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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man is referred to the medical team on call. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is referred to the medical team on call. He has been feeling fatigued for two months and is now experiencing shortness of breath with minimal exertion. He has also had several episodes of syncope with postural hypotension. The GP conducted a blood count and the results showed:

      - Haemoglobin 64 g/L (120-160)
      - MCV 62 fL (80-96)
      - WCC 11.6 ×109L (4-11)
      - Platelets 170 ×109L (150-400)
      - MCH 22 pg (28-32)

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Emergency upper GI endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Transfuse packed red cells

      Explanation:

      Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia and the Importance of Blood Transfusion

      This patient is presenting with a microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which is commonly caused by iron deficiency due to occult gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss in a Caucasian population. To determine the cause of the anaemia, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for clues of GI blood loss. Given the microcytic hypochromic picture, it is likely that blood loss has been ongoing for some time.

      Although there is no evidence of haemodynamic compromise or congestive cardiac failure (CCF), the patient is experiencing breathlessness on minimal exertion. This justifies an upfront transfusion to prevent the patient from going into obvious cardiorespiratory failure. At a Hb of 64 g/L in a 72-year-old, the benefits of transfusion outweigh the risks.

      While haematinics such as ferritin, vitamin B12, and folate are important investigations, the most crucial management step is organising a blood transfusion. This will help to address the immediate issue of anaemia and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
      On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
      Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?

      Your Answer: Splenic sinusoid

      Explanation:

      The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries

      The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.

      One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.

      The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.

      The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.

      Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?

      Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction

      Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).

      If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.

      Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.2
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy has been brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy has been brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his parents, both of whom are known to suffer from sickle cell disease. They have brought him in to see you because they are worried he has developed ‘septicaemia’. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has developed extreme fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, coryzal symptoms and bleeding gums, all over the last two days.
      Upon examination, you note an erythematosus rash on both cheeks, a small purpuric rash on the left arm, pale conjunctivae, pale skin and well-perfused peripheries. Brudzinski’s sign is negative.
      You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
      Temperature: 37.8 ˚C
      Heart rate: 100 bpm (normal 55–85 bpm)
      Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min)
      Blood pressure: 130/86 mmHg (lying), 132/84 mmHg (standing)
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      His initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal
      White cell count (WCC) 11.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 3800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 7200 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 84 g/dl 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume
      (MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Given the likely diagnosis, how should the patient be managed?

      Your Answer: Oral benzylpenicillin and transfer to a paediatric ward

      Correct Answer: Cross-match, giving blood as soon as it is available

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is at a high risk of sickle cell disease due to their ethnicity and family history. They are showing signs of parvovirus B19 infection, which is causing bone marrow failure and a decrease in erythropoiesis. This condition, known as aplastic crisis, is usually managed conservatively but may require a blood transfusion if the patient is experiencing symptomatic anemia. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not recommended in this case as it will not address the patient’s severe anemia. IV ceftriaxone and a lumbar puncture would be the correct initial management for meningococcal disease, but it is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Oral benzylpenicillin and transfer to a pediatric ward is also not recommended as it is not the correct management for meningococcal disease and is not relevant to the patient’s condition. While sepsis is a possible differential diagnosis, the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is a viral infection causing aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease. Therefore, the appropriate management would be to investigate for viral infection and provide supportive therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      76.5
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She had undergone a right knee arthroscopy and had been immobile for a while. She only takes paracetamol and codeine for osteoarthritis as needed. An above-knee deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is detected on ultrasound, which is her first DVT. What is the recommended treatment?

      Your Answer: Three months of apixaban

      Explanation:

      Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis and Pulmonary Embolism

      Apixaban and rivaroxaban are the preferred medications for treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT), except for patients with renal impairment or antiphospholipid syndrome. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and warfarin are alternative options for those who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban. Thrombolysis is used to manage pulmonary embolism (PE) in patients with haemodynamic instability.

      The duration of anticoagulation treatment depends on the type of DVT. For provoked DVTs, which have an identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least three months. After this period, the risks and benefits of continuing anticoagulation treatment must be assessed to determine further treatment. For unprovoked DVTs, which have no identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least six months. After this period, a risk and benefit assessment is required to determine further treatment.

      NICE has provided a helpful visual summary to assist in the management of DVT and PE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      19.9
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right leg that has been bothering her for the past three days. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis in the same leg ten years ago after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Additionally, she was treated for pleurisy three years ago by her general practitioner. She has been experiencing recurrent water infections for the past two years, with intermittent bouts of flank pain and dark urine in the morning. Her general practitioner has recently investigated this issue, but the ultrasound scan of her renal tract and intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a building society and lives with her husband and two children. She does not have a recent history of travel, but she smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. On examination, her right calf is swollen, red, and tender, but she appears otherwise well. Her blood tests show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Buerger's disease

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria: A Clonal Defect of Red Cells

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition where red blood cells have an increased susceptibility to lysis by complement due to an acquired clonal defect. This disorder typically presents in young adults and is often associated with other stem cell disorders, such as aplastic anaemia. The classic symptom of PNH is the intermittent passage of bloody urine, which tends to occur more frequently at night for unknown reasons. Diagnosis is often made through investigation of anaemia, pancytopenia, or recurrent thrombotic episodes, which are likely caused by complement-induced platelet aggregation. Flow cytometry can confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating a lack of erythrocyte membrane proteins CD59 and decay accelerating factor (DAF).

      Overall, PNH is a rare but serious condition that can lead to significant complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing further damage to the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      62.4
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should be the immediate course of action to manage this adverse event?

      Your Answer: Temporarily cease the donation, consider fluid replacement and elevate the donor's legs

      Explanation:

      Donor safety is important in blood donation. Fainting is a common adverse event and should be treated by stopping the donation and reviving the donor. Elevation of the legs and monitoring vitals is necessary. Donors should be counseled on pre-donation expectations and encouraged to drink fluids after recovery. Hemoglobin checks are no longer required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.3
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  • Question 8 - What is the correct information regarding the storage requirements and lifespan of blood...

    Correct

    • What is the correct information regarding the storage requirements and lifespan of blood products?

      Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma is stored at −25°C for up to 36 months

      Explanation:

      Storage Guidelines for Blood Products

      Blood products such as fresh frozen plasma, red cells, and platelets have specific storage guidelines to ensure their safety and efficacy. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored for up to 36 months at a temperature of −25°C. On the other hand, red cells are stored at a temperature of 4°C for a maximum of 35 days, while platelets are stored at a temperature of 22°C for up to 5 days on a platelet shaker/agitator.

      These guidelines are important to follow to maintain the quality of blood products and prevent any adverse reactions in patients who receive them. It is crucial to store blood products at the appropriate temperature and for the recommended duration to ensure their effectiveness when used in transfusions. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines and ensure that they are followed to provide safe and effective blood transfusions to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      9.3
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  • Question 9 - A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents...

    Correct

    • A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
      eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 78 g/l
      Males: 135–175 g/l
      Females: 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      11.9
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types

      Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.

      While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      20.5
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Haematology (7/10) 70%
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