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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old woman contacts her doctor reporting occasional, light menstrual cycles. She is...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman contacts her doctor reporting occasional, light menstrual cycles. She is also experiencing vaginal dryness, mood swings, irritability, and night sweats, and suspects that she is going through perimenopause. However, she has read online articles that have made her concerned about the possibility of endometrial cancer. Which of the following treatments could potentially raise her risk of this condition?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen-only HRT

      Explanation:

      The menopause is a natural process that occurs when a woman’s menstrual periods stop due to decreased production of oestradiol and progesterone. While menopause can cause symptoms such as hot flashes, mood changes, and reduced libido, treatment with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not necessary and should be based on individual circumstances and patient choice. However, if HRT is used, it is important to note that oestrogen-only therapy can increase the risk of endometrial cancer and should only be given to women without a uterus. This is because oestrogen promotes endometrial growth, which can lead to oncogenesis. Adding progesterone to HRT can prevent this risk. Testosterone may also be used to address libido issues, but it should be prescribed under specialist guidance and can cause virilising side-effects. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as venlafaxine can be an alternative to HRT and are effective at managing symptoms without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer. However, SSRIs can cause side-effects such as gastrointestinal disturbances, reduced libido, and potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of left-sided pelvic pain and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of left-sided pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia at 16 weeks of pregnancy. She has not experienced any vaginal bleeding, discharge, or dysuria. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far, and she has a gravid uterus that is large for her gestational age. Her vital signs are stable, with a temperature of 37.1ºC, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, heart rate of 70 beats/min, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute. She had an intrauterine system for menorrhagia before conception and has no other medical history. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Growth of pre-existing fibroids due to increased oestrogen

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, uterine fibroids may experience growth. These fibroids are common and often do not show any symptoms. However, in non-pregnant women, they can cause menorrhagia. In early pregnancy, they grow due to oestrogen and can cause pelvic pain and pressure. If they grow too quickly and surpass their blood supply, they may undergo ‘red degeneration’. This patient’s symptoms, including pelvic pain and a history of menorrhagia, suggest that the growth of pre-existing fibroids due to oestrogen may be the cause. However, further investigation with ultrasound is necessary to confirm this diagnosis. Ectopic pregnancies are rare in the second trimester and are typically detected during routine ultrasound scans. This patient is unlikely to have an ectopic pregnancy as her first ultrasound scan would have confirmed an intrauterine pregnancy. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms as it is associated with additional symptoms such as vaginal discharge and dysuria, and the patient would likely be febrile. The growth of pre-existing fibroids due to decreased progesterone is incorrect as progesterone, like oestrogen, is increased during pregnancy. This patient does not exhibit symptoms of dysuria, renal angle tenderness, or pyrexia.

      Understanding Fibroid Degeneration

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.

      Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history of heavy, painful periods. She reports regular periods, lasting seven days.
      During the first three days, she has to wear both a tampon and sanitary pads and has to take time off work due to the embarrassment of flooding and dizziness. She declined contraception, as she is trying for a baby.
      A pelvic ultrasound revealed two small fibroids (< 3 cm in size) in the uterus, and a full blood count was as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 390 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Iron 12 μg/dl 50 to 170 µg/dl
      Ferritin 5 μg/l 10–120 μg/l
      What is the best first-line treatment for this patient's menorrhagia if she is 29 years old?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Menorrhagia Secondary to Fibroids

      Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids is a common gynecological problem that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. There are several management options available, depending on the severity of symptoms, the patient’s desire for fertility preservation, and the presence of other medical conditions.

      Tranexamic acid is the first-line medical management option for women with menorrhagia secondary to fibroids who do not want contraception. It is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces bleeding by inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Hormonal therapies, such as combined oral contraceptives, are not indicated in this scenario.

      Surgical options, such as myomectomy, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, may be considered if medical management fails or the patient declines medication. Myomectomy is a surgical procedure that removes fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. However, fibroids can recur following myomectomy. Hysterectomy is the only definitive method of management, but it is only recommended for women who have completed their family.

      Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is appropriate for patients with iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. Mefenamic acid, an NSAID, is contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena® coil) is recommended as the first-line treatment for menorrhagia without underlying pathology, suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, or small fibroids that do not cause uterine distortion, but it is not appropriate for women who want to conceive.

      In conclusion, the management of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s symptoms, desire for fertility preservation, and medical history. A multidisciplinary team approach involving gynecologists, hematologists, and other specialists may be necessary to provide optimal care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - An 18 year old girl comes to the clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl comes to the clinic with a complaint of never having started her menstrual cycle. Upon further inquiry, she reports having developed secondary sexual characteristics like breast tissue growth and pubic hair. Additionally, she experiences pelvic pain and bloating. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      When a teenage girl experiences regular painful cycles but has not yet started menstruating, an imperforate hymen is a likely cause. This condition blocks the flow of menstrual blood, leading to primary amenorrhoea while allowing for normal development of secondary sexual characteristics like pubic hair and breast growth. The accumulation of menstrual blood in the vagina can cause discomfort and bloating due to pressure. Other potential causes of amenorrhoea include chemotherapy during childhood, Turner’s syndrome, and polycystic ovary syndrome, which can all interfere with the production of estrogen and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of pregnancy two weeks ago at 8 weeks gestation. She calls the doctor's office, worried because her home pregnancy test is still positive. What is the maximum amount of time after a termination that a positive pregnancy test is considered normal?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. However, if the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it could indicate an incomplete abortion or a persistent trophoblast, which requires further examination. Therefore, any other options suggesting otherwise are incorrect.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She complains of a 3-day history of right iliac fossa and suprapubic pain. She does not complain of vomiting, although she does mention that she has lost her appetite. Her bowel habit is regular and she describes no urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago and she should be starting her period soon. On asking, she states that she has never been sexually active.
      Examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and some right iliac fossa tenderness, inferior to McBurney’s point. Her vitals are normal otherwise. Her blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      Amylase 35 U/l < 200 U/l
      LFTs Normal
      Her urine dipstick shows 1+ of leukocytes, 1+ of proteins and a trace of blood, but is otherwise normal.
      Which of the following tests is the next step in investigating this girl?

