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  • Question 1 - A 9-year-old boy has started attending a different school after his family moved...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy has started attending a different school after his family moved to a new town. His teacher is worried because he never talks in class. However, his parents have noticed that he talks to his cousins on video calls when he's alone in his room. What could be the reason for this boy's communication struggles?

      Your Answer: Selective mutism

      Explanation:

      Selective Mutism and Other Speech Disorders

      Selective mutism is a condition where a person is unable to speak in certain situations, such as public places or specific classes in school. However, they can speak normally when they feel they are not being observed, such as at home. This condition is often seen in children.

      Other speech disorders are also present in psychotic and organic disorders. Alogia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by a poverty of speech. Bradyphasia is a condition where a person speaks slowly. Echolalia is the repetition of parts of others’ speech, while paraphasia is the mispronunciation of single words or the combination of words in inappropriate or meaningless ways.

      It is important to understand these speech disorders to provide appropriate treatment and support for those affected. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking professional help, individuals with these conditions can improve their communication skills and overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A middle-aged woman presents with complaints of profound sadness, marked difficulty with focus,...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman presents with complaints of profound sadness, marked difficulty with focus, and an inability to make choices. During the appointment, her speech is notably sluggish and she struggles to articulate her emotions. How would you characterize the alterations in her cognitive functioning and thought processes?

      Your Answer: Psychomotor retardation

      Explanation:

      Psychomotor Retardation in Severe Depression

      Psychomotor retardation is a cognitive symptom commonly observed in individuals with severe depression. It is characterized by a significant slowing down of both thinking and behavior. This symptom can manifest in various ways, such as slowed speech, reduced movement, and delayed responses.

      In contrast, other disorders such as mania and schizophrenia are associated with different forms of thought disorders. Mania is characterized by racing thoughts and impulsivity, while schizophrenia is associated with disorganized thinking and delusions.

      It is important to recognize the presence of psychomotor retardation in individuals with severe depression as it can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life. Treatment options for this symptom may include medication, psychotherapy, and lifestyle changes. By addressing this symptom, individuals with severe depression can improve their overall well-being and ability to function in their daily lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man is undergoing psychiatric assessment for presenting symptoms of low mood,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is undergoing psychiatric assessment for presenting symptoms of low mood, lack of interest, fatigue, and suicidal ideation. He has been unemployed for a year and divorced his wife. He is facing financial difficulties and has been heavily drinking alcohol for the past few years. He attempted suicide three years ago.

      What is the primary risk factor for future suicide completion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous suicide attempt

      Explanation:

      One of the most significant risk factors for future suicide completion is a history of previous suicide attempts, even when other risk factors such as male sex, young or elderly age, depression, alcohol or drug use, lack of social support, and expressed future intent are present.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old man is attending a follow-up appointment at the outpatient psychiatric clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is attending a follow-up appointment at the outpatient psychiatric clinic. He initially presented 3 months ago with a complaint of hearing voices for the past 9 months. The voices were telling him about a secret organization that was spying on him and that all his electronic devices were recording his activities. He firmly believed this to be true and was only convinced to seek help by his partner. He denies any symptoms of depression or mania and has no prior history of psychiatric illness, although he does recall a cousin with similar symptoms. The psychiatrist prescribed medication, which has been effective in controlling his symptoms. However, during today's appointment, the patient reports a white milky discharge from his nipples. What is the most likely explanation for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Side effect of the medication resulting from stimulation of prolactin

      Correct Answer: Side effect of the medication resulting from inhibition of dopamine

      Explanation:

      The patient had auditory hallucinations and a delusion that he was being spied on for 6 months, indicating a diagnosis of schizophrenia. The psychiatrist likely prescribed an antipsychotic, which can cause prolonged QT interval and require electrocardiograms. Galactorrhea, a common side effect of antipsychotics like risperidone, olanzapine, or quetiapine, occurs because the medication inhibits dopamine, which usually suppresses prolactin release. The patient did not initially report symptoms of a prolactinoma and was correctly diagnosed with schizophrenia. The relief of dopamine inhibition on prolactin release is the cause of antipsychotic-induced galactorrhea. While schizophrenia patients may develop endocrine disorders, this is not the best explanation for a patient experiencing known side effects of medication. If galactorrhea persists or worsens after stopping the medication, referral to an endocrinologist may be necessary. The patient’s well-controlled condition and the presence of galactorrhea indicate a medication side effect, and worsening would manifest as an increase in positive or negative symptoms.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A teenager presents with the belief that they can fly. This is likely...

