phosphate levels and a rise in extracellular potassium levels due to intracellular displacement. Calcium homeostasis is also affected as the kidney’s role in activating vitamin D and increasing calcium reabsorption from the kidneys is inhibited by phosphate retention. Sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to water retention outweighing the decreased excretion. Overall, renal failure has significant effects on electrolyte balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man complains of dizziness and loss of hearing on the right...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man complains of dizziness and loss of hearing on the right side during his visit to the GP. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer: Absent corneal reflex

      Explanation:

      Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal distension and bloating, which changes with her menstrual cycle, and is interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She works as a teacher in a busy school and finds work stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression or anxiety. Examination of the abdomen is normal.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a prevalent gastrointestinal disorder affecting 10-20% of the UK population, with a higher incidence in females and those with underlying anxiety. Symptoms include abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit lasting for at least six months. Defecation may provide relief, while eating can exacerbate symptoms. Other common symptoms include lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder problems. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, as examination and investigations are typically normal.

      Ulcerative colitis is a potential differential diagnosis if the patient presents with pain or blood in their stool. However, the long history of symptoms without significant systemic illness, normal examination, and links to stress/menstruation in this case suggest IBS. Normal inflammatory markers would support this diagnosis.

      Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by persistent inflammation or damage, often linked to alcohol excess. The primary symptom is significant pain, which is not present in this case.

      Diverticulitis is an acute presentation, with left iliac fossa pain, change in bowel habit, bleeding per rectum, and systemic illness. The chronic course, combination of symptoms, and normal examination make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Peptic ulcer disease is also unlikely, as it typically causes pain linked to eating, nausea or vomiting, and is acute or progressive in nature. While stress can be a trigger, it is not the primary cause of this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      146
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital after being admitted for acute coronary syndrome. He has a medical history of myasthenia gravis and has been taking prednisolone for a long time. However, since his admission, his myasthenia symptoms have significantly worsened, and you observe bilateral ptosis and slurred speech. Which of the newly prescribed medications is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic crises are often triggered by beta-blockers like bisoprolol.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      411
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is a possible truth about idiopathic adolescent scoliosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is a possible truth about idiopathic adolescent scoliosis?

      Your Answer: Has no other anatomical clues

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scoliosis Examination

      During scoliosis examination, it is important to take note of certain anatomical clues such as waist asymmetry, uneven shoulders, and humps in the lumbar or thoracic area. Non-structural scoliosis is often caused by unequal leg length, while idiopathic adolescent scoliosis is of the structural type and is usually noticed during the early adolescent growth spurt, particularly in girls. When bending, the structural type is exaggerated while the non-structural type is improved. Proper identification of these factors is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for scoliosis patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, you notice around 5 small and shallow aphthous ulcers on the inner lining of his mouth.

      What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy is a risk factor for aphthous mouth ulcers

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking is a risk factor for aphthous mouth ulcers

      Explanation:

      There are various factors that can contribute to the development of oral ulcers. These include smoking, deficiencies in iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12, and local trauma to the oral mucosa. Additionally, anxiety and exposure to certain foods such as chocolate, coffee, peanuts, and gluten products may also play a role. However, hormonal factors are not typically associated with the development of oral ulcers.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden episodes where the room spins uncontrollably, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. Additionally, she feels as though her hearing is impaired on the right side and experiences a ringing sound and a feeling of fullness on that side. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Meniere's disease. What is a true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which can worsen over time and eventually result in profound bilateral hearing loss.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine for her consistently high blood pressure. She appears distressed and informs you that she is already taking 10 mg of ramipril daily. You discontinue nifedipine and record her intolerance in her medical history. Upon further inquiry, you discover that she had previously experienced leg swelling with amlodipine and a rash with verapamil. Unfortunately, her blood pressure rises again after discontinuing amlodipine. What alternative medication can be prescribed next?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, the next line of therapy is a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to note that drug intolerance refers to the inability to tolerate adverse effects of a medication, while tolerance refers to the ability to tolerate adverse effects and continue taking the medication. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line intervention depending on the patient’s potassium levels, but they are no longer part of initial hypertension management. Candesartan should not be co-prescribed with an ACE inhibitor like ramipril unless directed by a specialist. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is also not recommended as the patient has been found to be intolerant to this class of medication.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision on...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision on his right side for several days. He reports seeing a cobweb-like opacity that moves around. When he closes his right eye, the opacity disappears. His visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes, and he has not experienced any visual field loss. Upon examination with an ophthalmoscope after dilatation, his retina appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Vitreous Detachment: This condition is characterized by flashing lights and a mobile opacity in the visual field of one eye. A slit-lamp examination can reveal the opacity, which may be a sign of a retinal tear. Urgent referral to Eye Casualty is necessary to evaluate the retina and prevent retinal detachment.