      Your Answer: Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Imaging for Lower Abdominal Pain in Women

      Lower abdominal pain in women can have various causes, including appendicitis, urinary tract infection, ovarian or tubal pathology, pelvic inflammatory disease, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, mesenteric adenitis, and other less common pathologies. To determine the cause of the pain, several diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can be used.

      Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test is essential for every woman of reproductive age admitted with lower abdominal pain. This test helps determine the pregnancy status, which can guide further investigations. An abdominal/pelvic ultrasound can detect acute ovarian and other gynecological pathology. It is also useful in assessing biliary pathology and involvement in pancreatitis. However, it is not very sensitive in detecting appendicitis.

      If the diagnosis is uncertain, admitting the patient for observation and review in 12 hours can help determine if any other signs or symptoms develop or change. A CT scan would be inappropriate without checking the patient’s pregnancy status, as it could be harmful to the fetus. However, it can be useful in delineating acute intestinal pathology such as inflammatory bowel disease, bowel obstruction, and renal calculi.

      Finally, an erect chest X-ray can help determine if there is bowel perforation by assessing for air under the diaphragm. This investigation is critical in the presence of a peritonitic abdomen.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can help determine the cause of lower abdominal pain in women and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus complains of escalating itching and bleeding upon contact of the vulva. Upon examination, a 2.2 cm unilateral ulcer with an aggressive appearance is discovered. Biopsy results indicate invasive squamous cell carcinoma. There is no clinical indication of lymph node metastasis, and the patient is in good health. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Simple Vulvectomy and Bilateral Inguinal Lymphadenectomy

      Vulval cancer is a rare form of cancer that accounts for less than 1% of cancer diagnoses. The labia majora are the most common site, followed by labia minora. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulval cancer, with carcinoma-in-situ being a precursor lesion that does not invade through the basement membrane. Risk factors for developing vulval cancer include increasing age, exposure to HPV, vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, smoking, and immunosuppression.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as itching, pain, easy-contact bleeding of the vulva, changes in vulval skin, or frank ulcers/masses. The first lymph node station for metastases is the inguinal group. Surgery is the primary treatment for vulval cancer, with a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy being the usual surgery performed, even in the absence of clinically palpable groin lymph nodes.

      Radiotherapy is commonly used before and/or after surgery depending on the stage of the disease, but it is not curative and would not be offered in isolation to an otherwise healthy patient. Chemotherapy is not usually used as a primary treatment but is offered in disseminated malignancy. Wide local excision is only used for lesions less than 2 cm in diameter with a depth of less than 1 mm. Lesions larger than this require vulvectomy and lymph node clearance due to the risk of metastasis.

      In conclusion, a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy are the mainstay of treatment for vulval cancer, with radiotherapy and chemotherapy being used in certain cases. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with vulval cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of contraception. She had visited her pharmacist the day before and received the levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill after engaging in unprotected sexual activity. As her healthcare provider, you recommend the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the appropriate time for this patient to begin taking the COCP?

      Your Answer: 7 days after the emergency contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Starting hormonal contraception immediately after using levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill is safe. However, if ulipristal was used, hormonal contraception should be started or restarted after 5 days, and barrier methods should be used during this time. Waiting for 7 or 30 days before starting hormonal contraception is unnecessary as levonorgestrel does not affect its efficacy. A pregnancy test is only recommended if the patient’s next period is more than 5-7 days late or lighter than usual, not routinely after taking levonorgestrel.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe menstrual pain and pain during intercourse. She reports that the symptoms have been progressively worsening. An ultrasound of the pelvis reveals a 4-cm cyst in the right ovary. The serum CA-125 level is 225 (0–34 iu/ml). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epithelial ovarian neoplasm

      Correct Answer: Ectopic endometrial tissue

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from endometriosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus. This condition can cause subfertility, chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, and dyspareunia. It may also lead to an increase in serum CA-125 levels and the development of ovarian deposits known as chocolate cysts. Acute appendicitis and ovarian neoplasms are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms, while mittelschmerz only causes mid-cycle pain and does not explain the elevated CA-125 levels. Granulosa cell tumors of the ovary typically secrete inhibin and estrogen, making endometriosis a more likely diagnosis. Symptoms of ovarian cancer are often vague and include abdominal discomfort, bloating, back and pelvic pain, irregular menstruation, loss of appetite, fatigue, and weight loss. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include not having children, early first menstruation and last menopause, hormone replacement therapy, endometriosis, and the BRCA genes. In this age group, germ cell tumors are the most likely ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter to the GP with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter to the GP with concerns about her daughter's lack of menstrual periods and cyclical pain. Upon examination, the daughter appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      The topic of primary amenorrhoea is being discussed, where the patient is experiencing cyclical pain but has not had any evidence of menstruation. This eliminates certain possibilities such as mullerian agenesis and constitutional delay, which are typically painless. Turner syndrome is also unlikely as it is often accompanied by distinct physical features and health issues. Pregnancy cannot be ruled out entirely, but it is improbable given the patient’s lack of menarche and cyclical pain. Therefore, imperforate hymen is the most probable diagnosis.

      Amenorrhoea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be primary (when menarche has never occurred) or secondary (when the patient has not had periods for more than six months despite having had them in the past). Primary amenorrhoea is diagnosed if the patient has not had a period by the age of 14 without any secondary sexual characteristics, or over the age of 16 if such characteristics are present. The causes of primary amenorrhoea can include constitutional delay (when the patient is a late bloomer but has secondary sexual characteristics) or anatomical issues such as mullerian agenesis (where the patient has varying degrees of absence of female sexual organs despite developing secondary sexual characteristics).

      Common Causes of Delayed Puberty

      Delayed puberty is a condition where the onset of puberty is later than the normal age range. This can be caused by various factors such as genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and chronic illnesses. Delayed puberty with short stature is often associated with Turner’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome. These conditions affect the growth and development of the body, resulting in a shorter stature.