    Correct

    • A teenager presents with the belief that they can fly. This is likely to be a primary delusion.

      Which of the following is most commonly associated with this symptom?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Primary delusions are unique in that they cannot be attributed to any previous psychopathological state, such as a mood disorder. Delusions are characterized by an unshakeable, false belief that is not accepted by others in the patient’s culture. The patient perceives no difference between a delusional belief and a true belief.

      The correct answer is Schizophrenia, as primary delusions are often observed in this disorder and other psychotic disorders. In contrast, mania and severe depression are more likely to cause secondary delusions that are related to the patient’s underlying mood.

      Anorexia nervosa typically does not involve true delusions, but it may involve over-valued ideas that the person becomes preoccupied with.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the GP by his wife. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the GP by his wife. She reports that his behaviour has become increasingly erratic and that he often appears to be listening to something that she cannot hear.

      During the consultation, the GP notices that he keeps standing up and sitting down again. When questioned on these movements, the patient says, 'I can't help it, my neighbour is controlling my legs.'

      What symptom is the patient experiencing?

      Your Answer: Avolition

      Correct Answer: Passivity

      Explanation:

      Passivity is the belief that one’s movements or sensations are controlled by an external force. Grandiose delusion is a false belief in one’s own superiority. Avolition is a decrease in motivation for purposeful activities. Catatonia is a state of unresponsiveness with repetitive movements or abnormal postures.

      Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department on Thursday evening after...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department on Thursday evening after falling and hitting his head on the pavement. He was found to be heavily intoxicated and unable to stand. A CT scan of his head reveals a crescent-shaped hematoma on the right side. The patient undergoes a burr-hole craniostomy with irrigation, which goes smoothly. However, two days later, the nursing staff notices that he is restless and agitated. He is speaking to his deceased wife, who passed away 15 years ago, and does not recognize any of the nurses. Additionally, he has developed hand tremors.

      What medication has been overlooked by the medical team caring for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Long-acting benzodiazepines are administered in decreasing doses to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms in patients with a history of alcohol abuse. A man with such a history presents with anxiety, restlessness, visual and auditory hallucinations, and tremors 48 hours after his last alcohol intake. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, is prescribed to alleviate acute alcohol withdrawal and anxiety. Mannitol is indicated for cerebral edema, furosemide is a diuretic, and escitalopram is commonly used to treat anxiety and depression.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 52-year-old woman visited her family doctor with a complaint of long-standing abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman visited her family doctor with a complaint of long-standing abdominal discomfort. She describes the discomfort as diffuse and feels a heavy dragging sensation in her abdomen. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that she has been experiencing this abdominal discomfort for a few years. Her medical records indicate that she has undergone various investigations, including imaging studies and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, but none of them revealed any significant findings. Recently, her CA-125 levels were found to be normal. The woman has a history of mild depression and takes citalopram. She also reports experiencing bodily pain in multiple locations. Physical examination does not reveal any abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis for this woman?

      Your Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms were indicative of a psychiatric condition associated with somatic symptom disorders, rather than a manifestation of hypochondria or cancer.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects an underlying psychiatric condition and conducts a screening for psychiatric symptoms. During the screening, the patient reports experiencing symptoms for the past two years, such as feeling low, fatigue, and loss of interest in her hobbies. Based on this, the doctor diagnoses her with major depressive disorder. What clinical feature would warrant a reevaluation of her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olfactory hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Persecutory delusions

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia can be indicated by the presence of persecutory delusions, while the symptoms of depression align with the diagnosis. Guilty delusions, specifically, are a symptom commonly seen in cases of psychotic depression.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - During a parent-teacher conference, a student tells their teacher that 'all the older...

    Correct

    • During a parent-teacher conference, a student tells their teacher that 'all the older students are mean and unhelpful but the younger students are kind and friendly'. A few hours later they tell the complete opposite to one of the older students.

