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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated episodes of abdominal pain and the passage of dark coloured urine every morning. He also reports increasing fatigue over the past several months. On examination, there are raised, painful red nodules over the skin of the back. Laboratory workup shows haemolytic anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following disorders is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria is an acquired genetic disorder that causes a decrease in red blood cells due to a membrane defect that allows increased complement binding to RBCs, causing haemolysis. Patients complain of dark-coloured urine first in the morning due to haemoglobinuria secondary to lysis of red blood cells overnight. Thrombosis occurs, which affects hepatic, abdominal, cerebral and subdermal veins. Thrombosis of hepatic veins can lead to Budd-Chiari syndrome, thrombosis of subdermal veins can lead to painful nodules on the skin, and thrombosis of cerebral vessels can lead to stroke. The presence of dark urine in the morning only and at no other time differentiates this condition from other conditions.Multiple myeloma would present with bone pain, signs of radiculopathy if there were nerve root compression and a history of repeated infections. Patients with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma would complain of enlarged lymph nodes, fatigue, fever, weight loss and a history of repeated infections. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia presents more commonly in children than in adults. The patient would complain of bone pain, and on examination, there would be hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      486.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of microcytic anaemia and of any anaemia worldwide is iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 18 year old male presents to the GP with painless asymmetrical cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 18 year old male presents to the GP with painless asymmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy. Histological examination of a biopsied lymph node demonstrates Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis:

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a malignant tumour of the lymphatic system that is characterised histologically by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (multinucleated giant cells). The annual incidence of Hodgkin’s lymphoma in the UK is approximately 3 per 100,000 per year. The peak incidence is in young adults aged 20-35, and there is a slight male predominance.The following are recognised risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma:Male genderAge 20-35Positive family historyEpstein-Barr virus infectionImmunosuppression including HIV infectionProlonged use of human growth hormoneMost patients present with an enlarged, but otherwise asymptomatic lymph node. The most commonly affected lymph nodes are in the supraclavicular and lower cervical areas. Other common clinical features include shortness of breath and chest discomfort secondary to mediastinal mass. Mediastinal masses are sometimes discovered as incidental findings on routine chest X-rays. Approximately 30% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma develop splenomegaly.‘B’ symptoms occur in approximately 25% of patients. The ‘B’ symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma are:Fever (>38ºC)Night sweatsWeight loss (>10% over 6 months)Pain after alcohol consumption is a pathognomonic sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is, however, not a ‘B’ symptom. It is rare though, only occurring in 2-3% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.The Ann Arbour clinical staging is as follows:Stage I: one involved lymph node groupStage II two involved lymph node groups on one side of the diaphragmStage III: lymph node groups involved on both sides of the diaphragmStage IV: Involvement of extra-nodal tissues, such as the liver or bone marrowDiagnosis is made by lymph node biopsy, which should be taken from a sufficiently large specimen or excisional biopsy, as opposed to a fine needle biopsy. The Reed-Sternberg cell is the most useful diagnostic feature. This is a giant cell with twin mirror-image nuclei and prominent ‘owl’s eye’ nucleoli.The Reed-Sternberg cell of Hodgkin’s LymphomaHistological typing depends upon the other cells within the diseased tissue. Nodular sclerosing is the most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Lymphocyte-depleted and lymphocyte-predominant are rare subtypes.The majority of cases can be successfully treated, and unlike many other malignancies even if the first-line treatment fails, a cure can often be achieved with second-line therapies. Stage 1 Hodgkin’s lymphoma is usually treated with radiotherapy alone, but more advanced stages require combination chemotherapy. In localised disease treated with irradiation, there is a 5-year survival rate of greater than 80%. In disseminated disease treated with chemotherapy, the 5-year survival falls to around 50%. Overall, a 5-year survival of >70% should be achieved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You examine a 78-year-old man who has been diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 78-year-old man who has been diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL).What is the MAIN contributory factor in this condition's immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer: Neutropenia

      Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinemia

      Explanation:

      Immunodeficiency is present in all patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), though it is often mild and not clinically significant. Infections are the leading cause of death in 25-50 percent of CLL patients, with respiratory tract, skin, and urinary tract infections being the most common.Hypogammaglobulinemia is the most common cause of immunodeficiency in CLL patients, accounting for about 85 percent of all cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than...