      On the other hand, delayed puberty with normal stature can be caused by polycystic ovarian syndrome, androgen insensitivity, Kallmann syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome. These conditions affect the production and regulation of hormones, which can lead to delayed puberty.

      It is important to note that delayed puberty does not necessarily mean there is a serious underlying condition. However, it is recommended to consult a healthcare professional if there are concerns about delayed puberty. Treatment options may include hormone therapy or addressing any underlying medical conditions.

      In summary, delayed puberty can be caused by various factors and can be associated with different genetic disorders. It is important to seek medical advice if there are concerns about delayed puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman visits her gynaecologist with complaints of discomfort and a dragging...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her gynaecologist with complaints of discomfort and a dragging sensation, as well as a feeling of a lump in her genital area. Upon examination, the clinician notes a prolapse of the cervix, uterus, and vaginal wall, along with bleeding and ulceration of the cervix. Based on Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POPQ) grading, what type of prolapse is indicated by this patient's symptoms and examination results?

      Your Answer: Third-degree

      Correct Answer: Fourth-degree

      Explanation:

      Prolapse refers to the descent of pelvic organs into the vagina, which can be categorized into different degrees. First-degree prolapse involves the descent of the uterus and cervix, but they do not reach the vaginal opening. Second-degree prolapse is when the cervix descends to the level of the introitus. Third-degree prolapse is the protrusion of the cervix and uterus outside of the vagina. Fourth-degree prolapse is the complete prolapse of the cervix, uterus, and vaginal wall, which can cause bleeding due to cervix ulceration. Vault prolapse is the prolapse of the top of the vagina down the vaginal canal, often occurring after a hysterectomy due to weakness of the upper vagina. The causes of urogenital prolapse are multifactorial and can include factors such as childbirth, menopause, chronic cough, obesity, constipation, and suprapubic surgery for urinary continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She and her...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She and her partner frequently travel abroad for charity work and are not planning to have children at the moment. The woman is undergoing treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease and desires a low-maintenance contraceptive method that does not require her to remember to take it. The GP has already emphasized the significance of barrier protection in preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted infections. What is the most suitable contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer: Implantable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      The most effective form of contraception for young women who desire a low-maintenance option and do not want to remember to take it daily is the implantable contraceptive. This option is particularly suitable for those with busy or unpredictable lifestyles, such as those planning to travel. While the intrauterine device is also effective for 5 years, it is contraindicated for those with active pelvic inflammatory disease. The implantable contraceptive, which lasts for 3 years, is a better option in this case. Injectable contraceptive is less suitable as it only lasts for 12 weeks.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of amenorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of amenorrhoea and a milky discharge from both breasts. She is not taking any medications and a pregnancy test is negative. What is the next recommended test?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      The patient’s amenorrhea and galactorrhea are caused by hyperprolactinemia, which requires initial management to exclude hypothyroidism, chronic renal failure, and pregnancy as underlying causes. A CT scan is not necessary in this scenario. However, after excluding primary hypothyroidism and chronic renal failure, formal visual field testing can be done to investigate potential changes in keeping with a pituitary adenoma. An MRI head can also be done to look for a pituitary adenoma. Although a mammogram is not relevant in this case, the patient should still undergo breast screening. If the discharge were bloody, a mammogram would be necessary to rule out breast carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an 'inadequate sample' result from her cervical smear test. After a repeat test 3 months later, she still receives an 'inadequate sample' result. What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      In the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical cancer screening involves testing for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) first. If the initial test results in an inadequate sample, it should be repeated after 3 months. If the second test also returns as inadequate, then colposcopy should be performed. This is because without obtaining hr HPV status or performing cytology, the risk of cervical cancer cannot be assessed. It would be unsafe to return the patient to normal recall as this could result in a delayed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test after 3, 6 or 12 months is also not recommended as it may lead to a missed diagnosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She has a medical history of endometriosis and reports that her last period was one week ago. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of free fluid in her pelvic region. What could be the underlying cause of her acute abdomen?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Ruptured endometrioma

      Explanation:

      A rupture endometrioma can result in a sudden and severe pain, given the patient’s medical history of endometriosis, acute abdomen, and fluid accumulation in the pelvis. Diverticular disease is an improbable diagnosis in this age group and does not match the symptoms described. Additionally, the patient’s current menstrual cycle rules out endometriosis pain as a possible cause.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented areas of skin in the axillae) and multiple ovarian cysts, demonstrated on ultrasound scan of both ovaries, has been trying to conceive for six months, but her periods are irregular. She has lost 2 stones in weight and attends clinic for further advice on management.
      What is the most appropriate step in the management of this 28-year-old patient with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, multiple ovarian cysts, irregular periods, and a desire to conceive, who has lost 2 stones in weight?

      Your Answer: Gonadotrophins

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene citrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Infertility in Women with PCOS

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of infertility in women. Clomiphene citrate is the first-line medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It works by binding to hypothalamic estrogen receptors, inhibiting the negative feedback on follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and triggering ovulation. However, it is important to counsel women about the increased risk of multiple pregnancy when treated with Clomiphene. Metformin, once considered a viable option for PCOS-related infertility, is now considered inferior to Clomiphene. However, it can be used in combination with Clomiphene to increase the success of ovulation induction. Gonadotrophins are recommended as second-line treatment for women who do not respond to Clomiphene. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is a surgical option reserved for cases where Clomiphene has failed. It involves destroying ovarian stroma to reduce androgen-secreting tissue and induce ovulation. The choice of treatment depends on individual patient factors and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old dentist presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with symptoms of irregular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old dentist presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with symptoms of irregular menstrual bleeding associated with abdominal discomfort. She often does not have periods for months at a time. She is also overweight and has always had a history of hirsutism. The patient is concerned that she may have polycystic ovarian syndrome.
      A pelvic ultrasound is ordered to confirm the diagnosis.
      Which of the following is the most common site of referred ovarian pain?