      This is an example of which of the following ego defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Splitting is a belief that individuals are either completely good or completely bad at different times, which stems from an inability to tolerate ambiguity. This behavior is frequently observed in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Other related behaviors include idealization, which involves expressing overly positive thoughts about oneself and others while disregarding negative thoughts, identification, which is the unconscious adoption of another person’s characteristics, qualities, or traits, and projection, which involves attributing an unacceptable internal impulse to an external source (as opposed to displacement).

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following side-effects are more prevalent with clozapine compared to typical...

    Correct

    • Which of the following side-effects are more prevalent with clozapine compared to typical antipsychotics?

      Your Answer: Agranulocytosis

      Explanation:

      To ensure patient safety, it is important to monitor the full blood count for signs of agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a severe adverse reaction associated with clozapine.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A male patient with paranoid schizophrenia is admitted following a relapse in his...

    Correct

    • A male patient with paranoid schizophrenia is admitted following a relapse in his psychotic symptoms. Upon admission, it is observed that he echoes the nurse's words.
      What is the term for this phenomenon of echoing others' words?

      Your Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Speech Disorders: Echolalia, Logorrhea, Paragrammatism, Paraphasia, and Verbigeration

      Echolalia, logorrhea, paragrammatism, paraphasia, and verbigeration are all speech disorders that can be seen in various psychiatric and neurological conditions. Echolalia is the repetition of words or parts of speech spoken by others, while logorrhea is excessive wordiness with limited content or incomprehensible speech. Paragrammatism is the loss of grammatical coherence in speech, and paraphasia is characterised by the mispronunciation of single words or the combination of words in inappropriate or meaningless ways. Finally, verbigeration is the monotonous repetition of parts of speech.

      These speech disorders can be seen in conditions such as schizophrenia, mania, and other organic disorders. these disorders can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. By identifying the specific speech disorder, appropriate interventions can be implemented to improve communication and overall quality of life for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse is under the care...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse is under the care of a nursing home due to a diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy. What vitamin deficiency is the cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is linked to bleeding in the mamillary bodies of the brain. This condition is commonly seen in patients who have a deficiency in thiamine. The symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy include an altered mental state, difficulty with coordination and balance, and ophthalmoplegia. This condition is particularly problematic for individuals who abuse alcohol as they often rely on alcohol for their daily caloric intake.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that can have long-lasting effects on a person’s health. With proper treatment and care, it is possible to manage the symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 63-year-old male with a lengthy history of schizophrenia presents at the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male with a lengthy history of schizophrenia presents at the clinic. He displays rapid darting movements of his tongue and appears to be grimacing. What is the mechanism of action of the medication that is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

      Correct Answer: Long term dopamine receptor blockade causing hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can occur as a result of long-term use of antipsychotic drugs, which is likely in this patient due to his history of mental illness. It is believed that blocking the dopamine receptor can cause hypersensitivity of the D2 receptor in the nigrostriatal pathway, leading to excessive movements.

      It should be noted that antiemetic medications that use dopamine antagonism in the chemoreceptor trigger zone are more likely to cause acute dystonias rather than tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra is associated with Parkinson’s disease and would not produce these symptoms. Abrupt withdrawal of dopaminergic agents is also not expected to result in tardive dyskinesia. Finally, carbidopa inhibits the conversion of L-DOPA into dopamine and does not cause tardive dyskinesia.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What is one of Schneider's primary symptoms of schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • What is one of Schneider's primary symptoms of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      First and Second-Rank Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental illness that is characterized by a range of symptoms. Kurt Schneider, a German psychiatrist, identified certain symptoms as strongly suggestive of schizophrenia and called them first-rank symptoms. These symptoms include delusions, auditory hallucinations, thought disorder, and passivity experiences. Delusions can be described as false beliefs that are not based on reality. Auditory hallucinations involve hearing voices that are not there, and thought disorder refers to a disruption in the normal thought process. Passivity experiences include feelings of being controlled by an external force.

      Schneider also identified second-rank symptoms, which are common in schizophrenia but can also occur in other mental illnesses. These symptoms include mood changes, emotional blunting, perplexity, and sudden delusional ideas. It is important to note that while these symptoms are suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not diagnostic.

      Other experiences that can occur in schizophrenia include reflex hallucinations, thought blocking, flight of ideas, and hypnopompic hallucinations. Reflex hallucinations occur when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Thought blocking is a sudden interruption of the train of thought, often experienced as a snapping off. Flight of ideas is a rapid stream of thought that may lack direction or purpose. Hypnopompic hallucinations occur as a person awakes and can continue once the individual’s eyes open from sleep.

