-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A man with a 5-year history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attends the clinic for a routine check-up and to receive the results of his latest CD4 count and viral load. He is currently taking lopinavir, tenofovir and 3TC medications as part of his antiretroviral treatment. Management of HIV aims to reduce the patient’s viral load and improve their CD4 count.
Above what level in the blood should you aim to keep this patient's CD4 count?Your Answer: > 150 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: > 350 cells/mm3
Explanation:A man with a 5-year history of HIV is on antiretroviral treatment with atazanavir, emtricitabine, and tenofovir. The aim of this treatment is to reduce viral load (< 50 copies/ml), improve CD4 count (above 350 cells/mm3), reduce transmission, and increase quality of life without unacceptable drug side-effects. During routine check-ups, the patient's CD4 count, HIV viral RNA load, renal and hepatic function, cholesterol, blood sugar, triglycerides, and lactate are assessed. The target level for this patient's CD4 count is above 350 cells/mm3. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 greatly exposes the patient to opportunistic infections. Antiretroviral treatment usually involves a combination of at least three drugs classified as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), protease inhibitors (PIs), or 'others'. These drugs may have side-effects such as lipoatrophy, hepatotoxicity, lipodystrophy syndrome, lactic acidosis, Steven-Johnson syndrome, drug-drug interactions, hyperbilirubinemia, peripheral neuropathy, bone marrow suppression, anaemia, pancreatitis, and insulin resistance/hyperglycaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his wife after falling down a flight of 12 stairs at home and hitting his head. Despite his wife's concerns, the patient does not believe he needs medical attention. He denies experiencing any headache, nausea, vomiting, seizures, or loss of consciousness. He is not taking any regular medications, including anticoagulants, and can recall the entire incident except for a 30-second period after landing at the bottom of the stairs. Upon examination, there is no limb weakness or loss of sensation, and his pupils are equal and reactive bilaterally. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: CT head immediately
Correct Answer: CT head within 8 hours of injury
Explanation:The patient experienced a fall caused by a mechanical issue, with a potentially harmful mechanism of injury.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 26-year-old female with a past medical history of asthma presents to the Emergency Department with acute dyspnea, accompanied by a tingling sensation in her tongue and a rash after consuming a meal containing shellfish. Her symptoms improve with intramuscular epinephrine and nebulized salbutamol. What is the most effective diagnostic test to confirm if this event was caused by anaphylaxis?
Your Answer: Serum tryptase
Explanation:After an acute episode of anaphylaxis, the levels of serum tryptase may increase and stay elevated for as long as 12 hours.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife. He has known bone metastases in his pelvis and ribs, but his pain is not adequately managed with paracetamol, diclofenac, and MST 30 mg bd. His wife reports that he is using 10mg of oral morphine solution approximately 6-7 times a day for breakthrough pain. The hospice palliative care team attempted to use a bisphosphonate, but it resulted in persistent myalgia and arthralgia. What is the next appropriate step?
Your Answer: Increase MST + refer for radiotherapy
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a prolonged period. He has recently experienced a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath with minimal activity.
Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Choose ONE option from the list provided.Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Identifying the Probable Cause of Pulmonary Fibrosis
Methotrexate is the correct answer as it is a well-known drug-related cause of pulmonary fibrosis, which is the probable cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, ciclosporin, and penicillamine are not known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, although some of them have the potential to cause pneumonitis. Ciclosporin has been studied as a treatment for the disease, but it is not recommended by NICE. Therefore, it is important to identify the probable cause of pulmonary fibrosis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling extremely sick. He reports that his GP had prescribed him antibiotics for a chest infection. Upon examination, an ECG reveals polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointes). What medication is he likely taking?
Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Torsades de pointes can be caused by macrolides, particularly clarithromycin, due to its potential to prolong the QT interval and trigger polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. This risk is higher in patients with an underlying channelopathy. Long QT syndrome can be caused by genetic factors such as potassium or sodium channel mutations, as well as electrolyte imbalances like hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypokalaemia. Certain drugs, including antiarrhythmics, antibiotics, and psychotropic medications, can also cause long QT syndrome.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 52-year-old man on several medications develops bruising. Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia.