      Your Answer: The hypochondria

      Correct Answer: The periumbilical region

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Referred Pain of Ovarian Inflammation

      The ovaries receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation, with the nerve supply running along the suspensory ligament of the ovary. Ovarian pain is typically referred to the periumbilical region due to its sympathetic nerve supply originating at T10. Inflammation of an ovary can also cause referred pain to the inner thigh through stimulation of the adjacent obturator nerve. While pain may radiate to the suprapubic area, the most common site of ovarian pain is the periumbilical region. Pain in the hypochondria is more commonly associated with liver, gallbladder, or cardiac conditions. Understanding the referred pain of ovarian inflammation can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - At a subfertility clinic, you are tasked with obtaining a menstrual cycle history...

    Incorrect

    • At a subfertility clinic, you are tasked with obtaining a menstrual cycle history from a 32-year-old patient to determine the appropriate day for conducting a mid-luteal progesterone level test. The patient reports having a consistent 28-day cycle. What day would you recommend for the mid-luteal progesterone level test?

      Your Answer: Day 21

      Correct Answer: Day 28

      Explanation:

      The appropriate time to test progesterone levels is on Day 28, which is 7 days before the end of a woman’s regular menstrual cycle. However, for individuals with a different cycle length, the timing may vary. It is recommended to take into account the individual’s menstrual cycle history to determine the appropriate time for testing. According to NICE guidelines, women with regular menstrual cycles should be informed that they are likely ovulating, but a mid-luteal serum progesterone level should be checked to confirm.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with a recent history of dyspareunia,...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with a recent history of dyspareunia, occasional post-coital spotting and lower abdominal pain since having sexual intercourse with a new partner without using barrier methods. Her menstrual cycle is regular, and a pregnancy test is negative.
      A pelvic examination reveals a blood stained purulent discharge, and cervical excitation is elicited on bimanual examination. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm and temperature 37.3 °C. Cervical and high-vaginal swabs are sent for analysis.
      The patient reports she had two previous episodes of gonorrhoeal infection.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: 1 g ceftriaxone IM (single dose), followed by metronidazole 400 mg orally twice daily and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a serious condition resulting from an ascending sexually transmitted infection, commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Patients with PID may present with symptoms such as chronic lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, irregular bleeding, dysmenorrhoea, and purulent vaginal discharge. It is important to identify and treat PID promptly, as it can lead to complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and pelvic adhesion formation.

      The management of PID depends on the severity of the presentation. Patients who are haemodynamically stable can be treated in the primary care setting with a single dose of ceftriaxone IM, followed by metronidazole and doxycycline for 14 days. However, patients with pyrexia, nausea and vomiting, or suspicion of a tubo-ovarian abscess or pelvic peritonitis should be admitted to hospital for IV antibiotics.

      It is important to note that NICE recommends treating patients who are likely to have PID without waiting for swab results. In patients considered high-risk for gonococcal infection, who have no indication for admission to hospital for parenteral antimicrobial treatment, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1 g IM, followed by 14 days of metronidazole and doxycycline is recommended. Ofloxacin, moxifloxacin, or azithromycin should be avoided in women at high risk of a gonococcal infection due to increased resistance against quinolones.

      In conclusion, early identification and prompt treatment of PID is crucial to prevent complications. Treatment should be tailored to the severity of the presentation and the patient’s risk factors.

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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood during her menstrual cycle. She has been experiencing symptoms for the past 8 months despite making lifestyle changes. The week before her period, she notices a significant change in her mood, feeling extremely low and anxious with poor concentration. Her irritability is starting to affect her work as a primary school teacher. She has no other physical symptoms and feels like her usual self for the rest of the month. She has a medical history of migraine with aura.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening programme and is found to be hrHPV positive. However, her cytological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test is hrHPV positive but cytologically normal, the recommended course of action is to repeat the test in 12 months. This is in contrast to negative hrHPV results, which are returned to normal recall. Abnormal cytology results require colposcopy, but normal cytology results do not. It is important to note that returning to normal recall is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s higher risk status warrants a repeat test sooner than the standard 3-year interval. Repeating the test within 3 or 6 months is also not recommended.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic 72 hours after having unprotected sex...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic 72 hours after having unprotected sex and requests emergency contraception. She had her last period 5 days ago and has no significant medical history or regular medications. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2 and her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg. She decides to take ulipristal (Ella-One) for emergency contraception and also expresses interest in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She asks when she can begin taking it. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer: She should start taking the COCP from 5 days after taking ulipristal

      Explanation:

      Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception. This is because ulipristal may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The same advice should be given for other hormonal contraception methods such as the pill, patch, or ring. Barrier methods should be used before the effectiveness of the COCP can be assured. If the patient is starting the COCP within the first 5 days of her cycle, barrier methods may not be necessary. However, in this case, barrier methods are required. The patient can be prescribed the COCP if it is her preferred method of contraception. There is no need to wait until the start of the next cycle before taking the pill, as long as barrier methods are used for 7 days.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically occur one week before her period and subside a few days after. She visited her GP, who prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after reviewing her symptom diary. However, after three months of treatment, she returns to her GP and reports that her symptoms have not improved during her menstrual cycle. She is feeling like a bad mother as she is losing her patience with her children easily when symptomatic and is seeking further treatment options. What is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) can be helped by SSRIs, either continuously or during the luteal phase. If a patient’s symptoms are significantly impacting their day-to-day life and have not improved with first-line treatment using a combined oral contraceptive pill, antidepressant treatment with SSRIs is recommended. Co-cyprindiol, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine systems, mirtazapine, and the copper coil are not indicated for the management of PMS.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman visits the clinic for her initial cervical smear as a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits the clinic for her initial cervical smear as a part of the national screening initiative. She seeks guidance on the risk factors associated with cervical cancer. What is accurate regarding her risk?