      Cataract: Cataracts cause a stable reduction in vision and appear as grey, white, or yellow-brown opacities in the lens.

      Corneal Erosion: Often caused by trauma, a corneal erosion is painful and can be detected with fluorescein stain.

      Macular Degeneration: This condition causes distortion of the central visual field and is visible on an Amsler chart. It is slowly progressive over months or years.

      Retinal Detachment: Symptoms include photopsia, floaters, and a curtain descending over the field of vision. Macular involvement results in severe reduction in visual acuity. An obvious detachment appears as an elevation of the retina, which appears grey with dark blood vessels that may lie in folds. Comparing the suspected area with an adjacent normal area can help detect any change in retinal transparency. Vitreous haemorrhage may also occur.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man presents to you with a foot ulcer. He mentions that...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to you with a foot ulcer. He mentions that he is not fond of doctors and upon reviewing his medical history, it appears that he rarely visits the clinic. The ulcer has been present for a few months and has been gradually worsening. His wife convinced him to come to you for a check-up. He suspects that the ulcer may have developed after stepping on something at home.

      Upon examination, you observe a deep, punched-out, painless ulcer on the plantar aspect of his right foot over the metatarsal heads. His foot feels warm and his dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable. The skin of his feet is somewhat dry.

      What is your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Venous ulcer

      Correct Answer: Neuropathic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuropathic Ulcers

      Neuropathic ulcers are a type of ulcer that typically occur on the underside of the foot at a bony prominence such as the metatarsal heads. They are often painless and can be described as a punched-out ulcer that occurs on a pressure area. A history of trauma is often elicited, and the foot is usually well perfused with peripheral pulses that are palpable.

      The most common cause of neuropathic ulceration is diabetes, and it is important to check for fasting glucose levels. Clinicians should also formally test for sensory deficit in the foot using a 10 g monofilament and tuning fork.

      Arterial ulcers, on the other hand, are due to poor arterial blood supply and are not typically described as painless with warm feet and palpable pulses. Venous ulceration is largely due to chronic venous insufficiency that causes venous hypertension and most commonly occurs around the medial malleolus. The typical ulcer edge is irregular and sloping.

      It is important to differentiate neuropathic ulcers from other types of ulcers, such as Marjolin’s ulcer, which is a squamous cell carcinoma that occurs in a chronic ulcer or scar, and rodent ulcer or basal cell carcinoma (BCC), which typically occurs in sun-exposed sites such as the face. Nodulocystic BCCs show ulceration and are pearlescent with rolled edges and overlying telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      71.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks for blood pressure (BP) checks. Her results have shown significant variability. She presents you with a diary of home readings that the nurse has instructed her to take twice daily over the past two weeks. Her average BP based on these readings is 135/80 mmHg. Her BP today in the clinic is 162/102 mmHg, and the nurse has recorded similar levels on the last two visits. She doesn't want to take medication for her BP. She has no other medical conditions.
      What is the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Accept the home blood pressure (BP) readings and diagnose white-coat hypertension

      Explanation:

      Managing White-Coat Hypertension with Home Blood Pressure Monitoring

      According to current NICE guidance, hypertension should be diagnosed in patients with a clinic BP of 140/90 mmHg or greater and either average daily ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) or home BP monitoring (HBPM) readings of greater than 135/85. However, if a patient’s home readings are within normal range, their elevated clinic BP is likely due to white-coat hypertension. In such cases, further assessment with ABPM is unnecessary. Monthly BP reviews with the practice nurse are also unnecessary if HBPM readings are normal. Treatment is not recommended based on clinic readings alone, and specialist referral is not needed if HBPM readings are within normal range. Home blood pressure monitoring can effectively manage white-coat hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father was diagnosed with a malignant melanoma at the age of 49. He has worked in construction since leaving school and has spent many years working outside. He tells you that he has spent about 10 years working in North Africa, the majority of the time he spent outside in the sun.

