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  • Question 1 - Which of the following peripheral neuropathy inducing clinical diagnoses is predominantly associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following peripheral neuropathy inducing clinical diagnoses is predominantly associated with sensory loss?

      Your Answer: Lead poisoning

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Diseases that cause predominantly sensory loss include diabetes, uraemia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis.
      Those that cause predominantly motor loss include Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, and diphtheria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most...

    Correct

    • A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?

      Your Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase

      Explanation:

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla:

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The major endocrine functions of adrenal gland are to produce catecholamines and steroids. Catecholamine, synthesized by the adrenal medulla, is responsible for blood pressure and blood flow regulation whereas steroids produced by the cortex control energy and water homeostasis and immune responses. Glucocorticoids, a major group of adrenal steroids, have a stimulatory effect on catecholamine synthesis in the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Atrophic gastritis

      Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils in peripheral blood film

      Explanation:

      Hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood film is suggestive of megaloblastic changes in bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea. On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery

      Explanation:

      The patient has Acromegaly.
      Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.

      Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.

      Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and palpitations. His ECG revealed torsades de pointes ventricular tachycardia. He was on thioridazine for schizophrenia. What is the most appropriate management for his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium

      Explanation:

      Thioridazine has a quinidine-like action on the heart and is known to cause cardiac arrhythmias including prolonged PR and QT intervals and widening of QRS complexes. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is regarded as the treatment of choice for this arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small. Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
      Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the following, which cancer is least likely to be inherited?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      Of all the listed options, gastric cancer is least likely to be inherited.

      The above mentioned tumours are ruled out as explained below:
      1. Breast and Ovarian cancers: Between 5%–10% of all breast cancers are thought to be hereditary. Mutation in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes also increase the risk of ovarian cancer.

      2. Colorectal and Endometrial cancers: About 5% of cases of colorectal cancer are caused by hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC) and 1% are due to familial adenomatous polyposis. Women who have HNPCC also have a markedly increased risk of developing endometrial cancer—around 5% of endometrial cancers occur in women with this risk factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for the past 2 weeks. On examination there was a mid-systolic murmur which is best heard at the apex and double apical impulse. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). What is the risk factor which would be most indicative of the potential for sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degree of left ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy. The degree of left ventricular hypertrophy is strongly associated with sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphedema

      Explanation:

      Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24 year old presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. She has also had two recent episodes of loin to groin pain. Her bloods are normal including her inflammatory markers What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Given her history of bowel resections, the most likely answer in this case is short bowel syndrome. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion and less likely. Bacterial overgrowth does not relate to resection history, so unlikely. Celiac disease or a flare of IBD are also less likely than short bowel syndrome in this case, simply given the history. Also her labs are normal making these unlikely. History, history, history!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with Crohn's disease. The objective of the study is to detect any differences between the average calcium levels in men compared to women. Previous studies have shown a normal distribution regarding calcium levels. Which of the the following tests would you most likely apply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father has passed away recently at the age of 48 and found to have HOCM during post mortem examination. On examination of this patient his BP was 142/84 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. There was a mid systolic murmur and a double apex beat. Echocardiography showed a septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm. What is the factor most closely linked to his 20 year risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II pneumocyte

      Explanation:

      Type I pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) exchange that takes place in the alveoli. It is a very thin cell stretched over a very large area. This type of cell is susceptible to a large number of toxic insults and cannot replicate itself.
      Type II pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the production and secretion of surfactant (the molecule that reduces the surface tension of pulmonary fluids and contributes to the elastic properties of the lungs). The type 2 pneumocyte is a smaller cell that can replicate in the alveoli and will replicate to replace damaged type 1 pneumocytes. Alveolar macrophages are the primary phagocytes of the innate immune system, clearing the air spaces of infectious, toxic, or allergic particles that have evaded the mechanical defences of the respiratory tract, such as the nasal passages, the glottis, and the mucociliary transport system. The main role of goblet cells is to secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membranes where they are found. Goblet cells accomplish this by secreting mucins, large glycoproteins formed mostly by carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias that have been occurring for a month. You suspect polyarteritis nodosa and arrange for some lab investigations. Which of the following abnormality would most likely be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatinine

      Explanation:

      People with polyarteritis nodosa often exhibit anaemia of chronic disease. Leucocytosis and eosinophilia may also be present. ANCA is only rarely positive. As polyarteritis nodosa affects the kidneys as well, the creatinine is elevated in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
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  • Question 19 - An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital with a four week history of weight loss, night sweats and cough. She was given a course of Amoxicillin for the past week but her condition deteriorated and she was referred to the hospital when she developed haemoptysis.   She was on maintenance prednisolone 10 mg once per day and four weeks earlier, she had received infliximab for a flare up of rheumatoid arthritis. She lived with her husband but had been admitted to hospital himself with influenza four days earlier. She was a lifelong non-smoker and worked most of her life as a missionary in Zimbabwe and South Africa.   On examination she looked cachexic and was pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5°C. Her blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg, pulse 121 beats per minute and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Her heart sounds were normal and there were no audible murmurs. Auscultation of her lung fields revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone. Examination of her abdomen was normal.   Mantoux test < 5mm (after 48 hours) A chest radiograph revealed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis is a chronic disease commonly caused by either endogenous reactivation of a latent infection or exogenous re-infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis (also called reactivation tuberculosis) develops in 5%–20% of patients infected with M. tuberculosis.

      Found mainly in adults, this form of tuberculosis arises from the reactivation of bacilli that lay dormant within a fibrotic area of the lung. In adults, reinfection with a strain of mycobacterium that differs from that which caused the primary infection is also possible. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes, malnutrition and alcoholism.

      Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor α (TNF-α). It is FDA approved for many autoimmune conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. One of the many known side effects of infliximab therapy is reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB). Because of the resemblances in clinical and radiological features, tubercular lesions in the lung may mimic malignancy. TB accounts for 27% of all infections initially presumed to be lung cancer on imaging studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 20 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:
      When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
      Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen)  enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.

      Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for 4 days. Fundoscopy of both eyes revealed cotton wool spots in both the retinas. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CMV infection

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy findings of cotton wool spots and retinal tears, accompanied by a history of blurred vision, are characteristic of retinitis. Cytomegalovirus is known to cause retinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

      The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

      The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

      There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 24 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values: Hb 7.9 g/dL, Plt 97*109/l, WBC 2.7*109/l. Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 25 - A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Anti-TNF-α therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity.
      Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:
      • Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis
      • Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).
      • Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.
      • Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy
      • GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication
      • Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.
      • Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.
      • Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemia
      Management of these patients should be done in the following manner:
      • Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation
      • Supportive therapy
      • GI decontamination
      • Urinary excretion and alkalization
      • Haemodialysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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