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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She was admitted three weeks ago due to chest pain and was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. During her hospital stay, she was prescribed several new medications to prevent future cardiac events and is seeking further guidance on her statin dosage. What is the most suitable advice to provide?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg od

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Statin Dose for Secondary Prevention of Coronary Events

      All patients who have had a myocardial infarction should be started on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a beta-blocker, a high-intensity statin, and antiplatelet therapy. Before starting a statin, liver function tests should be checked. The recommended statin dose for secondary prevention, as per NICE guidelines, is atorvastatin 80 mg od. Simvastatin 40 mg od is not the most appropriate drug of choice for secondary prevention, and atorvastatin is preferred due to its reduced incidence of myopathy. While simvastatin 80 mg od is an appropriate high-intensity statin therapy, atorvastatin is still preferred. Atorvastatin 20 mg od and 40 mg od are too low a dose to start with, and the dose may need to be increased to 80 mg in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for routine health...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for routine health screening. He has a background history of obesity (BMI 31 kg/m2), impaired glucose tolerance and he used to smoke. His blood pressure is 162/100 mmHg. It is the same in both arms. There is no renal bruit and he does not appear cushingoid. He does not take regular exercise. At his previous appointment his blood pressure was 168/98 mm/Hg and he has been testing his BP at home. Average readings are 155/95 mmHg. He does not drink alcohol. His father had a heart attack at age 58. Blood results are listed below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      HbA1C 46 mmol/l < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5 mmol/l
      Urea 7 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 84 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
      High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 1.1 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
      Low density-lipoprotein (LDL) 3 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
      Triglycerides 1.1 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
      Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Free T4 16 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
      What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Stage 2 Hypertension: Commencing ACE Inhibitor

      Stage 2 hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to reduce the risk of a cardiac event. According to NICE guidelines, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension. This man, who has multiple risk factors for hypertension, including age, obesity, and physical inactivity, should commence pharmacological treatment. Lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient in this case.

      It is important to note that beta blockers are not considered first-line treatment due to their side-effect profile. Spironolactone is used as fourth-line treatment in resistant hypertension or in the setting of hyperaldosteronism. If cholesterol-lowering treatment were commenced, a statin would be first line. However, in this case, the patient’s cholesterol is normal, so a fibrate is not indicated.

      In summary, commencing an ACE inhibitor is the appropriate course of action for this patient with stage 2 hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is currently taking metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. He has gained weight over the past year and his HbA1c has worsened from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). The doctor is considering treating him with either insulin or pioglitazone. The patient is curious about the potential side effects of pioglitazone.

      What is a common side effect of pioglitazone therapy?

      Your Answer: Fluid retention

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Pioglitazone, a medication used to treat diabetes, can lead to fluid retention in approximately 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. Additionally, weight gain associated with pioglitazone is due to both fat accumulation and fluid retention. It is important to note that pioglitazone is not recommended for patients with cardiac failure.

      Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a known risk and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers.

      Sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a rash that is sensitive to sunlight.

      Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, have been associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman patient presents with a subacute history of lethargy and low-grade...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman patient presents with a subacute history of lethargy and low-grade fever. Among other findings, full clinical examination reveals retinal haemorrhages with pale centres, painful red raised lesions on the hands and feet and subcentimetre, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet.
      What is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Clinical Signs and Diagnosis of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is a condition caused by Streptococcus viridans, an oral commensal, and presents with malaise, weakness, and low-grade fever. Diagnosis is often delayed due to non-specific presentation, but it should be suspected in any febrile or unwell patient with a new or changing murmur. The three classic clinical signs of SBE are finger clubbing, Roth spots, and Osler’s nodes, along with Janeway lesions, which are subcentimeter, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet. Confirmation of SBE usually requires three separate sets of blood cultures taken in a 24-hour period, ideally during times the patient is febrile.

      While Janeway lesions may be found in systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE), the combination of the three described findings is unique to SBE. Tuberculosis does not present with the above constellation of findings but would be expected to present with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Subacute meningococcal septicaemia typically gives a non-blanching petechial rash in the context of fulminating sepsis and does not present subacutely as described here. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients may have subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules on the extensor surfaces of the limbs, but RA does not give the findings described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A newborn baby is found to have a heart murmur that is later...

    Correct

    • A newborn baby is found to have a heart murmur that is later identified as Ebstein's anomaly. Is it possible that a medication taken by the mother during pregnancy could have played a role in causing this congenital heart defect?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium Exposure During Pregnancy Linked to Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Exposure to lithium during pregnancy has been found to be linked to the development of Ebstein’s anomaly in newborns. Ebstein’s anomaly is a rare congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve, which separates the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.