      In summary, schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that can present with a range of symptoms. While certain symptoms are strongly suggestive of schizophrenia, a diagnosis should be made by a qualified mental health professional based on a comprehensive evaluation.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - As a medical student in general practice, a 37-year-old male with chronic back...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student in general practice, a 37-year-old male with chronic back pain comes in for a refill of his amitriptyline prescription. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Antagonist on monoamine receptors on postsynaptic membrane

      Correct Answer: Inhibits monoamine reuptake on the presynaptic membrane

      Explanation:

      Amitriptyline belongs to the class of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).

      TCAs primarily act on the presynaptic neuron rather than the postsynaptic neuron. Their main mode of action involves inhibiting the reuptake of monoamines at the presynaptic membrane. This is achieved by binding to the ATPase monoamine pump located within the presynaptic membrane.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old male accountant comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male accountant comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his left arm and right leg. He reports experiencing high levels of stress at work and a recent breakup with his girlfriend. Interestingly, he appears to show little emotional reaction when discussing these events and his motor symptoms. Additionally, he is observed moving his affected limbs normally when he thinks no one is watching. How would you describe his presentation?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Correct Answer: Belle indifference

      Explanation:

      Belle Indifference in Conversion Disorder

      Conversion disorder is a dissociative disorder that arises when emotional stress is transformed into physical health symptoms. One of the characteristic features of this disorder is belle indifference, which is the lack of emotional response to the severe physical disabilities that patients with conversion disorders present with. Although it is rarely seen nowadays, it is still included in the diagnostic criteria of this disorder.

      Belle indifference is typically observed in conversion disorder and is a striking feature of this condition. EEG and MRI may confirm the physical disability, but the patient shows no emotional response to the symptoms. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient believes they have a specific diagnosis, such as cancer. It is important to differentiate between these two conditions as they have different treatment approaches. the features of belle indifference in conversion disorder can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disorder.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old woman has recently begun her career as a graphic designer. Her...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman has recently begun her career as a graphic designer. Her partner has observed that she spends extensive amounts of time working on what she believes will be the most innovative design project ever created that will transform the industry. Despite acknowledging that she may not succeed, she remains highly motivated. How would you describe her thought process?

      Your Answer: Overvalued idea

      Explanation:

      Overvalued Ideas

      An overvalued idea is a comprehensible and acceptable belief that dominates a person’s life and preoccupies their mind. It is not a delusion, and the person acknowledges the possibility that their belief may or may not be true. However, they pursue their aim with an overwhelming desire. Despite the intensity of their belief, the person remains functioning, and there is no evidence of psychotic symptoms.

      According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV), an overvalued idea is an unreasonable and sustained belief that is maintained with less than delusional intensity. This means that the person is aware that their belief may not be accepted by others in their culture or subculture.

      In summary, an overvalued idea is a strong belief that is not firmly fixed as true, but still dominates a person’s life. It is not a delusion, and the person remains functioning. overvalued ideas is important in distinguishing them from delusions and other mental health conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - What are the personality disorders included in Cluster B (the 'dramatic' group) in...

    Correct

    • What are the personality disorders included in Cluster B (the 'dramatic' group) in the DSM?

      Your Answer: Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic

      Explanation:

      Classification of Psychiatric Disorders

      Psychiatric disorders are often grouped together based on their similarities, which can be useful for research and classification purposes. The three main clusters are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. The eccentric cluster includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal disorders. The dramatic cluster includes borderline, narcissistic, antisocial, and histrionic disorders. The fearful cluster includes obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent disorders.

      The classification of psychiatric disorders follows the operational criteria of either DSM or ICD. DSM-V, published by the American Psychiatric Association, is multi-axial and allows for assessment of the patient’s current mental state diagnosis, personality disorder and learning difficulties, any physical condition, psychosocial or environmental factors, and global assessment of functioning scale. On the other hand, ICD-10, published by the World Health Organization, is used widely in Europe and also includes a multi-axial approach. However, personality disorder is not differentiated from other mental state disorders in ICD. The three axes in ICD are current mental state diagnosis (including personality disorder), disabilities, and contextual factors.