    Incorrect

    • A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than two weeks. He was born and raised in the Middle East. His mother claims he has been tired and has complained of various 'aches and pains.' On examination, you find splenomegaly and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. His legs and arms are covered in petechiae.In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      ALL is the most common leukaemia in children, with a peak incidence between the ages of 2 and 5.ALL has a wide range of clinical symptoms, but many children present with an acute illness that resembles coryza or a viral infection. ALL also has the following features:Weakness and sluggishness all overMuscle, joint, and bone pain that isn’t specificAnaemiaPetechiae and unexplained bruisingOedemaLymphadenopathyHepatosplenomegalyThe following are typical features of a full blood count in patients with ALL:Anaemia (normocytic or macrocytic)Leukopenia affects about half of the patients (WCC 4 x 109/l).Around 25% of patients have leucocytosis (WCC > 10 x 109/l).Around 25% of patients have hyperleukocytosis (WCC > 50 x 109/l).Thrombocytopaenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The inguinal lymph nodes are most commonly affected.

      Correct Answer: Some patients may complain alcohol-induced nodal pain and pruritus

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 66-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of increasing fatigue and lethargy, along with itching, especially after a hot bath. He also complains of increased sweating and dizziness. On examination, he has a plethoric appearance. Abdominal examination shows the presence of splenomegaly. A basic panel of blood tests is ordered in which her Hb comes out to be 17 g/dL. Which one of the following treatment options will be most suitable in this case?

      Your Answer: No treatment is available

      Correct Answer: Venesection

      Explanation:

      The clinical and laboratory findings, in this case, support a diagnosis of polycythaemia vera. A plethoric appearance, lethargy, splenomegaly and itching are common in this disease. Patients may also have gouty arthritis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, erythromelalgia, stroke, myocardial infarction or DVT. The average age for diagnosis of Polycythaemia Vera is 65-74 years. It is a haematological malignancy in which there is overproduction of all three cell lines. Venesection is the treatment of choice as it would cause a decrease in the number of red blood cells within the body.Erythropoietin is given in patients with chronic renal failure as they lack this hormone. Administration of erythropoietin in such patients causes stimulation of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Desferrioxamine is a chelating agent for iron and is given to patients with iron overload due to repeated blood transfusions, e.g. in thalassemia patients.Penicillamine is a chelating agent for Copper, given as treatment in Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent:

      Your Answer: VII

      Correct Answer: V

      Explanation:

      Fat-soluble vitamin K is obtained from green vegetables and bacterial synthesis in the gut. Deficiency may present in the newborn (haemorrhagic disease of the newborn) or in later life. Deficiency may be caused by an inadequate diet, malabsorption or inhibition of vitamin K by drugs such as warfarin. The activity of factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K dependent as well as that of protein C and protein S. Both PT and APTT are prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Correct

    • How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole inhibits both the reuptake of adenosine and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP and thus blocking the platelet aggregation response to ADP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      167.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding haemophilia A, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding haemophilia A, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The clinical severity of the disease correlates inversely with the serum level of the clotting factor in question.

      Correct Answer: In haemophilia both the APTT and PT are prolonged.

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A is the most common of the hereditary clotting factor deficiencies. The inheritance is sex-linked but up to one-third of patients have no family history and these cases result from recent mutation. The vast majority of cases are inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion, affecting males born to carrier mothers. Females born to affected fathers can also, rarely, be affected due to homozygosity for the gene, where there is marriage to close relatives. The defect is an absence or low level of plasma factor VIII. The APTT is prolonged but the PT is normal. Recurrent painful haemarthroses and muscle haematomas dominate the clinical course of severely affected patients and if inadequately treated, lead to progressive joint deformity and disability. Local pressure can cause entrapment neuropathy or ischaemic necrosis. Prolonged bleeding occurs after dental extractions or post-trauma. Spontaneous haematuria and gastrointestinal haemorrhage may occur. The clinical severity of the disease correlates inversely with the factor VIII level. Operative and post-traumatic haemorrhage are life-threatening both in severely and mildly affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient is found to be anaemic. Which one of the following blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is found to be anaemic. Which one of the following blood results would favour a diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease rather than iron deficiency:

