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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain. Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?
Your Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency
Explanation:Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC. Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?
Your Answer: T10
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (mean)
Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Correct
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The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is?
Your Answer: Standard bicarbonate
Explanation:Automated blood gas analysers are commonly used to analyse blood gas samples, and they measure specific components of the arterial blood gas sample, whether directly or indirectly.
The following are the components of arterial blood gas:
pH = measured (directly determined) acid-base balance of the blood
PaO2 = measured partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
PaCO2 = measured partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
HCO3 = calculated (indirectly determined) concentration of bicarbonate in arterial blood
Base excess/deficit = calculated relative excess or deficit of base in arterial blood
SaO2 = calculated arterial oxygen saturation unless a co-oximetry is obtained, in which case it is measured
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from proximal to distal?
Your Answer: Bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs
Correct Answer: Bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs
Explanation:The tracheobronchial tree is subdivided into the conducting and the respiratory zones.
The zones from proximal to distal are:
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Terminal bronchioles
Respiratory bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
Alveolar sacsfrom the trachea to terminal bronchioles are the conducting zone while the respiratory zone is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveola sacs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding thermocouple, which of the following best describes its properties?
Your Answer: Resistance of the measuring junction varies exponentially with temperature
Correct Answer: The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature
Explanation:Thermocouples are based on the Seebeck effect, i.e. a small thermoelectric current is generated when two different metal wires are put into contact at both ends with their junctions having a different temperature. If one junction is open, a contact electromotive force is generated. The current, or the electromotive force, is to a first approximation proportional to the temperature difference ΔT between the two junctions. A better approximation is obtained with a MacLaurin expansion with the second power of ΔT.
Two wires bonded together with different coefficients of expansion can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.
The resistance at the measuring junction is irrelevant.
The resistance of a thermistor varies exponentially with temperature, while the resistance of a measuring junction varies linearly with temperature. Incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge is this unknown resistance, which is used to indirectly measure temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?
Your Answer: Reduced circulating volume
Correct Answer: Reduced aortic compliance
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man was referred for investigation of malignant hyperthermia following general anaesthesia for a micro laryngoscopy and biopsy for a suspected laryngeal tumour. The patient was found to be a heavy smoker and the only presenting symptom is a hoarse voice. A sample of muscle (vastus lateralis) needs to be taken to establish a diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia in this patient. Which one of the following is the best anaesthetic technique for muscle biopsy in this patient?
Your Answer: Local anaesthetic infiltration
Correct Answer: Spinal anaesthesia
Explanation:According to European Group protocol for the investigation of MH susceptibility, muscle biopsy should be performed on quadriceps muscle (either vastus medialis or vastus lateralis), using regional anaesthesia (avoiding local anaesthetic infiltration) or general anaesthetic techniques. Local anaesthetic solution within muscle fibres may affect in vitro contraction testing.
Desflurane is a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia so is avoided in MH susceptible patients. This includes all volatile inhalational agents and suxamethonium.
General anaesthetic with the volatile free anaesthetic machine may be considered but spinal anaesthesia is a better choice due to the possibility of airway problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is?
Your Answer: FEV1/FVC ratio
Correct Answer: Forced expiratory flow (FEF25-75%)
Explanation:The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.
The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.
The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.
The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.
The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease. Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?
Your Answer: 5.30%
Correct Answer: 95.40%
Explanation:Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.
Properties of the Normal distribution
symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median
68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean
95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean
99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.SD = square root (variance)
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating ovarian cancer. The efficacy of this drug can be assessed by which phase of a clinical trial?
Your Answer: Phase IV
Correct Answer: Phase IIb
Explanation:Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (€˜definite dose-finding’ studies).
Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia. Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa. The most appropriate action that should follow is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe the patient for further change
Explanation:Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.
Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.
A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose the external carotid artery fully. He inserts a self-retaining retractor close to the origin of the external carotid artery. What structure lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery
Explanation:External carotid artery originates at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. It ascends and lies anterior to the internal carotid arteries and posterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle.
The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
Anterior surface:
1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
2. Lingual artery
3. Facial artery
Medial branch
4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
Posterior branches
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
Terminal branches
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The drug concentration in the syringe is 5 mg/mL. The drug's plasma clearance is 20 L/hour. Which of the following values, assuming that the infusion rate remains constant, best approximates the drug's plasma concentration at steady state?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mcg/mL
Explanation:When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.
Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.
ID = Cpss × CL
We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.
ID = Cpss × 20
Therefore,
Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml
Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots
Explanation:The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
– 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
– 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
– 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
– 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
– 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.
The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.
The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.
The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vital capacity
Explanation:Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).
It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.
During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
FEV1/FVC ratio
Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.
Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution
The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries. He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed. Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion
Explanation:With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.
Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.
2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).
Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.
The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery. Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Highly ionised
Explanation:Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)
The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:
Protein binding
Degree of ionisation
Placental blood flow
Maternal and foetal blood pH
Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
Thickness of placental membrane
Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement. What kind of bias is in this experiment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead time bias
Explanation:Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.
Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.
Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.
Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a patient. At a normal physiological pH, the approximate ratio of ionised to unionised forms of this drug in the plasma is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1000:01:00
Explanation:The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of an ACID, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised]).Hence, if the pKa ˆ’ pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 4.3 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 ˆ’ 4.3 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log 3.1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, 1 = 10, 2 =100, 3 = 1000, and 4 = 10,000.
If you want to find the antilogarithm of 3.1, for a number between 3 and 4, the antilogarithm will return a value between 1000 and 10,000. The ratio is 1:1 if pKa = pH, that is, pH pKa = log 0. (50 percent ionised and unionised).
According to the above value, there is only one unionised molecule for every approximately 1000 (1259) ionised molecules of this drug in plasma, implying that this drug is largely ionised in plasma (99.99 percent ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the operating room. During general anaesthesia, ventilation is achieved using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1L/min, with and air/oxygen and sevoflurane combination. The capnograph trace is normal. Changes to the end tidal and baseline CO2 measurements at 10 and 20 mins respectively are seen on the capnograph below: (10 minutes and 20 minutes). End-tidal CO2 4.9 kPa, 8.4 kPa. Baseline end-tidal CO2 0.2 kPa, 2.4 kPa. The other vitals were as follows: Pulse 100-105 beats per minute, Systolic blood pressure 120-133 mmHg, O2 saturation 99%. The next most important immediate step is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:This scenario describes rebreathing management.
Changes is exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit deadspace is the most likely explanation for the capnograph.
It is important that the soda lime canister is inspected for a change in colour of the granules. Initially fresh gas flow should be increased and then if necessary, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies include changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister after the fresh gas flow is increased.
Any other causes of increased equipment deadspace should be excluded.
Intraoperative hypercarbia can be caused by:
1. Hypoventilation – Breathing spontaneously; drugs which include anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual neuromuscular blockade, pre-existing respiratory or neuromuscular disease and cerebrovascular accident.
2. Controlled ventilation- circuit leaks, disconnection, miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
3. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits, increased breathing system deadspace.
4. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
5. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 absorption from the pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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During positive pressure ventilation using positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), there is usually an associated reduction in cardiac output Which of the following is responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced venous return to the heart
Explanation:The option that is most responsible is the progressive decrease in venous return of blood to the right atrium. The heart rate does not usually change with PEEP so the fall in cardiac output is due to a reduction in left ventricular (LV) stroke volume (SV).
Note that the interventricular septum does shift toward the left and there is an increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) from overdistention of alveolar air sacs that contribute to the reduction in cardiac output. Any increase in PVR will be associated with reduced pulmonary vascular capacitance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed. Which set of results is most likely her own? Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2. A: 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), B: 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), C: 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), D: 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa).
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.
Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The following statements concern the sensory innervation of the nasal passage:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: the infraorbital branch of the maxillary nerve supplies the vestibule
Explanation:The walls of the anterior nasal passage are supplied by the anterior ethmoidal branch of the nasociliary nerve, and the floor is innervated by the superior dental nerve (not the sphenopalatine nerves).
The walls and floor of the posterior nasal passage are innervated by the long and short sphenopalatine nerves and the great palatine nerve (not the superior dental nerves and the nasociliary nerve).
The vestibule is innervated by small branches of the infraorbital branch of the maxillary nerve.
The nasopharynx is innervated by the sensory branches of the trigeminal nerve (not the great palatine nerve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.
The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Predominantly work through effects on β-adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (α1, α2, β1, β2, β3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to aspirin after a myocardial infraction. The recorded results give us the percentage of patients that reported myocardial infraction within a three month period. The percentage was 4% and 3% for aspirin and the combination of drugs respectively. How many further patients needed to be treated in order for one patient to avoid any more heart attacks during 3 months?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (0.04-0.03)
ARR= 0.01
NNT= 1/0.01
NNT=100
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are asked about the relative risk associated with a drug. You happened to have read a report in which the same drug was compared with a placebo and your initial thoughts after reading the study were that the drug will have significant side effects. What do you expect the value of relative risk to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greater than 1
Explanation:Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group.
A relative risk of 1 suggests that there is no discernible difference in the outcome whether or not it has been exposed.
A relative risk of less than 1 indicates that probability of occurrence of an event is less if there is exposure.
A relative risk of greater than 1 highlights that an event is most likely to occur if it was provided exposure. Since you believe that exposure (the new drug) would have side effects, the value should be greater than 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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