-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
You are considering prescribing an antidepressant to a 75-year-old woman who has been experiencing low mood and difficulty maintaining her weight due to low appetite. Which psychiatric medication could potentially improve both her mood and appetite?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Mirtazapine may be prescribed for its beneficial side effects of increased appetite and sedation. Unlike sertraline and fluoxetine, which are SSRIs that primarily improve mood, they do not have a significant impact on appetite. Gabapentin and pregabalin, which are typically used for neuropathic pain, are not suitable for this purpose.
Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.
Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.
Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms, including chorea, incoordination, personality changes and psychiatric symptoms such as depression. His father died at the age of 55. You suspect this may be a case of Huntington’s disease.
Which of the following investigations would be the most useful to confirm this diagnosis?Your Answer: Genetic testing
Explanation:Investigations for Huntington’s Disease: Genetic Testing, CT Scan, EEG, MRI Scan, and PET Scan
Huntington’s Disease is a genetic disorder that affects the brain, causing progressive motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. There are several investigations that can be done to confirm the diagnosis and assess disease progression.
Genetic testing is the most useful way to confirm the diagnosis of Huntington’s Disease. A positive result consists of 40 or more CAG repeats on one of the alleles. It is important to provide genetic counselling to patients if they choose to get this test done.
CT scans can be useful later on in the disease, showing loss of striatal volume and an increase in the size of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles of the brain. However, these findings are not always present early on in the disease, so a CT scan would not be the most useful investigation.
EEGs are not usually done unless another cause for the symptoms, such as epilepsy, is suspected.
MRI scans can also show caudate or striatal atrophy. However, it is important to note that these findings are not always specific to Huntington’s Disease, making this investigation less useful.
PET scans are not routinely done to detect Huntington’s Disease but may be used in combination with other investigations to assess disease progression. Systematic reviews have shown that when they are used, the scan results show differences in brain metabolism, dopaminergic function, and phosphodiesterase levels when assessing the progression of Huntington’s Disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of her tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia 10 years ago and has been on flupenthixol and then haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, her temperature is 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Her respiratory rate is 14 cycles/min. There is pronounced choreoathetoid movement of the hand and fingers.
What is the next line of management of this patient?Your Answer: Supportive therapy
Correct Answer: Stop the haloperidol and start olanzapine
Explanation:Treatment options for extrapyramidal side-effects of anti-psychotic medication
Extrapyramidal side-effects are common with anti-psychotic medication, particularly with typical anti-psychotics such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine. Tardive dyskinesia is one such side-effect, which can be treated by switching to an atypical anti-psychotic medication like olanzapine. Acute dystonia, on the other hand, can be managed with anticholinergics. Decreasing the dose of haloperidol can help alleviate akathisia, or motor restlessness. Supportive therapy is not effective in treating extrapyramidal side-effects. It is important to monitor patients for these side-effects and adjust medication accordingly to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman who is a law student has severe anxiety about public speaking and in informal social settings. She avoids situations where she might have to enter into conversations with strangers. She reports that she thinks others are frustrated by her inability in casual social interactions and that she ‘feels stupid and awkward’. Her social problems are also affecting her academic performance. She is considering leaving university for a less stressful environment.
Which is the most appropriate form of psychotherapy for this woman?Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Choosing the Right Treatment for Social Phobia: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
Social phobia is a type of anxiety disorder that can cause panic and avoidance of social situations. For patients with this condition, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is often the best treatment option. CBT can help patients identify and change negative thought patterns that contribute to their anxiety, and it often includes exposure therapy as a component.
Other treatment options, such as vocational counselling or psychoanalytic psychotherapy, may not be as effective for social phobia. Suggesting these options could reinforce the patient’s belief that their symptoms cannot be treated therapeutically. Network therapy is designed for substance abusers, and self-help groups may be helpful for some patients, but only if they can manage their anxiety enough to participate effectively.