      In summary, the classification of psychiatric disorders is important for research and treatment purposes. The three main clusters of disorders are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. DSM and ICD are the two main operational criteria used for classification, with DSM being multi-axial and including a global assessment of functioning scale, while ICD is also multi-axial but does not differentiate personality disorder from other mental state disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia is placed under section 2...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia is placed under section 2 of the mental health act following a violent altercation with a member of the public. Upon investigation, it is discovered that he ceased taking his prescribed antipsychotic medication due to experiencing problematic gynaecomastia and nipple discharge.

      Which medication has the highest occurrence of this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, often causes hyperprolactinaemia as a side effect.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A young adult visits the doctor with a complaint of a minor burn...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult visits the doctor with a complaint of a minor burn on their hand. During the consultation, they go into great detail about the events leading up to the burn, including what they were cooking and their favorite recipes. It takes a while before they finally mention the burn. Given their history of anxiety, what would be the classification of this behavior?

      Your Answer: Anergia

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - Samantha is a 60-year-old female who is well known to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 60-year-old female who is well known to the emergency department due to regular admissions of intoxication and related incidents. The last time she was admitted was because of a fall after a drinking binge, it was later discovered that this was caused by visual impairment and balance issues. Before treatment could be initiated, she self-discharged.

      This admission she was found roaming the streets with no clothes on, no idea of how she got there or who she was. Whilst in the department she would constantly ask where she was and when she could home, despite being told numerous times.

      Which of the following would you expect to see in this patient?

      Your Answer: Seizures

      Correct Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      Withdrawal from alcohol can lead to hallucinations, often in the form of visual images such as rats or bugs crawling on or around the patient.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.

      The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A young intern consistently shows up late for rounds and fabricates medical excuses....

    Incorrect

    • A young intern consistently shows up late for rounds and fabricates medical excuses. Meanwhile, they criticize a fellow intern for being unreliable and inept in their duties.

      Which ego defense mechanism is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Displacement

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A patient with a known, long-standing history of alcohol misuse presents to the...

    Correct

    • A patient with a known, long-standing history of alcohol misuse presents to the clinic after her daughter became worried that she was confused. She is unable to recall what she has done over the past few days and explains how she arrived at the clinic, which the receptionist confirms to be not true. It is also challenging to take a history from her as she cannot recall any of her past medical histories.

      What vitamin deficiency is this patient suffering from?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is caused by an untreated thiamine deficiency, which is the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms. The patient is exhibiting retrograde amnesia, anterograde amnesia, and confabulation, which are all characteristic of Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      In contrast, folate deficiency would present with macrocytic anaemia, vitamin D deficiency would cause osteomalacia, and vitamin K deficiency would result in a disorder of secondary haemostasis. These conditions have different symptoms and underlying causes than Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.

      The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - After the passing of a dear friend, a 22-year-old male comes in with...

    Correct

    • After the passing of a dear friend, a 22-year-old male comes in with symptoms of confusion and auditory hallucinations. He appears to be in great distress and has developed a belief that he is a malevolent sorcerer. It is suspected that he may be experiencing brief psychotic disorder.

      What are some characteristics of this disorder?

      Your Answer: It often results in a return to baseline functioning

      Explanation:

      Brief psychotic disorder is a condition characterized by a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, that typically occurs in response to a stressful event. Individuals with a pre-existing personality disorder may be more susceptible to this condition. However, the good news is that brief psychotic disorder often resolves within a month, and patients typically return to their normal level of functioning. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their 20s, 30s, and 40s, and patients may not always be aware of the changes in their behavior.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - What type of hallucination is Lillian experiencing while being unwell in bed with...

    Incorrect

    • What type of hallucination is Lillian experiencing while being unwell in bed with pneumonia and seeing a tiny marching band on her bedclothes?

      Your Answer: Visual hallucination - elementary hallucination

      Correct Answer: Visual hallucination - Lilliputian hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Hallucinations are false perceptions that occur simultaneously with real perceptions. There are different types of hallucinations, including visual hallucinations associated with micropsia, which are known as Lilliputian hallucinations. These hallucinations often occur in patients suffering from delirium. Another type of visual hallucination is elementary hallucinations, which appear as flashes of light.

