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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination reveals a tender prostate. A urine dipstick test shows white blood cells.
      What is the most appropriate first-line management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Prostatitis: Antibiotics and Pain Relief

      Acute prostatitis is a bacterial infection of the prostate gland that can cause pain, fever, and difficulty urinating. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends starting antibiotics immediately while waiting for urine culture results. Quinolones like ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin are preferred over trimethoprim because they are effective against a wider range of urinary pathogens. Treatment for at least four weeks is recommended to prevent chronic prostatitis. In severe cases, hospital admission or referral may be necessary. Pain relief with paracetamol and/or ibuprofen may also be necessary. Some authorities recommend α-blocker therapy like tamsulosin to improve outflow obstruction, but it is not first-line management. If quinolones cannot be taken, trimethoprim may be used as an off-label option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the correct information about oseltamivir? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about oseltamivir?

      Your Answer: It is effective if administered within 7 days of symptoms of flu

      Correct Answer: It is administered via an inhaler

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) as an Antiviral for influenza Treatment

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme neuraminidase, which slows down viral replication instead of directly killing the virus particle. This mechanism is crucial in allowing the body’s immune system to combat the virus effectively. Unlike zanamivir (Relenza), which is inhaled, oseltamivir is administered orally. However, the drug must be given as early as possible after the development of flu symptoms, preferably within 48 hours, as viral replication is rapid.

      In summary, oseltamivir is an effective treatment for influenza, but it must be administered within 48 hours of symptom onset to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You see a 14-month-old boy in your clinic. He was seen by your...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 14-month-old boy in your clinic. He was seen by your colleague four days ago for fever, rhinitis and a cough. At that point, it was felt to be a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Today, his mother reports that his temperature has increased to 39.5c and the cough worsened. A new erythematous rash has appeared on his chest. On examination, you note some pale lesions on his oral mucosa.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Scarlet fever

      Explanation:

      Measles Presentation and Importance of Vaccination History

      Measles typically begins with a prodromal phase that includes symptoms such as conjunctivitis, rhinitis, cough, and fever. By day four to five, an erythematous maculopapular rash appears, starting on the head and spreading to the trunk and limbs. The rash can become confluent as it progresses. Koplik spots, which are pathognomonic for measles, may appear before the rash.

      It is crucial to obtain a vaccination history and check the oral mucosa when evaluating a patient with suspected measles. Additionally, good safety-netting is essential to ensure appropriate follow-up and management. By being aware of the typical presentation of measles and the importance of vaccination, healthcare providers can help prevent the spread of this highly contagious disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea?

      Your Answer: Impotence

      Correct Answer: Macrognathia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Apart from this, there are other common symptoms that may be experienced by individuals with this condition. These include apparent personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less common symptom. Sleep apnoea may also be associated with other medical conditions such as acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m²...

    Correct

    • John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m² who has presented with a recurrence of boils in his axilla. He has had this numerous times before requiring antibiotics and has even had an incision and drainage on one occasion. He also described one episode of such boils on his vulva a few years ago. On this occasion, you notice large red lumps in his right axilla. There is some scarring of the skin and you also notice a little hole with pus discharging out of it.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      The development of sinus tracts and fistulas can be a possible complication of hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true?

      Your Answer: It is 3 times more common in women

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria

      Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a duration of up to 72 hours. During an attack, patients often seek a quiet, dark room to alleviate their symptoms. Some patients may experience an aura before the onset of a migraine attack, which is a visual disturbance that can last up to an hour.

      Migraine is more common in women, with a prevalence of 18% compared to 6% in men. There are several triggers that can precipitate a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. The diagnosis of migraine is based on specific criteria established by the International Headache Society, which includes the frequency and duration of attacks, the location and quality of pain, and the presence of associated symptoms.

      There are also variants of migraine, such as hemiplegic migraine, which is characterized by motor weakness as a manifestation of aura. This type of migraine is rare, affecting only around 1 in 1,000 migraine patients, and is more common in adolescent females.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and diagnostic criteria of migraine can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had...

