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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and difficulty breathing. During the...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and difficulty breathing. During the examination, you observe a pansystolic murmur that is most prominent at the apex and radiates to the axilla. The murmur is more pronounced during expiration.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Patients with mitral regurgitation can go for extended periods without experiencing any symptoms. They may have a normal exercise tolerance and show no signs of congestive cardiac failure. However, when cardiac failure does occur, patients often complain of breathlessness, especially during physical exertion. They may also experience fatigue, difficulty breathing while lying flat (orthopnoea), and sudden episodes of difficulty breathing at night (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea).

      In terms of clinical signs, mitral regurgitation can be identified through various indicators. These include a displaced and volume loaded apex beat, which can be felt during a physical examination. A palpable thrill may also be detected at the apex. Additionally, a pansystolic murmur, which is loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla, can be heard. This murmur is typically most pronounced when the patient holds their breath during expiration. Furthermore, a soft first heart sound and signs of left ventricular failure may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are part of the team managing a pediatric patient, your consultant asks...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of the team managing a pediatric patient, your consultant asks you what the patient's Mallampati score is. What criteria is utilized to assess the Mallampati score?

      Your Answer: The view of the vocal cords and epiglottis

      Correct Answer: The distance between the tongue base and the roof of the mouth

      Explanation:

      The Mallampati score is a measure that assesses the distance between the base of the tongue and the roof of the mouth. This score is used to classify the level of airway obstruction during certain medical procedures. Please refer to the notes below for the complete classification.

      Further Reading:

      A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.

      Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.

      If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.

      Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis (AS).

      What is the MOST frequently occurring eye complication associated with AS?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Uveitis is the most prevalent eye complication that arises in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Approximately one out of every three patients with AS will experience uveitis at some stage. The symptoms of uveitis include a red and painful eye, along with photophobia and blurred vision. Additionally, patients may notice the presence of floaters. The primary treatment for uveitis involves the use of corticosteroids, and it is crucial for patients to seek immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A toddler is brought in with a non-blanching rash and a high fever....

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought in with a non-blanching rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of meningococcal disease.
      Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following features is MOST indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Convulsive status epilepticus

      Correct Answer: Capillary refill time >3 seconds or longer

      Explanation:

      NICE has emphasized that certain symptoms and signs can indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of a fever. In the case of meningococcal disease, the presence of a rash that does not fade when pressed upon (non-blanching rash) is particularly suggestive, especially if the child appears unwell, the lesions are larger than 2 mm in diameter (purpura), the capillary refill time is 3 seconds or longer, or there is neck stiffness. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      95.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back pain. He is currently experiencing discomfort and wants to know which pain medication would be most effective. You give him a self-help guide and discuss his treatment choices.
      According to the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended initial pharmacological treatment for lower back pain? Choose ONE option.

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      143.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department as the parents are...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department as the parents are worried about the child's cough and noisy breathing. You diagnose croup.

      What is the probable causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parainfluenza viruses

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is primarily caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while whooping cough is caused by pertussis.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are the doctor in charge of the Emergency Department overnight, when one...

    Incorrect

    • You are the doctor in charge of the Emergency Department overnight, when one of the foundation year 2 doctors asks you for some advice about managing a wound. A 25-year-old female has arrived with a knife wound to the upper arm but has been hesitant to reveal how she got injured. She has repeatedly expressed her desire to avoid involving the authorities.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform the patient that you have a statutory legal responsibility to inform the police and do not require her consent to do this.

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality plays a crucial role in the doctor-patient relationship and is vital for maintaining trust in the medical profession. However, there are certain situations, such as cases involving gun and knife crimes that pose a potential risk to the public, where it may be necessary to breach this confidentiality and provide information to the police, even if the patient refuses.

      It is important to make every effort to obtain the patient’s consent, while also explaining your legal obligation to report such incidents. When sharing information with the police, it is essential to disclose only the minimum amount of information required. Typically, this would include the patient’s basic details and the fact that they have sought medical attention for a non-self-inflicted deliberate knife wound.

      In some cases, where it is evident that the injury was accidental or a result of deliberate self-harm due to a mental health condition, there may be no need to involve the police. However, regardless of the circumstances, the necessary medical treatment should still be provided for the wound, as long as the patient gives their consent.

      For more information on this topic, you can refer to the GMC Guidance on Reporting Gunshot and Knife Wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      0
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  • Question 8 - Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca...

    Incorrect

    • Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca compartment blocks (FICB) for pediatric patients with a fractured femoral neck.
      Which of the following two landmarks should be utilized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      The fascia iliaca compartment is a space within the body that has specific boundaries. It is located at the front of the hip and is surrounded by various muscles and structures. The anterior limit of this compartment is formed by the posterior surface of the fascia iliaca, which covers the iliacus muscle. Additionally, the medial reflection of this fascia covers every surface of the psoas major muscle. On the posterior side, the limit is formed by the anterior surface of the iliacus muscle and the psoas major muscle. The medial boundary is the vertebral column, while the cranially lateral boundary is the inner lip of the iliac crest. This compartment is also continuous with the space between the quadratus lumborum muscle and its fascia in a cranio-medial direction.

      The fascia iliaca compartment is important because it allows for the deposition of local anesthetic in sufficient volumes. This can be achieved through a straightforward injection, which targets the femoral and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves. These nerves supply sensation to the medial, anterior, and lateral thigh. Occasionally, the obturator nerve is also blocked, although this can vary from person to person.

      To perform a fascia iliaca compartment block (FICB), specific landmarks need to be identified. An imaginary line is drawn between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic tubercle. This line is then divided into thirds. The injection entry point is marked 1 cm caudal (inferior) from the junction of the lateral and middle third.

      However, there are certain contraindications to performing a FICB. These include patient refusal, anticoagulation or bleeding disorders, allergy to local anesthetics, previous femoral bypass surgery, and infection or inflammation over the injection site.

      As with any medical procedure, there are potential complications associated with a FICB. These can include intravascular injection, local anesthetic toxicity, allergy to the local anesthetic, temporary or permanent nerve damage, infection, and block failure. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and take appropriate precautions when performing a FICB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You attend the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles...

    Incorrect

    • You attend the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles in the Emergency Department. Your consultant assesses the neonate five minutes after delivery and informs you that:
      The extremities are blue, but the body is pink
      The heart rate is 110 per minute
      The baby cries with stimulation
      There is some flexion of the limbs
      The baby has a strong, robust cry
      When should the next Apgar assessment be made?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 5 minutes after delivery

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:

      Appearance
      Pulse rate
      Grimace
      Activity
      Respiratory effort

      The Apgar score criteria are as follows:

      Score of 0:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
      Pulse rate: Absent
      Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
      Activity: None
      Respiratory effort: Absent

      Score of 1:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
      Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
      Activity: Some flexion
      Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gasping

      Score of 2:
      Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
      Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
      Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
      Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue and left-sided deficits in motor eye activity. He has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and a previous ischemic stroke. A CT head scan is undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a left-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weber’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Occlusion of the branches of the basilar artery that supply the midbrain leads to the development of Weber’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by contralateral hemiplegia, which affects the limbs, face, and tongue due to damage to the descending motor tracts within the crus cerebri. Additionally, there are ipsilateral deficits in eye motor activity caused by damage to cranial nerve III.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (0/1) 0%
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