      Your Answer: Women who smoke are at a two-fold increased risk than women who do not

      Explanation:

      Smoking doubles the risk of cervical cancer in women compared to non-smokers. Other risk factors include increased parity, use of oral contraceptives, early first intercourse, and HPV vaccination does not eliminate the need for cervical screening.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and nausea...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and nausea for the past few hours. She has irregular menstrual cycles and cannot recall her last period. The patient appears distressed and unwell, with tenderness noted in the right iliac fossa upon examination. Speculum examination is unremarkable, but cervical excitation and right adnexal tenderness are present on vaginal examination. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 37.8 °C, blood pressure of 90/60, heart rate of 110 bpm, and respiratory rate of 22 with oxygen saturations of 100% on room air. A positive urine beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG) test is obtained, and the urine dipstick shows 1+ leukocytes and 1+ blood. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Abdominal Pain and Signs of Shock in Women: Differential Diagnosis

      When a woman presents with abdominal pain and signs of shock, it is important to consider several possible causes. One of the most urgent and life-threatening conditions is ectopic pregnancy, which should be suspected until proven otherwise. A positive pregnancy test and pain localized to one side, especially with evidence of shock, are key indicators. The patient should be given intravenous access, blood tests, serum β-HCG, group and save, and a transvaginal ultrasound scan if stable. If necessary, she may need to undergo a laparoscopy urgently.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain in women include urinary tract infection, acute appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and miscarriage. However, these conditions are less likely to present with signs of shock. Urinary tract infection would show leukocytes, nitrites, and protein on dipstick. Acute appendicitis would cause pain in the right iliac fossa, but cervical excitation and signs of shock would be rare unless the patient is severely septic. Pelvic inflammatory disease would give rise to pain in the right iliac fossa and cervical excitation, but signs of shock would not be present on examination. Miscarriage rarely presents with signs of shock, unless it is a septic miscarriage, and the cervical os would be open with a history of passing some products of conception recently.

      In summary, when a woman presents with abdominal pain and signs of shock, ectopic pregnancy should be considered as the most likely cause until proven otherwise. Other conditions may also cause abdominal pain, but they are less likely to present with signs of shock. A thorough differential diagnosis and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide timely and effective treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days ago. She will soon be ready for discharge, and your consultant has asked you to start the patient on hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
      She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2, a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus on metformin and no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral oestradiol once daily

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oestrogen patch

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate method of HRT for the patient in this scenario is a transdermal oestrogen patch, as she has had a hysterectomy and oestrogen monotherapy is the regimen of choice. As the patient’s BMI is > 30 kg/m2, an oral oestrogen preparation is not recommended due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. HRT has benefits for the patient, including protection against osteoporosis, urogenital atrophy, and cardiovascular disorders. However, HRT also has risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial and breast cancer. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication to HRT, and there is no evidence that HRT affects glucose control. Combination HRT regimens are reserved for women with a uterus, and oral oestradiol once daily is not recommended for patients with a BMI > 30 kg/m2 due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Women at high risk of developing venous thromboembolism or those with a strong family history or thrombophilia should be referred to haematology before starting HRT.

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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her voice, increased body hair, and clitoral enlargement. Ultrasonography shows a tumour in the left ovarian hilus, and her 17-ketosteroid excretion is elevated. The histopathology confirms a diagnosis of hilus cell tumour, with large, lipid-laden tumour cells. Which cells in the male reproductive system are homologous to the affected cells?

      Your Answer: Sertoli cells

      Correct Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      Homologous Cells in Male and Female Reproductive Systems

      The male and female reproductive systems have homologous cells that perform similar functions. Leydig cells, also known as pure Leydig cell tumors, are found in both males and females. In females, these cells are located in the ovarian hilus and secrete androgens, causing masculinization when a tumor arises. Sertoli cells, on the other hand, have a female homologue called granulosa cells, both of which are sensitive to follicle-stimulating hormone. Epithelial cells in the epididymis have a vestigial structure in females called the epoophoron, which is lined by cells similar to those found in the epididymis. Spermatocytes have female homologues in oocytes and polar bodies, while spermatogonia have female homologues in oogonia. Understanding these homologous cells can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of reproductive system disorders.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of cyclical pelvic pain...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of cyclical pelvic pain and painful bowel movements. She has previously sought treatment from gynaecology and found relief with paracetamol and mefenamic acid, but the pain has returned and she is seeking alternative options. She is not pregnant but plans to start a family within the next few years. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition from the options provided below?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      If simple analgesia with paracetamol and NSAIDs is not effective in treating endometriosis symptoms, hormonal treatment with the combined oral contraceptive pill or a progesterone should be considered.

      Although a referral to gynaecology may be necessary due to the recurrence of symptoms and potential pelvic/bowel involvement, primary care can offer further treatment options in the meantime. Hormonal treatment is recommended for this patient, and the combined oral contraceptive pill or any of the progesterone options can be used. As the patient plans to start a family soon, a hormonal option that can be quickly reversed is the most suitable.

      Buscopan is not an appropriate treatment for endometriosis, as it only provides relief for menstrual cramps and is not a cure. It may be used to alleviate symptoms associated with irritable bowel syndrome.

      Injectable depo-provera is not the best option for this patient, as it can delay the return of fertility, which conflicts with her desire to start a family within the next year.