      Your Answer: Low transferrin saturation

      Correct Answer: Low total iron binding capacity (TIBC)

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is one of the most common causes of normocytic anaemia. The anaemia is usually mild (Hb > 90 g/L) and non-progressive. Anaemia of chronic disease is usually associated with low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and a low total iron binding capacity (TIBC) with normal or raised ferritin which differentiates it from iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The total white cell count is usually decreased.

      Correct Answer: AML becomes increasingly common with age.

      Explanation:

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the most common form of acute leukaemia in adults and becomes increasingly common with age, with a median onset of 65 years. It forms only a minor fraction (10 – 15%) of childhood leukaemia. The clinical features of AML typically presents with clinical features secondary to leukaemic infiltration of bone marrow and extramedullary sites: Anaemia (lethargy, pallor and breathlessness)Thrombocytopaenia (petechiae, bruising, epistaxis, haemorrhage) – often profoundNeutropenia (infections)HepatosplenomegalyGingival infiltrationCentral nervous system involvement in AML is uncommon.Leukaemia cutis is the infiltration of neoplastic leukocytes in the skin. It occurs in approximately 10% of patients with AML.Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. The total white cell count is usually increased and blood film examination typically shows a variable number of blast cells. The bone marrow is hypercellular and typically contains many blast cells.. The prognosis for patients with AML has been improving steadily, particularly for those under 60 years of age, and approximately one-third of patients of this group can expect to achieve long-term cure. For the elderly, the situation is poor and less than 10% of those over 70 years of age achieve long-term remission.CML is commonly associated with the Philadelphia chromosome. The Philadelphia chromosome is present in only 1% of adults AML cases.Lymphadenopathy is rare in AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma is most common in children.

      Correct Answer: Most patients present with painless asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, with cervical nodes involved most commonly.

      Explanation:

      Lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system, which is part of the body’s germ-fighting network. They are a group of diseases that are caused by malignant lymphocytes. These malignant cells accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue, giving rise to the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. They can be subdivided into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) which are characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Characteristics of HL include:1. can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults, 2. almost 2:1 male predominance. 3. presents with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. 4. cervical node involvement in 60-70% of cases, 5. axillary node involvement in 10-15% 6. inguinal node involvement in 6-12%. 7. modest splenomegaly during the course of the disease in 50% of patients8. may occasionally have liver enlargement9. bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. Approximately 85% of patients are cured, but the prognosis depends on age, stage and histology. Two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL are alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:

      Your Answer: Protein S deficiency

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and...

    Incorrect

    • A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and rigours shortly after the transfusion begins. The following are her observations: Temperature 40°C, HR 116 bpm, BP 80/48, SaO 2 97 percent on air.Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Slow the transfusion rate and administer antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Bacterial infections are common in the following situations:Platelet transfusions are associated with a higher risk of bacterial infection (as platelets are stored at room temperature)Immersion in a water bath thawed previously frozen components.Components of red blood cells that have been stored for several weeksGram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have both been linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are linked to a higher rate of morbidity and mortality.Yersinia enterocolitica is the most common bacterial organism linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection. This organism can multiply at low temperatures while also utilising iron as a nutrient. As a result, it’s well-suited to proliferating in blood banks.The following are some of the most common clinical signs and symptoms of a bacterial infection transmitted through a blood transfusion. These symptoms usually appear shortly after the transfusion begins:Fever is very high.Rigours and chillsVomiting and nauseaTachycardiaHypotensionCollapse of the circulatory systemIf a bacterial infection from a transfusion is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped right away. Blood cultures and a Gram stain should be requested, as well as broad-spectrum antibiotics. In addition, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank for an urgent culture and Gram-stain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding chronic idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chronic idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion.

      Correct Answer: ITP is classically associated with massive splenomegaly.

