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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. During a chest x-ray, a shadow was detected over the right lung base, and a bruit was heard upon auscultation in the same area. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

      Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that causes bleeding from small blood vessels called telangiectasia on mucous membranes such as the nose, mouth, and gastrointestinal tract. This condition is characterised by the presence of telangiectasia on the skin, which can be seen during clinical examination. In some cases, arteriovenous malformations may also be present in the lung or brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a two-month history of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity. She is currently using a progesterone-only oral contraceptive and taking hydrocortisone 10 mg twice daily and fludrocortisone 100 µg per day. Her glycaemic control has been reasonable, with a last HbA1c of 65 mmol/mol (20-46), and she is receiving mixed insulin twice daily. On examination, she appears pale. A full blood count reveals the following results: haemoglobin 52 g/L (120-160), MCV 115 fL (80-96), WCC 4.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 126 ×109L (150-400), and MCH 32 pg (28-32). The blood film shows multilobed nuclei in neutrophils and macrophages. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic Anemia and Pernicious Anemia

      This patient is suffering from a macrocytic anemia, specifically a megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by multilobed nuclei. The most probable cause of this condition is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is commonly associated with pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is part of the autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome, which is linked to other autoimmune disorders such as Addison’s disease, type 1 diabetes, Sjögren’s disease, and vitiligo. Although there are other potential causes of macrocytosis, none of them are evident in this patient. Hypothyroidism, for example, does not cause megaloblastic anemia, only macrocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease

      Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced menstrual periods for the past six months and has taken two pregnancy tests, both of which were negative. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. The patient desires a blood test to determine if she has entered menopause. What is the most sensitive hormone to test for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Hormone Levels and Menopausal Status

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that are greater than 30 IU/l, repeated over a period of four to eight weeks, are typically indicative of menopause. It is important to ensure that FSH is tested when the patient is not on contraception, although this is not relevant in the current scenario. While oestrogen and progesterone levels decrease after menopause, their assay is less reliable in determining menopausal status compared to FSH levels. Beta-HCG levels are elevated during pregnancy and trophoblastic disease, while prolactin levels increase in response to certain drug therapies and the presence of a pituitary tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she is concerned about his left knee. The child injured his knee while playing outside, and the knee is now significantly swollen and he is experiencing a lot of pain. The mother mentions that the child bruises easily. The mother herself does not have any such issues, but her sister had similar problems when she was young.
      What is the most probable pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the extrinsic pathway of coagulation

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation

      Explanation:

      Pathophysiological Mechanisms of Various Medical Conditions

      Haemophilia: Deficiency of a Clotting Factor in the Intrinsic Pathway of Coagulation
      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition that affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is caused by a mutation in factor VIII or IX, leading to deficient coagulation. Patients present with excessive bleeding, such as spontaneous bruising, prolonged bleeding following a dental procedure or minor injury, bleeding into the joints (haemarthrosis), and epistaxis. Treatment involves correcting the deficiency with concentrated factor VIII or IX.

      Von Willebrand’s Disease: Deficiency of a Protein Found in Endothelial Cells and Released by Endothelial Damage
      Von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant, inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. This protein is found in the endothelial cells lining the vessels and is released following endothelial damage. It promotes adhesion of platelets to the area of damage and stabilizes factor VIII, both actions promoting haemostasis. Symptoms include easy bruising and prolonged bleeding following minimal trauma.

      Ewing’s Sarcoma: Translocation Between Chromosomes 11 and 22
      Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant bone tumour seen in children and young adults. It is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22.

      Leukaemia: Invasion of Bone Marrow by Leukaemic Cells
      Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells, leading to pancytopenia, a condition in which there is a deficiency of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and bone marrow transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - raised

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV

      When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A woman has some blood tests taken by her general practitioner (GP). The...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has some blood tests taken by her general practitioner (GP). The results show a Hb of 10.0, MCV of 69 and a ferritin of 9.
      Which is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Treat with 5 mg folic acid and repeat bloods in eight weeks

      Correct Answer: Treat with ferrous sulphate 200 mg three times a day and repeat bloods in three months

      Explanation:

      Understanding Iron Deficiency Anaemia and Treatment Options

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can present with symptoms such as lethargy, tiredness, and shortness of breath on exertion. It is often seen in women due to menstruation and blood loss associated with it, as well as in pregnant women. However, it is not a common finding in men and should be investigated further if present.

      Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia involves the use of ferrous sulfate, typically at a dose of 200 mg two to three times a day for at least three months. Blood tests should be repeated after this time to assess the effectiveness of therapy. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary in cases of folate deficiency anaemia, which presents with a raised MCV.

      It is important to investigate persistent anaemia despite adequate iron supplementation, as it may indicate an underlying malignancy. Men with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of < 110 g/l should be referred urgently to the gastroenterology team for investigation of upper or lower gastrointestinal malignancy. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for iron deficiency anaemia can help improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. She reports feeling well and has not experienced any significant issues since the procedure.

      What blood test is the most effective in monitoring for the recurrence of trophoblastic disease?

      Your Answer: Beta-HCG

      Explanation:

      Hydatidiform Mole and Trophoblastic Disease

      A hydatidiform mole is a type of abnormal pregnancy that only generates placental tissue. However, approximately 10% of cases of hydatidiform mole can transform into malignant trophoblastic disease. To assess if there is any retained tissue or recurrence/malignant transformation, the best way is to measure the levels of HCG, which is primarily produced by the placenta. On the other hand, alpha-fetoprotein, CEA, and CA-125 are tumour markers associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, colonic carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma, respectively. It is important to note that progesterone levels are not useful in determining the prognosis of trophoblastic disease. the characteristics and markers of hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic disease is crucial in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?...

    Incorrect

    • What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?

      Your Answer: Apolipoprotein

      Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is true for a patient with blood type group O before receiving...

    Incorrect

    • What is true for a patient with blood type group O before receiving a blood transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The red cells have absent A/B antigen and plasma has anti A and anti B antibodies

      Explanation:

      Blood Groups

      Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells and the corresponding antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group O has no A or B antigens on the red cells and has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group AB has both A and B antigens on the red cells but no antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group A has only A antigens on the red cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group B has only B antigens on the red cells and anti-A antibodies in the plasma. It is important to know your blood group for medical purposes, such as blood transfusions, as incompatible blood types can cause serious health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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