      Opioid analgesia is not recommended for endometriosis treatment, as it carries the risk of side effects and dependence. It is not a long-term solution for managing symptoms.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of vaginal soreness, itchiness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of vaginal soreness, itchiness, and discharge. During the examination, the doctor notices an inflamed vulva and thick, white, lumpy vaginal discharge. The cervix appears normal, but there is discomfort during bimanual examination. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is well-controlled with salbutamol, and type one diabetes, and has no known allergies. What is the most suitable next step in her care, considering the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Take a high vaginal swab and oral metronidazole as a single oral dose

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral fluconazole as a single oral dose

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of vaginal candidiasis, a high vaginal swab is not necessary for diagnosis and treatment can be initiated with a single oral dose of fluconazole. Symptoms of vaginal candidiasis include vulval soreness, itching, and thick, white vaginal discharge. Prescribing oral metronidazole as a single dose or taking a high vaginal swab would be incorrect as they are used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections or bacterial vaginosis, respectively.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

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  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of urinary incontinence. She recently experienced a significant episode when she leaked urine while running to catch a bus. Previously, she had only noticed small leaks when coughing or laughing, and did not want to make a fuss. She reports no abdominal pain and has not had a menstrual period in 3 years. She has two children, both of whom were delivered vaginally and were large babies. Physical examination is unremarkable and a urine dipstick test is negative.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stress Urinary Incontinence

      Stress urinary incontinence is a common condition in women, especially those who have had vaginal deliveries and are getting older. It is caused by weak sphincter muscles, leading to leakage during activities such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. The first-line treatment for this condition is pelvic floor muscle training, which involves a minimum of eight contractions three times per day for 12 weeks.

      However, it is important to note that other treatment options, such as oxybutynin, pelvic ultrasound scans, urodynamic studies, and bladder training, are not recommended for stress urinary incontinence. Oxybutynin is used for overactive bladder or mixed urinary incontinence, while pelvic ultrasound scans are not indicated for urinary incontinence. Urodynamic studies are not recommended for women with simple stress incontinence on history and examination, and bladder training is used for urgency or mixed urinary incontinence, not stress incontinence. Therefore, pelvic floor muscle training remains the most effective treatment option for stress urinary incontinence.

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  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the past three months. She denies any pain during intercourse and has not noticed any abnormal vaginal discharge except for the bleeding. She continues to have regular menstrual cycles. What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Uterine fibroids

      Correct Answer: Cervical polyps

      Explanation:

      Postcoital Bleeding

      Postcoital bleeding is a condition that occurs when there is trauma to superficial lesions within the vaginal tract. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including cervical trauma, cervical polyps, endometrial and cervical carcinoma, cervicitis, and vaginitis. In some cases, invasive cervical carcinoma may be found in those who are referred to the hospital, accounting for 3.8% of cases.

      Vaginitis is also a possibility, but it is more common in elderly patients with low estrogen levels. On the other hand, salpingo-oophoritis, which is usually caused by pelvic inflammatory disease from sexually transmitted infections, typically presents with deep dyspareunia and purulent vaginal discharge. However, post-coital bleeding is highly unlikely to be caused by salpingo-oophoritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 32 - A 65-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency and embarrassing leakage. She reports that it disrupts her work in the office as she has to constantly go to the toilet. However, she denies any association of the leakage with coughing or laughing. The patient's BMI is 32kg/m², and a vaginal examination shows no pelvic organ prolapse and an ability to initiate voluntary contraction of the pelvic floor muscles.

      What initial investigations would you include for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urine dipstick and culture

      Explanation:

      When dealing with patients who have urinary incontinence, it is crucial to eliminate the possibility of a UTI and diabetes mellitus as underlying causes. The first step in investigating urinary incontinence would be to conduct a urine dipstick and culture test, which can be easily done in a GP’s office. Other initial investigations include keeping a bladder diary for at least three days and undergoing urodynamic studies. It is important to note that the reliability of urine dip tests is questionable in women over 65 years of age and those who have catheters. A three-day bladder diary is necessary for initial investigations, and a one-day diary would not suffice. CT scans are not typically used to investigate urinary incontinence but are useful in detecting renal pathology such as ureteric calculi. Cystoscopy is not appropriate for this patient and is usually reserved for cases where bladder cancer is suspected.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 33 - A 54-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence during her daily walks. The bladder...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence during her daily walks. The bladder diary does not provide clear results. What is the most suitable test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Urodynamic studies

      Explanation:

      Urodynamic studies are necessary when there is a lack of clarity in diagnosis or when surgery is being considered.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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  • Question 34 - A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her recent cervical smear. She is sexually active with one partner for the past 6 months and denies any history of sexually transmitted infections or post-coital bleeding. The results of her cervical smear show low-grade dyskaryosis and a positive human papillomavirus test. What is the next best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical smear shows abnormal cytology and a positive result for a high-risk strain of human papillomavirus, the next step is to refer them for colposcopy to obtain a cervical biopsy and assess for cervical cancer. This patient cannot be discharged to normal recall as they are at significant risk of developing cervical cancer. If the cytology is inadequate, it can be retested in 3 months. However, if the cytology shows low-grade dyskaryosis, colposcopy and further assessment are necessary. Delaying the repeat cytology for 6 months would not be appropriate. If the cytology is normal but the patient is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus, retesting for human papillomavirus in 12 months is appropriate. However, if abnormal cytology is present with high-risk human papillomavirus, colposcopy and further assessment are needed.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby within the last 24 hours....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby within the last 24 hours. She has no plans of having another child anytime soon and wishes to begin a long-term contraceptive method. The patient has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and intends to exclusively breastfeed.

      What would be the most suitable contraception for this patient?

      Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      The Levonorgestrel intrauterine system is the appropriate choice for this patient as it is a long-acting contraceptive that can also help prevent heavy menstrual bleeding. It can be inserted immediately as the patient is within 48 hours of childbirth. The Copper intrauterine device should be avoided in those with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. The lactational amenorrhoea method is only effective for up to 6 months post-partum, and progesterone injections must be repeated every 10-12 weeks, making them unsuitable for this patient’s desire for a long-term contraceptive.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 36 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal odor, vulvar itching, and pain while urinating. During the examination, the PCP notices a purulent discharge and a patchy erythematous lesion on the cervix. The PCP suspects Trichomonas vaginalis as the possible diagnosis. What would be the most suitable investigation to assist in the diagnosis of T. vaginalis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urethral and cervical swabs

      Correct Answer: Wet mount and high vaginal swab

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Trichomoniasis: A Common STD

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the protozoan parasite T. vaginalis. While both men and women can be affected, women are more likely to experience symptoms. Diagnosis of trichomoniasis is typically made through wet mount microscopy and direct visualisation, with DNA amplification techniques offering higher sensitivity. Urine testing is not considered the gold standard, and cervical swabs are not sensitive enough. Treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole, and sexual partners should be treated simultaneously. Trichomoniasis may increase susceptibility to HIV infection and transmission. Symptoms in women include a yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odour, dysuria, pain on intercourse, and vaginal itching. Men may experience penile irritation, mild discharge, dysuria, or pain after ejaculation.