    Incorrect

    • An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had significant contact with a confirmed case of measles yesterday. Her husband believes he had measles when he was younger, but their three children, aged 6 months, 5 years, and 11 years, have not received the MMR vaccine. You are contemplating administering post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine.

      What is the minimum age requirement for the MMR vaccine to be effective as post-exposure prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: 9 months

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccine Administration Guidelines

      The MMR vaccine can be administered at any age, but it is recommended to consult with your local Health Protection Team if the child is under 1 year of age. In case of exposure to measles, mumps, or rubella, most individuals can receive post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine within three days, provided that the vaccine is not contraindicated. However, the response to MMR vaccine in infants under 6 months of age is not optimal, and it is not recommended as post-exposure prophylaxis in this age group.

      For children under 6 months of age, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals, human normal immunoglobulin should be considered if the MMR vaccine cannot be given. It is important to follow the recommended guidelines for MMR vaccine administration to ensure the best protection against these diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin, chest and abdomen. She reports moderate menstrual irregularity and long periods of amenorrhoea. Upon examination, her body mass index is 40 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant ovarian tumour

      Correct Answer: Familial hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and its Common Causes

      Hirsutism is a condition characterized by excessive hair growth in women, often in areas where hair is typically absent or minimal. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which accounts for 95% of cases. This condition is often accompanied by obesity and amenorrhea, which are indicative of insulin resistance.

      Biochemically, patients with PCOS have a reversed luteinising hormone:follicle-stimulating hormone (LH:FSH) ratio and elevated androstenedione with a low sex-hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). It is important to rule out other potential causes of hirsutism, such as androgen-producing tumors of the adrenal gland or ovary, Cushing’s syndrome, or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      In summary, hirsutism is a common condition in women, with PCOS being the most common cause. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are crucial to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe pruritus. During examination, he has excoriations on his trunk and limbs. There is some scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atopic eczema

      Correct Answer: Scabies infestation

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Diseases: Differential Diagnosis for Pruritus and Rash

      When a patient presents with pruritus and a rash, it is important for doctors to consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases. One common cause of such symptoms is scabies infestation, which can be identified by a scaly rash on the hands with burrows and scaling in the web spaces. However, the rash in scabies is nonspecific and can be mistaken for eczema, so doctors must maintain a high index of suspicion and consider scabies as a diagnosis until proven otherwise.

      Other skin conditions and diseases that may cause pruritus and rash include diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. Diabetes is associated with several skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum and acanthosis nigricans, but typically doesn’t present with pruritus and rash. Atopic eczema can lead to pruritus and rash, but patients with this condition usually have a long history of eczematous lesions elsewhere on their body. Chronic renal failure may cause pruritus due to uraemia, but rarely results in a skin rash. Iron deficiency anaemia may cause itching and pruritus, but doesn’t typically cause a skin rash.

      In summary, when a patient presents with pruritus and rash, doctors must consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases, including scabies infestation, diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately identify the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients

      NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The nurse at your clinic is faced with a situation where a mother...

    Correct

    • The nurse at your clinic is faced with a situation where a mother has brought in her 14-week-old son for his vaccinations. The vaccinations include one injection against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio and haemophilus influenza type b, one injection against meningococcal b and an oral application for rotavirus. The mother has given her consent for the immunisations, but the nurse is unsure about the appropriate way to obtain consent. What would be a suitable method of obtaining consent in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Verbal consent from the mother

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book, a mother has parental responsibility for her children and written consent is not required for immunizations. Both parents’ consent is not necessary, but consent should be obtained before each immunization is administered.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.

    He experiences four attacks within six months,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.

      He experiences four attacks within six months, prompting you to prescribe allopurinol to reduce his serum urate level.

      What target level of serum urate would you aim for?