      The patient has fair hair and blue eyes. You examine his skin and he has about 60 common naevi 2 mm or less in diameter. He also has four atypical naevi (naevi with flat and raised areas, oval in shape, with some colour variation) which are all 6 mm or more in diameter. He reports no changes in any of the moles but as he has so many is worried about his risk of skin cancer.

      What is the greatest risk factor for this patient to develop a melanoma?

      Your Answer: His history of high sun exposure

      Explanation:

      Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions and Identifying Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. The number and characteristics of naevi are the greatest risk factors for melanoma, with individuals who have more than 50 melanocytic naevi, of which 3 or more are atypical in appearance, classified as having atypical mole syndrome. This syndrome occurs in about 2% of the population and increases the risk of developing melanoma by 7 to 10 fold. The risk is further increased if there is a family history of melanoma in a first or second degree relative, known as familial atypical mole syndrome. Other risk factors include light-colored eyes, unusually high sun exposure, and red or light-colored hair.

      It is important to understand the extent of risk associated with these factors, as identifying high-risk patients presents an opportunity to advise them accordingly. Patients at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, and organ transplant recipients. Patients with giant congenital pigmented naevi also require long-term follow-up by a specialist, usually a dermatologist. By understanding these risk factors and providing appropriate guidance, healthcare professionals can help prevent and detect melanoma in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Advise him that you can complete a 'return to work' note for him but you will need to see him face to face to assess him first

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of sertraline daily for depression. She wants to know more about the potential risks to her baby. What is the accurate statement regarding the use of sertraline during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: The use of selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in the first trimester is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations, especially cardiovascular malformations

      Explanation:

      Taking SSRIs during the first trimester of pregnancy has been linked to a higher likelihood of congenital malformations, particularly those affecting the heart. However, it is not recommended for women to suddenly stop taking antidepressants during pregnancy. The potential risks and benefits should be carefully weighed, and if a decision is made to discontinue the medication, it should be done gradually. It is advisable to avoid St. John’s wort during pregnancy if possible. Additionally, using an SSRI in later pregnancy (after 20 weeks) may increase the risk of persistent pulmonary hypertension and withdrawal symptoms in newborns.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 17 - You come across a 16-year-old girl who complains of a painful and red...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 16-year-old girl who complains of a painful and red right eye. She has been experiencing discomfort for the past two days and feels like there is something in her eye. She cannot recall anything entering her eye, and her vision seems to be affected. She has no history of facial herpes and is in good health otherwise.

      Upon examination, her visual acuity is reduced in the affected eye as she has removed her contact lenses this morning. The eye is watering and red, but the pupil reaction is normal. The anterior chamber appears normal, but there is a small superficial corneal injury visible upon staining the eye.

      Based on the most probable diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer experiences a minor injury to their cornea, it is important to refer them urgently to secondary care. This is because contact lens use increases the risk of Pseudomonas infection, which can cause serious damage to the eyes and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient be referred for immediate ophthalmology assessment.

      Corneal abrasions occur when there is damage to the outer layer of the cornea, often caused by physical trauma such as scratching or rubbing the eye. Symptoms include eye pain, tearing, sensitivity to light, a feeling of something in the eye, and reduced vision in the affected eye. Diagnosis is made through the use of fluorescein staining, which highlights the damaged area. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antibiotics to prevent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 18 - You are evaluating a study on the use of masks in public places...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a study on the use of masks in public places to reduce viral upper respiratory tract infections among elderly individuals. The study found that the treatment group, who wore a mask, had fewer cases compared to the control group who did not wear a mask. The absolute risk in the control group was 0.5 whereas the absolute risk in the treatment group was 0.3.

      What is the number needed to treat for elderly individuals in this study?

      Your Answer: 0.2

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The formula for calculating the number needed to treat is to divide one by the absolute risk reduction. The absolute risk reduction is determined by subtracting the absolute risk in the control group from the absolute risk in the treatment group. For example, if the absolute risk in the control group is 0.3 and the absolute risk in the treatment group is 0.5, the absolute risk reduction would be 0.2. Therefore, the number needed to treat would be one divided by 0.2, which equals five.

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 19 - What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split...

    Correct

    • What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?

      Your Answer: Daily living component and mobility component

      Explanation:

      The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 20 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 20 weeks gestation. What potential complication is she more likely to experience?