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  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and no other medications. What actions should be taken regarding her surgery and pill usage?

      Your Answer: Stop the pill 4 weeks before surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Explanation:

      It is a common scenario for surgical patients to face an increased risk of venous thromboembolism when they are on the pill and undergoing surgery, particularly abdominal or lower limb surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the pill.

      However, stopping the pill too early would increase the risk of pregnancy, and restarting it too soon after surgery would still pose a risk due to the surgery’s effects on coagulation. Ceasing the pill on the day of surgery would not eliminate the risk of clotting either.

      The best course of action is to stop the pill four weeks before surgery to allow for a return to normal coagulation levels. Then, restarting it two weeks after surgery would allow the procoagulant effects of surgery to subside.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old woman visits the gynaecology clinic with a history of endometriosis diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the gynaecology clinic with a history of endometriosis diagnosed 3 years ago after laparoscopic surgery. She complains of chronic pelvic pain that intensifies during her menstrual cycle and deep dyspareunia. Despite trying ibuprofen, the progesterone-only pill, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, she has not found relief. The patient has no medical history, allergies, or current desire to conceive. What would be the recommended course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Trial a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist

      Explanation:

      If a patient with endometriosis is not experiencing relief from their symptoms with a combination of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories and the combined oral contraceptive pill, they may be prescribed gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonists (GnRH agonists) as a second-line medical management option. progesterone-only contraception may also be offered in this stage of treatment. GnRH agonists work by down-regulating GnRH receptors, which reduces the production of oestrogen and androgen. This reduction in hormones can alleviate the symptoms of endometriosis, as oestrogen thickens the uterine lining. The copper intrauterine device is not an appropriate treatment option, as it does not contain hormones and may actually worsen symptoms. NICE does not recommend the use of opioids in the management of endometriosis, as there is a high risk of adverse effects and addiction. Amitriptyline may be considered as a treatment option for chronic pain, but it is important to explore other medical and surgical options for endometriosis before prescribing it, as it comes with potential side effects and risks.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 39 - A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of constant pain...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of constant pain in the left iliac fossa and nausea that started a day ago. She reports vomiting once but denies any other symptoms. The patient has a menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period began 5 days ago. She is sexually active and has consistently used condoms for contraception. There is no vaginal bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is ovarian torsion, which is common in women of reproductive age. Symptoms include pain in the iliac fossa that can spread to the loin, groin, or back, as well as nausea and vomiting. An adnexal mass may be present on examination, which is often caused by an ovarian cyst or neoplasm that has disrupted the ovary’s normal position and caused torsion. In some cases, a low-grade fever may also be present if ovarian necrosis has occurred.

      It is important to rule out ectopic pregnancy as a differential diagnosis, which can be done with a pregnancy test regardless of reported contraception. Vaginal bleeding may help differentiate between the two conditions. However, since the patient’s menstrual period started 7 days ago and she uses condoms for contraception, ectopic pregnancy is less likely than ovarian torsion.

      Appendicitis is also a possible cause of this presentation, but it typically presents with diffuse abdominal pain that later localizes to the right iliac fossa. In appendicitis, pain can be reproduced in the right iliac fossa by palpating the left iliac fossa (Rovsing’s sign), but left iliac fossa pain would not be the presenting symptom.

      Mittelschmerz, which is mild pain in the right iliac fossa, could also be a possible cause, but it would not be associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Causes of Pelvic Pain in Women

      Pelvic pain is a common complaint among women, with primary dysmenorrhoea being the most frequent cause. Mittelschmerz, or pain during ovulation, may also occur. However, there are other conditions that can cause pelvic pain, which can be acute or chronic in nature.

      Acute pelvic pain can be caused by conditions such as ectopic pregnancy, urinary tract infection, appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion. Ectopic pregnancy is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in women with a history of 6-8 weeks of amenorrhoea. Urinary tract infection may cause dysuria and frequency, while appendicitis may present with pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa. Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and menstrual irregularities. Ovarian torsion, on the other hand, may cause sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a tender adnexal mass on examination.

      Chronic pelvic pain, on the other hand, may be caused by conditions such as endometriosis, irritable bowel syndrome, ovarian cysts, and urogenital prolapse. Endometriosis is characterized by chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, and subfertility. Irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and change in bowel habit. Ovarian cysts may cause a dull ache that is intermittent or only occurs during intercourse, while urogenital prolapse may cause a sensation of pressure, heaviness, and urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency.

      In summary, pelvic pain in women can be caused by various conditions, both acute and chronic. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain is severe or persistent, or if there are other concerning symptoms present.

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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after giving birth to her second child. She is currently breastfeeding and has a BMI of 27 kg/m^2. Her husband has a vasectomy scheduled in two months. What is the best contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer: Intra-uterine progesterone-only system (Mirena)

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 41 - A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has been struggling with persistent hirsutism and acne since her teenage years. She expresses that this is now impacting her self-confidence and she has not seen any improvement with over-the-counter acne treatments. When asked about her menstrual cycles, she reports that they are still irregular and she has no plans to conceive at the moment. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol

      Explanation:

      Co-cyprindiol is a medication that combines cyproterone acetate and ethinyl estradiol. It is commonly used to treat women with PCOS who have hirsutism and acne. Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen that reduces sebum production, leading to a reduction in acne and hirsutism. It also inhibits ovulation and induces regular withdrawal bleeds. However, it should not be used solely for contraception due to its higher risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other conventional contraceptives.

      Topical retinoids are a first-line treatment for mild to moderate acne. They can be used alone or in combination with benzoyl peroxide.

      Clomiphene citrate is a medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It has been associated with increased rates of pregnancy.