      Your Answer: <4 µmol/L

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Recommended Levels of Homocysteine

      Homocysteine is a naturally occurring amino acid in the body that can be harmful in high levels. The upper limit of normal for homocysteine was previously set at 0.42 µmol/L, with reducing levels below that considered acceptable. However, recent guidelines have recommended even lower levels, with most sources suggesting levels below 0.36 µmol/L and the latest guidelines aiming for 0.30 µmol/L. It is important to monitor homocysteine levels and take steps to reduce them if they are too high, as elevated levels have been linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and other health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication. You want to choose a drug that is least likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Your clinic has recently implemented an electronic clinical decision support tool, so you decide to utilize it to determine the best medication option. You enter the query Antipsychotic/least extrapyramidal side effects into the tool, and it recommends either olanzapine or risperidone. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Ask yourself what you would want in this circumstance

      Correct Answer: Ask another Registrar what they think

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Note on Clinical Decision Support Tools

      When it comes to clinical decision making, it’s important to exercise caution and not rely solely on clinical decision support tools. While tools like NIHR can be helpful, they should not be followed blindly. It’s always best to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

      For instance, while olanzapine or risperidone may be the best options for treating schizophrenia, there may be guidelines in place that recommend prescribing antipsychotics in secondary care. Therefore, it’s important to consider all relevant factors before making a decision.

      In summary, clinical decision support tools can be useful, but they should not be the sole basis for decision making. It’s important to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 83-year-old man has come in after doing some research on the internet....

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man has come in after doing some research on the internet. He was seen by an ophthalmologist 2 weeks ago and has been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. The ophthalmologist has suggested that there are no active treatments for this condition and has referred him for visual rehabilitation. He has read about the use of beta-carotene to slow progression of his condition.

      Which of the following options would make it inadvisable for him to take beta-carotene supplements?

      Your Answer: Past history of alcohol consumption

      Correct Answer: Past history of smoking

      Explanation:

      Supplements and Their Risks and Benefits

      Previously recommended supplements contained beta-carotene, but it is no longer recommended for smokers and ex-smokers due to the possible increase in lung cancer risk. However, high-dose vitamin and mineral supplements may slow the progression of age-related macular degeneration. This includes vitamin C, vitamin E, beta-carotene (vitamin A), zinc oxide, and cupric oxide. Those who may benefit are those with advanced age-related macular degeneration or visual loss in one year and people with intermediate age-related macular degeneration who have extensive drusen.

      It is important to note that high doses of beta-carotene can cause harmless yellowing of the skin, but it also increases the risk of urinary tract infections and stones and urinary retention. Beta-carotene has been associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in people who smoke or who have been exposed to asbestos. One study of 29,000 male smokers found an 18% increase in lung cancer in the group receiving 20 mg of beta-carotene a day for 5 to 8 years. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the risks and benefits of supplements before taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2...

    Incorrect

    • What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer: < 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have...

    Incorrect

    • At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine, she is found to have hyponatraemia. What medication is the probable culprit for her condition?

      Your Answer: Irbesartan

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia is often associated with the use of SSRIs.

      The production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can be increased by many drugs, leading to hyponatraemia. Commonly implicated drugs include thiazide diuretics, SSRIs, haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine.

      SSRIs can cause the release of ADH, resulting in hyponatraemia. This side effect typically occurs within the first few weeks of treatment and resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics in conjunction with SSRIs.

      Side-Effects of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.

      When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A three-month-old boy presents to the clinic with a scrotal mass that his...

    Incorrect

    • A three-month-old boy presents to the clinic with a scrotal mass that his mother has noticed. Upon examination, you observe a smooth, soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the lump is contained within the scrotum. You are able to palpate above the mass, and transillumination testing is positive. What is the most suitable course of action at this stage?

      Your Answer: Refer for ultrasound to confirm diagnosis

      Correct Answer: Anti-inflammatory treatment

      Explanation:

      Hydrocoele in Infants

      A hydrocoele is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid around the testicle within the tunica vaginalis. This condition is common in infants and is usually asymptomatic. The swelling is smooth and fluctuant, and the testis cannot be felt separately. Transillumination is used to confirm the diagnosis.