      Explanation:

      Chronic ITP is a relatively common disorder. The highest incidence is in women aged 15 – 50 years. It is the most common cause of thrombocytopaenia without anaemia or neutropaenia. It is usually idiopathic but it may been seen in association with other conditions. Platelet autoantibodies (usually IgG) result in the premature removal of platelets from the circulation by macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system. In many causes the antibody is directed against the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib complex. The normal platelet lifespan of 10 days is reduced to a few hours. Total megakaryocyte mass and platelet turnover are increased to approximately five times normal. Despite the destruction of platelets by splenic macrophages, the spleen is normally not enlarged.  In fact, an enlarged spleen should lead to a search for other possible causes for the thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      436.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a clonal (malignant) bone marrow disorder in which early lymphoid precursors multiply and replace the marrow’s normal hematopoietic cells. ALL is most common between the ages of 3 and 7, with 75 percent of cases occurring before the age of 6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes bisoprolol and furosemide for his cardiac failure, and his most recent BNP was 123 pmol/l. He developed shortness of breath and his pre-existing peripheral oedema became worse 5 hours after transfusion was commenced. His BP rises to 170/105 mmHg and a repeat measurement of his BNP is 192 pmol/l.What is the most likely transfusion reaction to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Acute haemolytic reaction

      Correct Answer: TACO

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Typical clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components. TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury) is a clinical syndrome with abrupt onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema within 6 hours of transfusion not explained by another risk factor. Associated with the presence of antibodies in the donor blood to recipient leukocyte antigens. patients present with dyspnoea, hypertension, hypotension, acute leukopenia. Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to the Family Medicine clinic complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and tongue discolouration. On examination, she seems malnourished, her tongue is beefy red, and an ataxic gait pattern is noticed. Which ONE of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      A history of stroke and poor nutritional status points towards a nutritional deficiency as the most likely cause of her symptoms. The examination would differentiate between Vitamin B12 and Folic acid deficiency as in the former. The patient has a beefy red tongue and symptoms indicating peripheral nervous system involvement or subacute combined spinal cord degeneration. The patient may also have a lemon-yellow skin colour, loss of proprioception and vibratory sense and oral ulceration. Investigations in B12 deficiency can reveal the following:1. Macrocytic anaemia2. Neutropoenia3. Thrombocytopaenia4. Blood film: anisocytosis, poikilocytosis5. Low serum B126. Raised serum bilirubin (haemolysis)7. Intrinsic factor antibodies8. Positive Schilling test

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are asked to review the blood results on a 56-year-old man who...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review the blood results on a 56-year-old man who appears to be acutely unwell. His results show that he is neutropenic.Which ONE of the following is NOT a recognized cause of a neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Hyposplenism

      Explanation:

      Neutropenia is defined as a total neutrophil count of < 2.0 x 109/l.It can be caused by:Viral infectionsCollagen disease e.g. SLE and RAChemotherapy and radiotherapyHypersplenismMarrow infiltrationVitamin and folate deficiencyDrug reactionsDrugs that cause neutropenia include flecainide, phenytoin, carbimazole, indomethacin and co-trimoxazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding acute idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding acute idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is most common in women aged 15 - 50 years.

      Correct Answer: Over 80% of children recover without treatment.

      Explanation:

      Acute ITP is most common in children. In approximately 75% of cases, the episode follows vaccination or infection such as chicken pox or glandular fever. Most cases are caused by non-specific immune complex attachment to platelets. Acute ITP usually has a very sudden onset and the symptoms usually disappear in less than 6 months (often within a few weeks). It is usually a self-limiting condition and over 80% of children recover without treatment; in 5 – 10% of cases a chronic form of the disease develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old male with a known case of Haemophilia A is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male with a known case of Haemophilia A is referred to your orthopaedic clinic for evaluation and aspiration of a hemarthrosis of the left knee joint. Out of the modes of inheritance listed below, which one is present in this disease?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrial

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      All the Haemophilia’s have an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern, so they only manifest in male patients. Diseases with a mitochondrial inheritance pattern include MELAS syndrome, Leigh syndrome, LHON and MERRF syndrome. Autosomal dominant disorders include Huntingdon disease and Marfan syndrome. X-linked dominant diseases include Fragile X syndrome. Autosomal recessive diseases include cystic fibrosis and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - One of the following statements about acute lymphoblastic leukaemia(ALL) is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following statements about acute lymphoblastic leukaemia(ALL) is true.