      Desogestrel is a progesterone-only pill that induces regular bleeds and provides contraception. However, its effect on improving acne and hirsutism is inferior to combination drugs like co-cyprindiol.

      Isotretinoin is a medication that regulates epithelial cell growth and is used to treat severe acne resistant to other treatments. It is highly teratogenic and should only be started by an experienced dermatologist in secondary care. Adequate contraceptive cover is necessary, and patients should avoid conception for two years after completing treatment.

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  • Question 42 - A 73-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is attending the gynaecological oncology clinic. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is attending the gynaecological oncology clinic. The consultant is discussing her pre-surgical prognosis, which is based on her risk malignancy index (RMI). Can you identify the three components of the RMI?

      Your Answer: Age, CA125, ultrasound (US) findings

      Correct Answer: CA125, menopausal status, ultrasound (US) findings

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe dysmenorrhoea for a prolonged period and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe dysmenorrhoea for a prolonged period and seeks consultation at the gynaecological clinic. The consultant suspects adenomyosis as the underlying cause but wants to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other possible pathologies before initiating treatment. What is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer: CT Pelvis

      Correct Answer: MRI Pelvis

      Explanation:

      MRI is the most effective imaging technique for diagnosing adenomyosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium. While ultrasound can also aid in diagnosis, it is not as reliable as MRI. Laparoscopy is used to diagnose endometriosis, but it cannot detect adenomyosis as it occurs within the uterine wall. CT is not a suitable imaging technique for adenomyosis as it cannot differentiate between different types of tissue. Hysterosalpingography is used for imaging the uterine lining and fallopian tubes, typically during fertility treatment, but it cannot provide an image of the myometrium.

      Understanding Adenomyosis

      Adenomyosis is a medical condition that occurs when endometrial tissue grows within the muscular walls of the uterus. This condition is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Symptoms of adenomyosis include painful menstrual cramps, heavy menstrual bleeding, and an enlarged and tender uterus.

      To diagnose adenomyosis, doctors typically use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as it is the most effective method. Treatment options for adenomyosis include managing symptoms with pain relief medication, using tranexamic acid to control heavy bleeding, and administering gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists to reduce estrogen levels. In severe cases, uterine artery embolization or hysterectomy may be necessary. Hysterectomy is considered the definitive treatment for adenomyosis.

      In summary, adenomyosis is a condition that affects the uterus and can cause painful menstrual cramps, heavy bleeding, and an enlarged uterus. It is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI, and treatment options include managing symptoms, medication, and surgery.

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  • Question 44 - A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
      What should this woman avoid?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Injectable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.

      If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.

      While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.

      The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.

      The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

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  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge. She describes it as a thin,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge. She describes it as a thin, greyish, watery discharge. It is painless and has a fishy odour.
      Which is the appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice a day for a week

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Treatment Options for Vaginal Infections

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection that results in a decrease in lactobacilli and an increase in anaerobic bacteria. The typical symptoms include a white, milky, non-viscous discharge with a fishy odor and a pH greater than 4.5. The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg twice a day for a week.

      Azithromycin is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia, but it is not appropriate for bacterial vaginosis. acyclovir is used to treat herpes infections, which is not the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Fluconazole is a treatment option for vaginal candidiasis, but it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Pivmecillinam is used to treat urinary tract infections, which is not the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole, and other treatments should be considered based on the specific diagnosis.

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  • Question 46 - Liam is a 22-year-old man who has had unprotected sexual intercourse and has...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 22-year-old man who has had unprotected sexual intercourse and has taken levonorgestrel 2 hours ago. He has vomited once since and is uncertain about what to do next. What is the most crucial advice to give Liam regarding his risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Take a single dose of ulipristal acetate immediately

      Correct Answer: Take a second dose of levonorgestrel as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      If a patient vomits within 3 hours of taking levonorgestrel, it is recommended to prescribe a second dose of emergency hormonal contraception to be taken as soon as possible, according to NICE guidelines. Therefore, reassuring Zoe that she is protected from pregnancy is incorrect as she needs to take another dose. Additionally, while it may be advisable for Zoe to start a regular form of contraception, this is not the most important advice to give initially. Instead, she should be offered choices of contraception, including long-acting reversible contraceptives. It is also incorrect to recommend other forms of emergency contraception, such as ulipristal acetate and the IUD, as Zoe has already taken levonorgestrel and the guidelines are clear that a second dose of this should be taken in this circumstance. However, if Zoe experiences persistent vomiting or diarrhea for more than 24 hours after taking emergency hormonal contraception, then the IUD may be offered.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. What medication is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. What medication is typically used for medical management of this condition?

      Your Answer: Misoprostol

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is the preferred medication for treating ectopic pregnancy through medical management, provided the patient is willing to attend follow-up appointments.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 48 - A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 80 hours ago. She is currently on day 20 of her menstrual cycle. The doctor discovers that the patient was previously prescribed ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) for a similar situation just 10 days ago. What would be an appropriate emergency contraception method for this patient?

      Your Answer: ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) pill

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 49 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding the use of supplements or medication. She has no significant medical or family history and has previously given birth to two healthy children in the past three years without complications. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, with a BMI of 31 kg/m2. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5mg of folic acid

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400 micrograms. Therefore, the lifestyle and dietary advice given to this patient is incorrect. Additionally, prescribing 75 mg of aspirin is not appropriate for this patient as it is typically given to women with one high-risk factor or two moderate-risk factors for pre-eclampsia, and a BMI over 35 would only qualify as a single moderate-risk factor. While 150 mg of aspirin is an alternative dose for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis, 75 mg is more commonly used in practice.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 50 - A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      Despite trying pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months, she still finds the symptoms very debilitating. However, she denies feeling depressed and is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable, and on vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries can also be used as a non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the woman only experiences stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary to do so urgently. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the woman’s symptoms persist despite 6 months of trying this approach, it would be inappropriate to suggest continuing with the same strategy.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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      • Gynaecology
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