      In most cases, hydrocoeles resolve spontaneously within the first year of life as the processus vaginalis gradually becomes obliterated. Therefore, watchful waiting is usually recommended, and the hydrocoele can be reviewed after the first year of life. However, if the hydrocoele persists, it can be assumed that the processus vaginalis will not close spontaneously, and surgical referral is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and osteoarthritis. Her current medications include aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 5 mg OD, bisoprolol 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg OD, paracetamol 1g QDS, and topical ketoprofen gel PRN. She reports that despite using paracetamol and topical NSAID, she still experiences pain in her hands and knees due to osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe an oral 'traditional' NSAID (for example, ibuprofen)

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral paracetamol and codeine combination (for example, co-codamol)

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Osteoarthritis

      Here we have a patient with knee and hand osteoarthritis who is currently taking oral paracetamol and a topical anti-inflammatory but still experiences symptoms. The next step in treatment options would be an oral NSAID, COX-2 inhibitor, or opioid analgesic. However, since the patient has a cardiac history and is already taking aspirin, an opioid analgesic would be the safest option. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of NSAID use, particularly their potential gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity.

      To add an opioid analgesic, oral codeine can be prescribed and combined with paracetamol in a co-codamol. It is recommended to initiate patients on separate products, starting at a low dose and titrating as needed. This allows for determining what works best for the patient and avoiding unnecessary medication with increased side-effect risk. Dose reduction of paracetamol is also gaining momentum in patients aged 70 or over, which should be considered when using co-products.

      In summary, the pharmacological management of osteoarthritis should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s medical history and potential risks and benefits of different treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 32 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Flying while pregnant with twins

      When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.

      Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.

      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and is exhibiting signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.

      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Capgras syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusion of misidentification where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that causes patients with significant vision loss to experience vivid visual hallucinations. These hallucinations can be simple or complex, but patients are aware that they are not real and do not experience other types of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      7.3
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  • Question 21 - You see a 65-year-old man who is currently being treated for pulmonary tuberculosis.
    He...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man who is currently being treated for pulmonary tuberculosis.
      He has attended because he has developed a problem with his vision following an episode of renal impairment during an acute illness. Yesterday his right eye became painful and the vision in that eye became blurred.
      Which of his antituberculous medicines is the most likely cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Streptomycin

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Anti-Tuberculous Treatment

      It is crucial to have a basic understanding of the side effects of anti-tuberculous treatment as patients may present to primary care with medication-related problems. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides an excellent summary of the drugs used to treat TB and their side effects.

      One of the drugs used to treat TB, Ethambutol, is known to cause visual problems such as loss of visual acuity, colour blindness, and restriction of visual fields. These side effects are more common when high doses are used or if there is renal impairment. Ocular toxicity is also more common when excessive dosage is used or if the patient’s renal function is impaired.

      Patients should be advised to stop their treatment immediately if they develop visual problems and seek further advice promptly. Early discontinuation of the drug usually results in the recovery of eyesight. Before initiating treatment with Ethambutol, visual acuity should be tested by Snellen chart.

      The other options for TB treatment also have their own set of side effects. Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, and hepatitis. Pyrazinamide can lead to hepatitis and gout. Rifampicin can cause hepatitis, orange discolouration of urine and tears, and interact with contraceptive pills. Streptomycin can cause ototoxicity and renal tubular damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to see you as she is worried that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to see you as she is worried that she may be at risk of ovarian cancer.

      Her 52-year-old maternal cousin has just been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Her mother also recently passed away with ovarian cancer, which she contracted aged 77. Her paternal uncle died of lung cancer in his 60s.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer: Advise on ovarian cancer symptoms and recommend increased self examination

      Correct Answer: Refer to specialist genetics clinic

      Explanation:

      Key Points for Referring Women for Genetic Counselling

      When it comes to referring women for genetic counselling, there are a few key points to keep in mind. While you don’t need to know all the details, it’s important to know when to refer. One crucial learning point is that women should be referred if they have two relatives with ovarian cancer on the same side of the family, regardless of age.