      Your Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, affecting 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.

      Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another common complication, which occurs due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia can lead to neonatal jaundice, and malformation rates increase 3-4 fold, including sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Stillbirth, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and shoulder dystocia (which may cause Erb’s palsy) are also possible complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of deteriorating vision. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of deteriorating vision. He reports seeing flashing lights and experiencing difficulty with near vision. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 25-pack-year history of smoking. Upon fundoscopy, yellow pigment deposition is observed around the macula. Amsler grid testing reveals distorted perception of straight lines. The intraocular pressure is 15 mmHg.

      What is the most suitable course of action based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Referral to ophthalmology urgently

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary within one week for this patient suspected of having age-related macular degeneration (AMD). The patient is experiencing worsening vision, photopsia, and has drusen on fundoscopy, all of which are consistent with AMD. It is important to rule out wet AMD, which can lead to preventable blindness. Referring to an optometrist or prescribing medication such as latanoprost or vitamins is not appropriate at this stage. The patient requires urgent ophthalmological intervention.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 22 - During a local measles outbreak you are contacted by a number of elderly...

    Incorrect

    • During a local measles outbreak you are contacted by a number of elderly patients who are enquiring about immunisation for themselves.

      In which of the following groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Egg allergy

      Correct Answer: Gelatin allergy

      Explanation:

      Contraindications and Considerations for MMR Vaccine

      Anaphylaxis to the MMR vaccine is rare, with less than 15 cases per million. The few contraindications to the vaccine include pregnancy, immunosuppression, gelatin or neomycin allergy with previous known anaphylaxis, and anaphylaxis to a previous dose of MMR. Egg allergy is not a contraindication, but some regions suggest immunizing in the secondary care setting. Breastfeeding and milk allergy are also not contraindications. Patients with pre-existing neurological conditions can receive the vaccine, but it is advised to postpone immunization if the condition is poorly controlled or progressive.

      According to the Green Book, minor illnesses without fever or systemic upset are not valid reasons to postpone immunization. However, if an individual is acutely unwell, immunization should be postponed until they have fully recovered to avoid confusing the differential diagnosis of any acute illness by wrongly attributing any signs or symptoms to the adverse effects of the vaccine. It is important to note that patients who have received the MMR vaccine in the past can receive another dose, and the risk of allergy reduces with each successive immunization. At least two doses should provide satisfactory cover, but further immunization may not be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 23 - A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his GP with severe leg pain. On examination there are several, small punched-out ulcers situated on the lower third of both legs. Both dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses appear absent.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Multiple arterial ulcers

      Explanation:

      Arterial Ulceration in Smokers: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Arterial ulceration is a common problem among smokers, which is characterized by intense leg pain and sleep interference. The absence of foot pulses bilaterally indicates peripheral vascular disease, and it is important to assess for ischaemic heart disease and carotid disease as well. Angioplasty or bypass surgery may be appropriate for improving the peripheral blood supply in a limited number of cases only, while peripheral vasodilators are rarely effective. However, other options such as varicose veins, vasculitis, injury, or bites should be ruled out before making a diagnosis. In this article, we will discuss the symptoms and treatment options for arterial ulceration in smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are grossly large and misshapen. She dresses in elaborate clothing to hide her shape and, although she swims well, has stopped going to the pool. Physical examination reveals breasts well within the normal range of size and shape.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Body Dysmorphic Disorder: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Conditions

      Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance or excessive concern with a slight physical anomaly. To diagnose BDD, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) criteria should be followed. It is important to differentiate BDD from other mental health conditions such as agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizoaffective disorder. By understanding the unique features of BDD, proper diagnosis and treatment can be provided to those who are affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year old woman comes to your clinic concerned about the possibility of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old woman comes to your clinic concerned about the possibility of having diabetes. She is overweight and has a significant family history of type 2 diabetes. Due to her chronic kidney disease, you opt to conduct an oral glucose tolerance test instead of testing her HbA1c. What outcome would indicate that she has impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose = 7.6mmol/L, two hour oral glucose tolerance test = 11.2mmol/L

      Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose = 5.5mmol/L, two hour oral glucose tolerance test = 9.8mmol/L,

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is characterized by a fasting plasma glucose level below 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value between 7.8 mmol/l and 11.1 mmol/l. Only option 4 meets these criteria. Options 1 and 2 indicate normal results with a fasting plasma glucose level below 5.5 mmol/l and a 2-hour plasma glucose level below 7.8 mmol/l. Options 3 and 5 indicate a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus with a fasting plasma glucose level above 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour plasma glucose level above 11.1 mmol/l.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.