In summary, for patients with social phobia, cognitive behavioural therapy is the most effective treatment option. It can help patients overcome their anxiety and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 95-year-old man without past medical history presents with increasing forgetfulness. His son is concerned that over the last six weeks his father has been forgetting his grandchildren's names and stories from his upbringing. The patient reports a loss of appetite, sometimes forgetting if he has eaten, is not getting good quality sleep and is frustrated with his son for taking him to the doctors. He sometimes sees and hears his recently deceased wife.
Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Pseudodementia, which is characterized by global memory loss rather than short-term memory loss, can be mistaken for dementia but is actually a symptom of severe depression.
The correct diagnosis in this case is depression, as the patient’s symptoms are consistent with pseudodementia, which is a common mimic for dementia in elderly patients. While some cognitive impairment is present, the key feature is a global memory loss affecting both short and long-term memory over a short period of four weeks, with reluctance to engage in clinical assessment. The recent loss of the patient’s husband also suggests a severe reactive depressive episode.
Alzheimer’s dementia is a possible differential diagnosis due to the patient’s age, but it tends to present more gradually with selective impairment of short-term memory and relative sparing of longer-term memories.
Frontotemporal lobe dementia is less likely in this case as it tends to present with more dramatic behavioral changes or emotional disinhibition.
Lewy body dementia shares some symptoms with this case, such as impaired cognition and visual hallucinations. However, the specific hallucination of the patient’s husband is more likely related to grief and depression, which is supported by the relatively short duration of symptoms. Question stems that describe Lewy body dementia may also provide clues towards a movement disorder.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A mental state examination is conducted on a 32-year-old individual. When asked about their breakfast, they start by describing their morning routine, then talk about their favourite recipes, followed by a story about a cooking competition they participated in, and finally mention having cereal for breakfast. Their speech is at a regular pace and flow.
What type of thought process is demonstrated in this scenario?Your Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Circumstantiality refers to the tendency to provide excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, ultimately reaching the intended goal but taking a circuitous route. This is different from tangentiality, where the patient wanders away from the topic without returning, derailment of thoughts, where there are illogical jumps between topics, and flight of ideas, where the patient quickly moves from one related topic to another.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old mid-level manager is referred by his company after a recent incident. He had been working on a major project that would secure his promotion and position in the firm. After months of hard work, he was just about to finalize the project when his team member made a mistake that caused a setback. Frustrated by the setback, your patient began yelling, stomping on the floor and throwing objects until he broke a window.
Which one of the following ego defences best describes his behaviour?Your Answer: Reaction formation
Correct Answer: Regression
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defence Mechanisms: Types and Examples
Regression, Sublimation, Identification, Dissociation, and Reaction Formation are all ego defence mechanisms that individuals use to cope with stress and anxiety.
Regression is an immature defence mechanism where individuals revert to childish behaviour when faced with stress. For example, a frustrated person may throw a temper tantrum like a toddler.
Sublimation, on the other hand, is a mature defence mechanism where individuals channel their unacceptable personality traits into respectable work that aligns with their values.
Identification is when individuals model the behaviour of a more powerful person. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.
Dissociation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals temporarily modify their personal identity to avoid distress. An extreme form of dissociation is dissociative identity disorder.
Finally, Reaction Formation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals repress unacceptable emotions and replace them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.
Understanding these ego defence mechanisms can help individuals recognize and cope with their own stress and anxiety in a healthy way.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A teenager has been referred because of bizarre behaviour at school. His teachers have reported that he alternates between very passive and very aggressive behaviours. At times, he cries and withdraws from sight when he thinks he is being slighted in some manner. At other times, he yells wildly and fights over the smallest of infractions. Upon further examination, you discover that the patient has been the victim of significant abuse at home.