      If a woman’s mother had breast cancer instead of ovarian cancer, the age of diagnosis would be a factor in determining whether she should be referred. Guidelines suggest that if the mother was diagnosed with breast cancer before the age of 50, the daughter should be referred to a specialist genetics clinic.

      Other guidelines from NICE and SIGN provide additional criteria for referral, such as a family history of breast or colon cancer. However, annual examinations for breast or ovarian cancer are not recommended, and CA125 testing is not currently suggested for asymptomatic patients.

      It’s important to provide women with advice on ovarian cancer symptoms so they can seek medical attention early if needed. But ultimately, a specialist genetics service assessment is the best way to determine if genetic counselling is necessary. By keeping these key points in mind, healthcare providers can ensure that women receive the appropriate care and support for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is being evaluated. What type of antithrombotic treatment is he expected to be receiving?

      Your Answer: Warfarin: INR 3.0-4.0

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      For patients with prosthetic heart valves, antithrombotic therapy varies depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically require aspirin, while mechanical valves require a combination of warfarin and aspirin.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health after struggling to adjust to the birth of her first child a week ago. She reports feeling disorganised, experiencing auditory hallucinations, and having a low mood. She also mentions a previous miscarriage two years ago that was a difficult time for her. Is there an increased risk for this patient to develop this mental health condition again in a future pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 2.90%

      Correct Answer: 25-50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having to strain to pass hard stools and is only going once a week. On reviewing the history, the child was born at full term with no perinatal complications. The baby passed meconium within 24 hours of birth and has had no previous issues with constipation. Examination shows a normal abdomen, perianal area, legs, and spine with no focal neurological signs. What is the best initial management approach?

      Your Answer: Start laxative treatment with a macrogol laxative (e.g. polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes)

      Explanation:

      Management of Constipation in a 12-Month-Old Child

      This 12-month-old child has presented with constipation. Referral for specialist assessment or further investigation is not necessary at this stage, as there are no red flags in the history or examination. Treatment should be initiated in primary care.

      A rectal examination is not necessary for the primary care assessment. A thorough history and examination, as discussed in the stem, is sufficient to make an accurate diagnosis and identify the presence of any impaction.

      The first-line treatment for constipation is laxative treatment. A good first-line agent is macrogol polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes (Movicol® Paediatric Plain). If there is a lack of effect, a stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the treatment. In addition to laxative use, the patient and carers should be advised on lifestyle factors such as diet, including adequate fluid intake.

      Behavioural interventions, such as scheduled toileting, encouragement, and reward systems, may be appropriate depending on the age of the patient. Advice on exercise in older children may also be helpful. However, dietary interventions should not be used alone as a first-line treatment. Early use of a laxative is indicated and is the most appropriate option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      7.3
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs of end-organ damage. As a first step, he is recommended to make lifestyle changes instead of taking medication.

      What are the most suitable lifestyle modifications to suggest?

      Your Answer: Avoid meat consumption

      Correct Answer: A diet containing less than 6g of salt per day

      Explanation:

      For patients with hypertension, it is recommended to follow a low salt diet and aim for less than 6g/day, ideally 3g/day. Consuming a diet high in processed red meats may increase cardiovascular risk and blood pressure, although this is a topic of ongoing research and public opinion varies. While tea may contain a similar amount of caffeine as coffee, it is unlikely to reduce overall caffeine intake. The current exercise recommendation for hypertension is 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 5 days a week. It is recommended to limit alcohol intake in hypertension, and consuming 2 glasses of red wine, 5 days a week would exceed the recommended limits.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      8.1
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of headaches. These are...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of headaches. These are worse in the morning and have been associated with some nausea. Until recently, this was her only problem; however, now she has had episodes of transient blurred vision, particularly on stooping. Her body mass index (BMI) is 32.5 kg/m2. Examination of her fundi reveals papilloedema.
      What is the most appropriate management in this situation?