      Your Answer: It predominantly affects adults

      Correct Answer: It is classified using the FAB classification

      Explanation:

      ALL affects children predominantly.The CNS is commonly involved in ALL.The Philadelphia chromosome is present in 25% of adult ALL and 5% of childhood ALL cases.The cure rate in children is approximately 80% in children and 50% in adults.ALL is classified into 3 groups using the French-American-British (FAB) classification:ALL-L1: small uniform cellsALL-L2: large varied cellsALL-L3: large varied cells with vacuoles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE:

      Your Answer: Splenic sequestration results in thrombocytosis.

      Correct Answer: Hand-foot syndrome is frequently a first presentation of the disease.

      Explanation:

      Hand-foot syndrome in children is typically the first symptom of the disease, produced by infarction of the metaphysis of small bones. The disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. By adulthood, the spleen has usually infarcted. Infection with the B19 parvovirus is usually followed by an aplastic crisis. Thrombocytopenia is caused by splenic sequestration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old male visits his family physician with the complaint of a high-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits his family physician with the complaint of a high-grade fever for the past five days. A complete blood count report shows the presence of neutrophilia. Which one of the following facts regarding neutrophilia is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is typically caused by typhoid fever

      Correct Answer: It can be caused by eclampsia

      Explanation:

      A total neutrophil count of greater than 7.5 x 109/L is called neutrophilia. Typhoid fever usually causes leukopenia or neutropenia. Both localised and generalised bacterial infections can cause neutrophilia. Metabolic disorders such as – gout- eclampsia- uraemia can also cause neutrophilia. Acute neutrophilia, in which immature neutrophils can be seen, is referred to as a left shift and can be seen in conditions such as appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old female with chronic anaemia secondary to sickle cell disease is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female with chronic anaemia secondary to sickle cell disease is being transfused. A few minutes after starting the blood transfusion, she develops widespread itching with urticarial rash, wheezing, nausea and chest pain. Her BP reduces to 60/40 mmHg.What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Slow the transfusion rate and administer antihistamines

      Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis transfusion reaction occurs when an individual has previously been sensitized to an allergen present in the blood and, on re-exposure, releases IgE or IgG antibodies. Patients with anaphylaxis usually develop laryngospasm, bronchospasm, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, shock, and loss of consciousness. The transfusion should be stopped immediately and the patient should be treated with adrenaline, oxygen, corticosteroids, and antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the...

    Correct

    • The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a clonal disorder of a pluripotent stem cell. The disease accounts for around 15% of leukaemias and may occur at any age. The diagnosis of CML is rarely difficult and is assisted by the characteristic presence of the Philadelphia (ph) chromosome. This disease occurs in either sex, most frequently between the ages of 40 and 60 years. In up to 50% of cases the diagnosis is made incidentally from a routine blood count. Leucocytosis is the main feature, with a complete spectrum of myeloid cells seen in the peripheral blood. The levels of neutrophils and myelocytes exceed those of blast cells and promyelocytes.Increased circulating basophils are a characteristic feature. Normochromic normocytic anaemia is usual. Platelet count may be increased (most frequently), normal or decreased. The clinical outlook is very good and 90% of patients can expect long-term control of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies: ...

    Incorrect

    • Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Bence Jones proteins are monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains found in urine (and plasma) of some patients with myeloma. Because of their relatively small size, light chains are readily excreted into the urine. The presence of significant amounts of Bence Jones proteins in urine is indicative of malignant B cell proliferation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening for thalassaemia in pregnancy is offered to all pregnant women.

      Explanation:

      Beta thalassemia is caused by mutations in one or both of the beta globin genes. Alpha thalassemia is caused by a deletion or mutation (less commonly) in one or more of the four alpha globin gene copies. β-thalassaemia is more common in the Mediterranean region while α-thalassaemia is more common in the Far East.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (14/29) 48%
Pathology (14/29) 48%
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