      On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.

      What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?

      Your Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.

      Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A study is designed to compare the cholesterol levels of males and females...

    Incorrect

    • A study is designed to compare the cholesterol levels of males and females who have hypertension. The researchers aim to determine if there is a significant difference between the mean cholesterol level in males and females. It is known from previous studies that the cholesterol levels follow a normal distribution. Which statistical test would be the most suitable to use?

      Your Answer: Pearson's test

      Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      An unpaired t-test is the most suitable test to use since the data is parametric and involves comparing two independent samples from the identical population.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old female has been diagnosed with a small area of Bowen's disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female has been diagnosed with a small area of Bowen's disease on her right foot. She is concerned about the possibility of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma and is asking whether she should consider having it surgically removed instead of using 5-fluorouracil cream.

      As her healthcare provider, you explain the diagnosis and the likelihood of the Bowen's disease progressing into invasive cancer.

      What is the risk of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma?

      Your Answer: 0-1%

      Correct Answer: 5-10%

      Explanation:

      In some instances, it may develop into an invasive squamous cell carcinoma.

      Understanding Bowen’s Disease: A Precursor to Skin Cancer

      Bowen’s disease is a type of skin condition that is considered a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer. It is more commonly found in elderly patients and is characterized by red, scaly patches that are often 10-15 mm in size. These patches are slow-growing and typically occur on sun-exposed areas such as the head, neck, and lower limbs.

      If left untreated, there is a 5-10% chance of developing invasive skin cancer. However, Bowen’s disease can often be diagnosed and managed in primary care if the diagnosis is clear or if it is a repeat episode. Treatment options include topical 5-fluorouracil, which is typically used twice daily for four weeks. This treatment often results in significant inflammation and erythema, so topical steroids are often given to control these side effects. Other management options include cryotherapy and excision.

      In summary, understanding Bowen’s disease is important as it is a precursor to skin cancer. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the development of invasive skin cancer and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the most appropriate forms of contraception for her. During your discussion, you highlight the advantages of long-acting reversible contraception, and she expresses interest in learning more about the contraceptive implant and its mechanism of action. What is the primary mode of action of the contraceptive implant?

      Your Answer: Preventing ovulation and implantation

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The main way in which the contraceptive implant works is by stopping ovulation. It may also have secondary effects such as changing cervical mucous to prevent sperm from entering and thinning the endometrium to potentially prevent implantation, but these are not its primary mode of action.

      Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives

      Contraceptives are designed to prevent pregnancy by various mechanisms. The mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception is summarized in the table below, based on documents produced by the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH).

      Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progestogen-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and some progestogen-only pills work by inhibiting ovulation, while others thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Injectable and implantable contraceptives primarily inhibit ovulation, but also thicken cervical mucous. Intrauterine devices decrease sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous.

      Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, includes levonorgestrel, ulipristal, and the intrauterine contraceptive device. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal work by inhibiting ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and can also inhibit implantation.

      Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important for choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also essential for using contraceptives effectively and maximizing their effectiveness in preventing unintended pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 30 - What is the current criteria for diagnosing diabetes in an asymptomatic patient? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the current criteria for diagnosing diabetes in an asymptomatic patient?

      Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance is signified by a venous glucose concentration of <7 mmol and >11.1 mmol

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Diabetes: Understanding the Criteria

      Diagnosing diabetes is a common topic in the AKT exam, and it is important to understand the criteria for diagnosis. In an asymptomatic individual, a single sample alone is not sufficient for diagnosis. Instead, separate fasting samples must show above 7 mmol/L. The gold standard for diagnosis is still the oral glucose tolerance test (OGT), although fasting glucose can be used if an adequate fast is ensured.

      It is important to note that there are new categories of glycaemia, including impaired fasting glycaemia and impaired glucose tolerance. Impaired fasting glycaemia is defined as a fasting glucose level above 6.1 but below 6.9, while impaired glucose tolerance is defined as glucose levels of 7.8-11.1 mmol/L. Understanding these categories and their criteria is essential for accurately diagnosing diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/3) 33%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (4/4) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
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