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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?

      Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K, prothrombin complex concentrate and fresh-frozen plasma

      Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.5
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  • Question 2 - A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with 71% of...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with 71% of bone marrow blasts. She declined bone marrow transplant and was started on appropriate chemotherapy. After 2 months, a repeat bone marrow revealed 8% of blasts. Peripheral blood was blast-free and blood tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 106 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 5.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.8 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Platelets 131 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      What is her clinical status?

      Your Answer: Partial remission

      Explanation:

      Partial remission occurs when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for having more than 5% bone marrow blasts. To be diagnosed with partial remission, the blast cells can be between 5% and 25% and must have decreased by at least 50% from their levels before treatment.

      Complete remission is achieved when a patient meets specific criteria, including having a neutrophil count of over 1.0 × 109/l and a platelet count of over 100 × 109/l, not requiring red cell transfusions, having normal cellular components on bone marrow biopsy, having less than 5% blasts in the bone marrow without Auer rods present, and having no signs of leukemia anywhere else in the body.

      Complete remission with incomplete recovery is when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for continuing to have neutropenia or thrombocytopenia.

      Resistant disease occurs when a patient fails to achieve complete or partial remission and still has leukemia cells in their peripheral blood or bone marrow seven days after completing initial therapy.

      A morphologic leukemia-free state is when a patient has less than 5% bone marrow blasts without blasts with Auer rods present and no extramedullary disease, but they do not meet the criteria for neutrophils, platelets, and blood transfusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      10.3
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets of warfarin which belonged to her mother. She has diarrhoea but has no mucosal bleeding. She admits to previously attending a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour. She has no remarkable medical history. Her mother has a history of recurrent venous thrombosis for which she is taking warfarin.
      What will the patient’s coagulation screen likely be?

      Your Answer: Elevated fibrinogen levels

      Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time, international normalised ratio, activated partial thromboplastin time and normal platelet counts

      Explanation:

      Warfarin poisoning is characterized by elevated prothrombin time (PT), international normalized ratio (INR), and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), along with normal platelet counts. This is due to the drug’s ability to block the function of vitamin K epoxide reductase, leading to a depletion of the reduced form of vitamin K that serves as a cofactor for gamma carboxylation of vitamin-K-dependent coagulation factors. As a result, the vitamin-K-dependent factors cannot function properly, leading to elevated PT and INR, normal or elevated APTT, and normal platelet counts. Thrombocytopenia with normal PT, INR, and APTT can be caused by drugs like methotrexate and carboplatin isotretinoin, which induce direct myelosuppression. Decreased factor VIII levels are seen in haemophilia A, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and von Willebrand disease, but not in warfarin overdose. Isolated APTT elevation is seen in heparin overdose, while elevated fibrinogen levels can be seen in inflammation, acute coronary syndrome, and stroke, but not in warfarin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      15.6
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  • Question 4 - A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover

      In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.7
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and both lower limbs over the past four months. He has also developed digital infarcts affecting the second and third fingers on the right hand and the fifth finger on the left. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses are palpable, and there is an asymmetrical neuropathy. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L (130-170), a white cell count of 12.5 ×109/L (4-10), a platelet count of 430 ×109/L (150-450), and an ESR of 50 mm/hr (0-15). Urine examination shows proteinuria and 10-15 red blood cells per high power field without casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopaenia purpura

      Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Explanation:

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic disease that affects small or medium-sized arteries in various organs, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as nerve damage, skin issues, joint and muscle pain, kidney problems, and heart issues. Laboratory findings include anemia, increased white blood cells and platelets, and elevated inflammatory markers. ANCA testing can help differentiate PAN from other vasculitis diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12.2
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  • Question 6 - This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents...

    Incorrect

    • This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue following his retirement 6 months ago:

      Hb 130 g/L (120-160)
      RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
      Haematocrit 0.39 (0.36-0.46)
      MCV 86.5 fL (80-100)
      MCH 28.1 pg (27-32)
      Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-400)
      WBC 6.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 3.8 ×109/L (2-7)
      Lymphocytes 1.9 ×109/L (1-4)
      Monocytes 0.5 ×109/L (0.2-1)
      Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.5)
      Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0-0.1)

      He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband is constantly tired, has lost interest in his hobbies and has trouble sleeping.

      Examination is pretty much normal except that he appears fatigued. There are no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?

      Your Answer: Antidepressant drug therapy

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient

      Explanation:
      The patient in question is displaying a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. If the cause of macrocytosis were folate or B12 deficiency, it would be expected to cause anemia in association with the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism may also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss argues against this diagnosis. For further information on macrocytosis, refer to the BMJ Practice article Macrocytosis: pitfalls in testing and summary of guidance, the BMJ Endgames case report A woman with macrocytic anemia and confusion, and the BMJ Best Practice article Assessment of anemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      15
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old woman who is in hospital for pneumonia begins to deteriorate on...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman who is in hospital for pneumonia begins to deteriorate on her third day of intravenous antibiotics. She develops purple bruises on her skin and on the inside of her mouth, and tells you that she feels short of breath and fatigued. Her platelet count has dropped from 165 × 109/l to 43 × 109/l over the last two days. She also complains of blurred vision in the last few hours.
      Which of the following will form part of her initial management?

      Your Answer: Plasma exchange

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. The most common initial management for TTP is plasma exchange, which aims to remove the antibodies that block the ADAMTS13 enzyme and replace the ADAMTS13 enzymes in the blood. Intravenous methylprednisone and rituximab may also be used in conjunction with plasma exchange.

      Aspirin should only be considered when the platelet count is above 50 × 109/l, and even then, it is not an essential part of initial management and will depend on the patient’s comorbidities. Cryoprecipitate is not recommended for TTP treatment, as it is indicated for disseminated intravascular coagulation or fibrinogen deficiency.

      Factor VIII infusion is used for haemophilia A, a C-linked-recessive disorder that presents with excessive bleeding and anaemia, and is less likely to be associated with thrombocytopenia and TTP. Platelet transfusions are relatively contraindicated in TTP and should only be considered in cases of catastrophic bleeding or urgent surgery that cannot wait until after plasma exchange. Platelet transfusions increase the risk of arterial thrombosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction and stroke.

      In summary, plasma exchange is the most common initial management for TTP, and other treatment options should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.9
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's syndrome screening test around 15 weeks into her pregnancy.

      What is included in the measurement of a Down's screening blood test?

      Your Answer: Human placental lactogen

      Correct Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      AFP Measurement for Detecting Birth Defects and Chromosomal Abnormalities

      When a woman is 15 weeks pregnant, a blood test called AFP measurement can be performed to determine if there is an increased risk of certain birth defects and chromosomal abnormalities. This test can detect open neural tube or abdominal wall defects, as well as Down’s syndrome and trisomy 18. In the past, if the results of the AFP measurement were abnormal, an ultrasound scan would be performed. However, it is possible that in the future, mid-trimester anomaly scanning may replace the use of AFP measurement altogether.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      11.7
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  • Question 9 - A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV

      When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12.5
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  • Question 10 - What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?...

    Incorrect

    • What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?

      Your Answer: Chylomicrons

      Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      3.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (4/10) 40%
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