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  • Question 1 - A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?

      Your Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).

      When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin:

      Your Answer: Endothelin antagonists are useful in primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Current guidelines recommend the use of ambrisentan, Bosentan (recommendation I, level of evidence A) and macitentan (I, B) in patients with PAH and WHO functional class II and III. In WHO functional class IV, the first-line drug is Epoprostenol and the recommendation for Endothelin receptor antagonists is weaker (IIb, C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died in a house fire. He describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 2 months. Suspecting a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder what is the first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The first-line treatment for this patient would be cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can develop in people of any age following a traumatic event, for example, a major disaster or childhood sexual abuse. It encompasses what became known as ‘shell shock’ following the first world war. One of the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria is that symptoms have been present for more than one month.

      Clinical features:
      Re-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images
      Avoidance: avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event
      Hyperarousal: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentrating
      Emotional numbing – lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached from other people
      Depression
      Drug or alcohol misuse
      Anger

      Management:
      Following a traumatic event single-session interventions (often referred to as debriefing) are not recommended
      Watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than 4 weeks
      Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases
      Drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults.
      If drug treatment is used then paroxetine or mirtazapine are recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one days ago, he underwent allogeneic bone marrow transplant for high-risk acute myeloid leukaemia. The rash was initially maculopapular affecting his palms and soles but 24 hours later, general erythroderma is noted involving the trunk and limbs. Other than that, he remains asymptomatic. His total bilirubin was previously normal but is now noted to be 40 μmol/L (1-22). How would you manage the patient at this stage?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics after blood cultures

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      This is a classical picture of graft versus host disease (GVHD) following bone marrow transplant. Acute GVHD occurs in the first 100 days post transplant with chronic GVHD occurring 100-300 days after transplant. GVHD is graded according to the Seattle system, and each organ involved is scored (skin, liver, and gut).

      The standard initial treatment in the acute setting is high-dose methylprednisolone started immediately. If there is no response, a more intensive immunosuppressive agent such as alemtuzumab or antilymphocyte globulin is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics in the last six years for lower respiratory tract infections. He also has a history of eczema for which he is currently on a topical steroid cream. His full blood count (FBC) report shows: Hb: 13.9 g/dL, Plts: 65 x 10^9/L, WCC: 12.3 x 10^9/L. Which of the following genes should you expect an abnormality in?

      Your Answer: RET

      Correct Answer: WASP

      Explanation:

      The combination of frequent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopaenia are characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, which is due to an abnormality in the WASP gene. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes primary immunodeficiency owing to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction.

      The other listed options are:
      1. PKD1: polycystic kidney disease
      2. CFTR: cystic fibrosis
      3. HFE1: haemochromatosis
      4. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia, Hirschsprung’s disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye and vomiting. On examination, the right eye is red and decreased visual acuity is noted. Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical pilocarpine + intravenous acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      In acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) there is a rise in IOP secondary to an impairment of aqueous outflow. Management options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and inducing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness and an increased sensitivity to noise in her left ear. She is very anxious because 2 years ago she had some problems with her vision and was told that multiple sclerosis was a possibility. Her medical history is significant only for type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with insulin, and she is also taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, she has a lower motor neuron lesion of the left VII (facial) nerve with Bell's phenomenon present and difficulty closing her left eye. There is no objective hearing loss and no sensory signs. Examination of the auditory meatus and canal is unremarkable. The remainder of the neurological examination appears normal. The next management step in her care should be:

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain and cervical spine

      Correct Answer: Eye patch and artificial tears

      Explanation:

      From the given history and physical examination findings, this patient has Bell’s palsy. There is no evidence to suggest involvement of any other cranial nerves, which might raise suspicion of a cerebello-pontine angle space-occupying lesion. With her history of possible optic neuritis, there is a possibility that the lesion is in fact a manifestation of multiple sclerosis, although this should be differentiated by examination of an upper motor neuron lesion (with sparing of the forehead facial muscles because of bilateral innervation). In light of her diabetes and the limited evidence of benefit from corticosteroid use, the most sensible first management step for her would be meticulous eye care to avoid corneal ulceration, as a result of the difficulty she is having closing her left eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.

      The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and is not using any birth control other than barrier method. Which among the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Among the following hypertensives, lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) is contraindicated in patients who are planning for pregnancy.

      Per the NICE guidelines, when treating the woman in question, she should be treated as if she were pregnant given the absence of effective contraception.
      ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are known teratogens and most be avoided.

      Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy:
      Antibiotics
      Tetracyclines
      Aminoglycosides
      Sulphonamides and trimethoprim
      Quinolones

      Other drugs:
      ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists
      Statins
      Warfarin
      Sulfonylureas
      Retinoids (including topical)
      Cytotoxic agents
      The majority of antiepileptics including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are known to be potentially harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Passmed