Which medication is the most probable cause of this?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Medications and their potential to cause thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia is a condition where there is a low platelet count in the blood, which can lead to bleeding and bruising. Some medications have been known to cause immune-mediated, drug-induced thrombocytopenia. Ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is one such medication. It interacts with platelet membrane glycoprotein, resulting in the formation of drug-glycoprotein complexes that can trigger the production of antibodies. The mechanism behind this is not entirely clear. Paracetamol and bisoprolol have a low likelihood of causing thrombocytopenia, making them safer alternatives. Simvastatin also has a low risk of causing thrombocytopenia. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a potential side effect of bleeding but is not directly linked to causing thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with medications and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any new medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis. He has a rash that looks like tight clusters of small red spots. He also has some grey-white spots inside his mouth. Prior to the last five days, he is normally a fit and well child who does not take any regular medications. He has not had any vaccinations. His temperature is 38 °C and his other observations are within normal limits.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital for observation
Correct Answer: Discharge home with advice regarding supportive care
Explanation:Supportive Care for Children with Measles: Discharge Advice
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can be prevented through vaccination. If a child is diagnosed with measles, they will present with symptoms such as fever, cough, and a rash. The period of contagiousness is estimated to be from five days before the appearance of the rash to four days afterwards. There is no specific treatment for uncomplicated measles, but supportive care can be provided to manage symptoms.
Discharge advice for parents of a child with measles should include information on potential complications and when to seek medical attention. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and provide antipyretics and fluids as needed. If a secondary bacterial infection arises, antibiotics may be required. Immunoglobulins are not given as a treatment for acute measles, but vaccination is recommended as a preventative measure. Aspirin should not be given to children with measles due to the risk of Reye syndrome. Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given for symptomatic relief. With proper supportive care, most children with measles will recover without complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 9-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a one-month history of unusual facial movements noticed by her father. Her father reports that he first noticed her having twitching of left eye and face as well as drooling of saliva. This happens about twice a week, always at night. Each episode lasts for 1-2 minutes and after each episode, the girl is unable to speak properly for around 5 minutes. The girl is aware of these occurrences but reports unable to control them. The father reports that his daughter is otherwise normal with normal development.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:Benign rolandic epilepsy is identified by the occurrence of partial seizures during the night.
The child displays typical indications of benign rolandic epilepsy, which is distinguished by partial seizures that occur during the night. Reflex anoxic seizures are caused by anoxia and typically manifest as syncope and subsequent convulsions in very young children. Panayiotopoulos syndrome is characterised by seizures, often prolonged, with predominantly autonomic symptoms such as nausea and retching. Idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy of Gastaut is mainly characterised by visual hallucinations. Night terrors are a sleep disorder that causes feelings of dread or terror, typically during REM sleep.
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a blocked stoma bag. She had surgery for bowel cancer recently, which involved removing a section of her bowel. The stoma bag is situated in the upper left quadrant of her abdomen. The bag is entirely empty, and you can see that the proximal part of the resected bowel is flush with the skin. Her abdomen is swollen, and you can hear tinkling bowel sounds. What kind of stoma does this patient have?
Your Answer: End ileostomy
Correct Answer: End colostomy
Explanation:The correct type of stoma in this case is an end colostomy. This is because the stoma is flush to the skin, indicating that the large bowel contents are not irritant. To differentiate between a colostomy and a small intestine stoma, one can look at the location and output. Ileostomies are typically located on the right iliac fossa and have spouted output, while colostomies are usually on the left iliac fossa and have flush output. An end ileostomy is used after complete colon excision or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned, and it would have spouted output. A loop ileostomy involves taking a loop of the ileum and bringing it up to the skin, and it is used to defunction the colon and can be reversed. It would also have spouted output. A loop jejunostomy is used as a high output stoma and would also have spouted output. A percutaneous jejunostomy involves a feeding tube directly inserted into the jejunum and would not have a stoma bag.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)