      Studies have shown that women who take lithium during pregnancy are at an increased risk of having a child with Ebstein’s anomaly. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, and while it can be an effective treatment, it is important for women who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking lithium with their healthcare provider.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential risks associated with lithium use during pregnancy and to closely monitor pregnant women who are taking this medication. Early detection and treatment of Ebstein’s anomaly can improve outcomes for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old man, with a family history of ischaemic heart disease, has been...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man, with a family history of ischaemic heart disease, has been diagnosed with angina. His total cholesterol level is 6.5 mmol/l. He has been prescribed a statin and given dietary advice. What dietary modification is most likely to lower his cholesterol level?

      Your Answer: Replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats

      Explanation:

      Lowering Cholesterol Levels: Dietary Changes to Consider

      To lower cholesterol levels, it is important to make dietary changes. One effective change is to replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats. Saturated fats increase cholesterol levels, while unsaturated fats lower them. It is recommended to reduce the percentage of daily energy intake from fat, with a focus on reducing saturated fats. Increasing intake of foods such as pulses, legumes, root vegetables, and unprocessed cereals can also help lower cholesterol. Using a margarine containing an added stanol ester can increase plant stanol intake, which can also reduce cholesterol. However, reducing intake of dairy products and meat alone may not be as effective as replacing them with beneficial unsaturated fats. It is important to avoid replacing polyunsaturated fats with saturated fats, as this can raise cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.9
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash on his forearms, shins, and face. Which medication is most likely to be linked with this photosensitive rash?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Cardiology Drugs

      Photosensitivity is a frequently observed negative reaction to certain cardiology drugs, such as amiodarone and thiazide diuretics. This means that patients taking these medications may experience an increased sensitivity to sunlight, resulting in skin rashes or other skin-related issues. Additionally, ACE inhibitors and A2RBs, which are commonly prescribed for cardiovascular conditions, have been known to cause rashes that may also be photosensitive. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to take necessary precautions, such as wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen, when exposed to sunlight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.8
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  • Question 8 - What are the components of Virchow's triad? ...

    Correct

    • What are the components of Virchow's triad?

      Your Answer: Venous stasis, injury to veins, blood hypercoagulability

      Explanation:

      Virchow’s Triad and Its Three Categories of Thrombosis Factors

      Virchow’s triad is a concept that explains the three main categories of factors that contribute to thrombosis. These categories include stasis, injuries or trauma to the endothelium, and blood hypercoagulability. Stasis refers to abnormal blood flow, which can be caused by various factors such as turbulence, varicose veins, and stasis. Injuries or trauma to the endothelium can be caused by hypertension or shear stress, which can damage veins or arteries. Blood hypercoagulability is associated with several conditions such as hyperviscosity, deficiency of antithrombin III, nephrotic syndrome, disseminated malignancy, late pregnancy, and smoking.

      It is important to note that current thrombosis or past history of thrombosis and malignancy are not included in the triad. Malignancy is a specific procoagulant state, so it is covered under hypercoagulability. Virchow’s triad and its three categories of thrombosis factors can help healthcare professionals identify and manage patients who are at risk of developing thrombosis. By addressing these factors, healthcare professionals can help prevent thrombosis and its associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      34.5
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain that worsens when lying down, but improves when sitting forward. The pain radiates to his left shoulder. He has a history of prostate cancer and has recently completed two cycles of radiotherapy. On examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his JVP is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The ECG shows low-voltage QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid, and echocardiographic guidance is the safest method. Ibuprofen is the initial treatment for acute pericarditis without haemodynamic compromise, but in severe cases like this, it will not help. A fluid challenge with 1 litre of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the pericardial fluid. GTN spray, morphine, clopidogrel, and aspirin are useful in managing an MI, but not tamponade. LMWH is important in managing a PE, but not tamponade, and may even worsen the condition if caused by haemopericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.6
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs when walking more than 200 meters for the past six months. During physical examination, her legs appear pale and cool without signs of swelling or redness. The palpation of dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses is not possible. The patient has a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 and has been smoking for 25 pack years. What is the most probable vascular abnormality responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Arteriosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Arteriosclerosis and Related Conditions

      Arteriosclerosis is a medical condition that refers to the hardening and loss of elasticity of medium or large arteries. Atherosclerosis, on the other hand, is a specific type of arteriosclerosis that occurs when fatty materials such as cholesterol accumulate in the artery walls, causing them to thicken. This chronic inflammatory response is caused by the accumulation of macrophages and white blood cells, and is often promoted by low-density lipoproteins. The formation of multiple plaques within the arteries characterizes atherosclerosis.

      Medial calcific sclerosis is another form of arteriosclerosis that occurs when calcium deposits form in the middle layer of walls of medium-sized vessels. This condition is often not clinically apparent unless it is severe, and it is more common in people over 50 years old and in diabetics. It can be seen as opaque vessels on radiographs.

      Lymphatic obstruction, on the other hand, is a blockage of the lymph vessels that drain fluid from tissues throughout the body. This condition may cause lymphoedema, and the most common reason for this is the removal or enlargement of the lymph nodes.

      It is important to understand these conditions and their differences to properly diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      34.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (9/10) 90%
Passmed