Which one of the following defence mechanisms is he likely employing?Your Answer: Dissociation
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defense Mechanisms: Dissociation, Sublimation, Identification, Reaction Formation, and Splitting
Ego defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations. These mechanisms can be either mature or immature, depending on their effectiveness and adaptability. Here are some examples of common ego defense mechanisms and how they manifest in individuals:
Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person temporarily modifies their personal identity to avoid distress. For instance, a victim of abuse may develop multiple personalities to cope with the trauma.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person takes an unacceptable personality trait and channels it into a respectable work that aligns with their values. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.
Identification: This is when a person models the behavior of a more powerful figure. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.
Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.
Splitting: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person is unable to reconcile both good and bad traits in a given person and sees people as either all good or all bad.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address maladaptive coping strategies and work towards healthier ways of dealing with stress.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his partner reported he ingested multiple tablets of paracetamol after an argument. The patient is currently medically stable and can give a history to the attending emergency physician. He reports that he regrets taking the tablets and that this is the first time he has committed such an act. He claims that he acted in a moment of anger after the argument and never planned for this to happen. He suffers from moderate depression which has been managed by his general practitioner with sertraline. He consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and denies any abuse of recreational drugs. He has no family history of mental illness.
Which one of the following is an important dynamic risk factor to consider when managing this patient?Your Answer: History of alcohol misuse
Correct Answer: Self-harm plans
Explanation:Understanding Static and Dynamic Risk Factors for Suicide Risk Assessment
Suicide risk assessment involves evaluating both static and dynamic risk factors. Static risk factors, such as age, sex, and previous history of self-harm, cannot be changed. Dynamic risk factors, such as drug use, self-harm plans, and income/employment status, can potentially be modified to reduce future risk of suicide.
Having a well-thought-out plan for self-harm is a major risk factor for suicide. Asking patients about their suicide plans can identify those at highest risk and allow for early intervention. Self-harm plans are a dynamic risk factor that can be acted upon to mitigate future risk of suicide.
A history of drug abuse and alcohol misuse are static risk factors for suicide. While interventions are available to manage current drug and alcohol misuse, a history of misuse cannot be modified.
A history of self-harm is also a risk factor for suicide, as individuals who have previously attempted suicide are more likely to do so in the future. However, a history of self-harm is a static risk factor and should not be considered a dynamic risk factor for suicide risk assessment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 22-year-old man with a history of hearing voices is brought to the Emergency Department by his family. He describes these voices as telling him to kill himself, ‘as he has a demon in him’. He also reports noting his intelligence being tapped through the television by a higher power. This has been going on for the past 3 months. His family denies either depression or manic episodes. The patient was admitted to the inpatient Psychiatry Unit and, after an evaluation, a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder was made. He was started on Haldol (haloperidol) for his symptoms. Two days after initiation of therapy, the patient’s temperature rose to 41 °C, blood pressure 150/85 mmHg and pulse 110 bpm. Physical examination revealed muscular rigidity and delirium.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Neurological Disorders Caused by Medications
Neurological disorders can be caused by certain medications, such as high-potency anti-psychotic drugs like haloperidol. One such disorder is neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can result from the use of these medications to treat conditions like schizophrenia. Symptoms include muscular rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and managing symptoms with cooling measures and medications like dantrolene or bromocriptine.
Another medication-induced neurological disorder is serotonin syndrome, which can occur when a patient takes multiple doses or an overdose of medications like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or serotonin agonists. Symptoms include muscular twitching, agitation, and autonomic instability. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and managing symptoms with supportive care.
Malignant hyperthermia is a similar disorder that can occur during anesthesia administration and is caused by an inherited genetic disorder. Symptoms include fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. Treatment involves using medications like dantrolene and providing supportive care.
It’s important to note that not all neurological disorders are caused by medications. Meningitis, for example, is not a side effect of haloperidol. Acute dystonia, which presents with spasms of various muscle groups, can also be caused by haloperidol, but the presenting symptoms are more consistent with neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Understanding the different neurological disorders caused by medications can help healthcare providers make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)