      Extracampine hallucinations occur when an individual experiences a hallucination outside their sensory field, such as seeing someone standing behind them while looking straight ahead. Reflex hallucinations happen when a true sensory stimulus causes a hallucination in another sensory modality. Lastly, autoscopy is the experience of seeing oneself and knowing it is oneself, also known as the phantom mirror-image. the different types of hallucinations can help in identifying and treating them appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old male has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital following his arrest...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital following his arrest for a public order offence. According to reports, he stripped off his clothes in a public park and claimed to be the son of God, offering to cure people of any illness. He has a history of bipolar disorder and has ceased taking his medication. What is the probable nature of his delusions?

      Your Answer: Grandiose delusions

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Grandiose delusions are a type of delusion where the individual has an inflated sense of self-importance. They believe that they are related to a higher figure, such as a deity, a monarch, or a celebrity. They may also believe that they possess great wealth, power, or social status. These delusions are commonly seen in individuals with bipolar disorder during manic episodes, as well as in other psychotic disorders.

      On the other hand, erotomanic delusions are a type of delusion where the individual believes that someone of a higher social status is in love with them. This type of delusion can be dangerous, as the individual may become obsessed with the object of their delusion and may engage in stalking or other inappropriate behaviors.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - Tina, who is in her mid-30s, is currently facing a challenging situation at...

    Incorrect

    • Tina, who is in her mid-30s, is currently facing a challenging situation at work that is causing her to feel increasingly frustrated and angry. To cope with these emotions, she has decided to take up kickboxing as a form of release. By channeling her energy into physical activity, Tinais able to manage her anger in a healthy way. This is an example of which defense mechanism?

      Your Answer: Displacement

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unacceptable Emotions

      Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with unacceptable emotions and thoughts. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be helpful in managing difficult situations. One such mechanism is sublimation, which involves channeling negative emotions into more acceptable outlets. For example, a person who is angry may choose to engage in physical exercise as a way to release their emotions.

      Another defense mechanism is displacement, which involves transferring emotions from one person or situation to another. This can be seen when a person who is angry with their boss comes home and takes out their frustration on their family members. Intellectualization is another mechanism that allows individuals to focus on the facts of a situation rather than the emotions they are feeling. This can be helpful in situations where emotions may be overwhelming, such as when dealing with a serious illness.

      Rationalization is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to justify their behavior in a logical manner when their ego is threatened. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher rather than accepting responsibility for their own actions. Finally, denial is a mechanism that involves consciously avoiding painful topics. This can be seen when a patient denies being told that they have a serious illness.

      Overall, defense mechanisms can be helpful in managing difficult emotions and situations. However, it is important to recognize when these mechanisms are being used and to seek help if they are interfering with daily life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her...

    Incorrect

    • What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her name while being alone in the house?

      Your Answer: Auditory illusion

      Correct Answer: Hypnogogic hallucination

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Hypnogogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are two types of hallucinations that occur during the sleep cycle. Hypnogogic hallucinations happen when a person is falling asleep and can be auditory, visual, tactile, or kinaesthetic. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations occur when a person is waking up, and the hallucination continues even after the person opens their eyes. These types of hallucinations are not indicative of any psychopathology and can occur in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Reflex hallucinations are another type of hallucination that occurs when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is a unique experience where an individual sees themselves and knows that it is themselves. This experience is visual and is sometimes referred to as the ‘phantom mirror image.’ Finally, auditory illusions occur when an auditory stimulus is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener.

      In summary, there are various types of hallucinations that can occur in different stages of the sleep cycle or due to sensory stimuli. While these experiences may seem unusual, they do not necessarily indicate any underlying mental health issues.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 76-year-old patient is being treated by a nurse when he suddenly becomes...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old patient is being treated by a nurse when he suddenly becomes very agitated and attempts to hit the nurse with his walking stick. Soon after, the physician on the ward arrives and administers a dose of lorazepam.

      What potential adverse effect may occur in this patient after receiving lorazepam?

      Your Answer: Respiratory depression

      Explanation:

      Respiratory depression is a known adverse effect of benzodiazepines, particularly when used in conjunction with other respiratory depressants like opioids. Symptoms of benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome typically include tremors, anxiety, sweating, and seizures, but these are not considered adverse effects of benzodiazepine use.

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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