      Your Answer: Weight reduction management

      Correct Answer: Urgent medical admission

      Explanation:

      Urgent Management of Papilloedema: Importance of Diagnosis and Treatment

      Papilloedema, characterized by raised swollen optic discs, is often associated with raised intracranial pressure and can have multiple causes, including space-occupying lesions, meningitis, intracerebral haemorrhage, venous sinus thrombosis, and benign intracranial hypertension. While a young and obese patient may present with typical symptoms of benign intracranial hypertension, it is crucial to rule out other potential causes through immediate imaging.

      Weight management may be a part of the treatment plan for benign intracranial hypertension, but it is essential to confirm the diagnosis and exclude life-threatening conditions before initiating treatment. Steroids like prednisolone may be used to treat benign intracranial pressure or cerebral oedema associated with a space-occupying lesion, but the cause of raised intracranial pressure must be identified before starting treatment.

      While a neurologist may be appropriate to manage the condition once imaging has been performed and the cause of raised intracranial pressure is known, routine referral to neurology or ophthalmology is not recommended as it may delay diagnosis and treatment, potentially impacting the patient’s prognosis. Urgent management and diagnosis are crucial in cases of papilloedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      6.1
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  • Question 28 - Sarah, a 63-year-old woman, is seen accompanied by her daughter. Her daughter explains...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 63-year-old woman, is seen accompanied by her daughter. Her daughter explains that Sarah lives alone and had problems getting to the clinic without assistance.

      Whilst out running errands together earlier today Sarah briefly passed out with what seems to be a fainting episode. She recovered quickly but her daughter is concerned as Sarah seems to be quite breathless on walking on the flat and has to keep stopping every 50 metres. Her face has also become rather puffy. Sarah has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and smokes 5 cigarettes per day.

      On examination you notice prominent veins over the upper chest and her face is mildly oedematous. There is a harsh fixed wheeze in the right upper lung.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital as a medical emergency

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of steroids and review in one day

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Cava Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Cava Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external venous compression due to a tumour, enlarged lymph nodes, or other enlarged mediastinal structures. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Impaired venous return can cause symptoms of dizziness and even result in syncopal attacks. Headache due to pressure effect is also seen.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. The presence of any stridor or laryngeal oedema makes SVCO a medical emergency. Treatment typically involves steroids and radiotherapy, with chemotherapy and stent insertion being indicated in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the receptionists for an appointment to discuss prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      He was generally well but had suffered a myocardial infarction six months ago whilst on business in South Africa. He was diagnosed with diabetes three years ago and is on diet control alone.

      He had an eight year history of hypertension with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. He was obese with a BMI of 34 kg/m2.

      Investigations reveal:

      Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L (<5.2)

      Which would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Increase aspirin from 75 mg to 300 mg daily

      Correct Answer: Add a statin (HMG coA reductase inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      Secondary Prevention Scenario: Managing a Type 2 Diabetic with Cardiovascular Disease

      Firstly, it is important to recognize that this scenario involves secondary prevention. Evidence from trials such as the MRC/BHF Heart Protection Study has shown the benefits of lowering cholesterol in Type 2 diabetics with cardiovascular disease, regardless of their initial total cholesterol levels. Similarly, studies like CARE have demonstrated the advantages of maintaining cholesterol levels below 6 mmol/L in secondary prevention.

      As this patient is likely to be hypertensive, it would be appropriate to initiate antihypertensive therapy if their blood pressure remains elevated. The decision regarding insulin therapy would depend on their HbA1c levels, with metformin being the initial treatment of choice to improve insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that there is no significant benefit from using 300 mg over 75 mg of aspirin in these patients, and the higher dose may lead to more side effects. Additionally, there is no evidence to support improved life expectancy with Xenical.

      In summary, managing a Type 2 diabetic with cardiovascular disease in a secondary prevention scenario involves lowering cholesterol levels, initiating antihypertensive therapy if necessary, and considering insulin therapy based on HbA1c levels. It is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of medications such as aspirin and Xenical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      7.3
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  • Question 30 - Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy?

      Your Answer: 30-40%

      Correct Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/2) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/4) 25%
Respiratory Health (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (0/3) 0%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/2) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/3) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/2) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
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