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  • Question 1 - A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO)...

    Incorrect

    • A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO) when used in premature infants of less than 32 weeks gestation to reduce postnatal haemoglobin decline. Out of 29 infants given the treatment, none suffered serious side-effects.

      Your Answer: rhEPO is safe when used in dosages in this study

      Correct Answer: Nothing conclusive can be said, a larger study is needed

      Explanation:

      Importance of Further Study on Infant Drug Safety

      Although none of the 31 infants in the study experienced serious side-effects from the drug, it doesn’t necessarily mean that the drug is completely safe for all infants. If 3% of infants were to suffer from serious side-effects, it would only be expected to occur in 1 out of 30 infants, making it possible to have no occurrences in a small sample size. Therefore, a larger study is necessary to obtain a more accurate estimate of the percentage of infants who may experience serious side-effects. It is crucial to conduct further research to ensure the safety of infants who may be prescribed this drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A father brings his eight-year-old daughter to an emergency appointment at the Duty...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his eight-year-old daughter to an emergency appointment at the Duty Doctor Clinic after she sustained a needlestick injury that day on her way home from school. He explains that he picked her up from school by car, and he then parked in the underground car park where they have an allocated space next to their flat.
      Unfortunately, rough sleepers have been using the car park as shelter, and on getting out of the car his daughter found a needle on the floor which she picked up but accidentally pricked her finger in doing so. His dad is very concerned about her risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and wants to know if she should be tested.
      What is the most appropriate advice to give him, regarding immediate management of this needlestick injury?

      Your Answer: The wound should be re-picked with a clean needle and encouraged to bleed

      Correct Answer: The risk of hepatitis from a contaminated needle is greater than the risk of HIV

      Explanation:

      Managing a Needlestick Injury: Important Considerations

      A needlestick injury can be a stressful and potentially dangerous situation. Here are some important considerations to keep in mind when managing such an injury:

      – The risk of hepatitis from a contaminated needle is greater than the risk of HIV. However, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should still be considered for HIV prevention.
      – If the individual has not been vaccinated against hepatitis B, an accelerated course of hepatitis B should be offered following the injury.
      – Blood tests should be arranged as soon as possible for baseline virology and liver function tests. These should be repeated at three and six months.
      – First aid for a needlestick injury includes encouraging bleeding and washing with soap and running water. However, there is no need to re-open the wound to encourage further bleeding.
      – HIV self-test kits are available through online request platforms, but they are generally not appropriate for individuals who do not belong to a high-risk group and have had a single needlestick injury in the community.

      By keeping these considerations in mind, individuals can take appropriate steps to manage a needlestick injury and reduce the risk of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of severe back pain that...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of severe back pain that has been bothering her for the past five days. She has a history of breast cancer and osteoarthritis. The pain is located in the lower thoracic area and spreads to the front of her chest. Coughing and sneezing exacerbate the pain. She has not experienced any changes in her bowel or urinary habits. During the examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. The peri-anal sensation is normal, and the lower limb reflexes are brisk. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone + immediate oncological assessment

      Explanation:

      Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old girl presents for an urgent review. She has been experiencing wheezing...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents for an urgent review. She has been experiencing wheezing and coughing for the past 24 hours despite regular use of a salbutamol inhaler. She is otherwise healthy. The patient was diagnosed with asthma two years ago and has been managing it well with occasional reliever therapy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears well and is able to communicate without difficulty. There are no signs of respiratory distress. Mild wheezing is present throughout the chest with no crackles. Vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 20, pulse 100 bpm, blood pressure 110/60mmHg, oxygen saturation 96%, and temperature 37°C. Peak flow is measured at 290L/min (315L/min expected).

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to the emergency department

      Correct Answer: 10 puffs of salbutamol with spacer (repeat as required) + prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroid therapy should be administered to all children experiencing an asthma exacerbation. The appropriate treatment for this child, who is presenting with a mild exacerbation of asthma without signs of infection, is 10 puffs of salbutamol with spacer (to be repeated as necessary) and prednisolone. Antibiotics are not necessary in this case. It is important to increase the short-acting beta agonist dose and deliver it through a spacer to ensure effective medication delivery. Two puffs of salbutamol with spacer (to be repeated as necessary) is not sufficient for treating an asthma exacerbation.

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with worsening knee problems. He was diagnosed with osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with worsening knee problems. He was diagnosed with osteoarthritis in both knees a few years ago and had x-rays showing significant tricompartmental osteoarthritis. He manages his symptoms with paracetamol and a topical NSAID, but has been experiencing increasing pain in his right knee. He asks if he can be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement, as his friend had this procedure done. What features would warrant consideration for referral?

      Your Answer: A history of the joint 'giving way'

      Correct Answer: X Ray evidence of loose bodies

      Explanation:

      Arthroscopic Lavage and Debridement for Osteoarthritis

      Patients with osteoarthritis may present with various signs and symptoms, but only a small percentage may benefit from arthroscopic lavage and debridement. This procedure is recommended for patients who have a clear history of mechanical locking of the knee, which is caused by meniscal lesions or loose bodies in the knee. Referral for arthroscopic intervention should only be offered to patients with this specific symptom.

      It is important to note that other symptoms of osteoarthritis, such as gelling or giving way, or x-ray evidence of loose bodies, do not warrant referral for arthroscopic lavage and debridement. According to NICE guidelines, this procedure should not be offered for the treatment of any other symptoms of osteoarthritis.

      In summary, arthroscopic lavage and debridement is only recommended for patients with a clear history of mechanical locking of the knee. Other symptoms of osteoarthritis do not warrant referral for this procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. As part of his diabetic evaluation, he was instructed to perform home blood pressure monitoring. The average daytime reading has returned as 152/84 mmHg.

      The patient migrated to the UK from Sudan approximately two years ago and has no significant medical history other than a vitamin D deficiency, which is believed to be due to his dark skin.

      Based on the current NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Start losartan

      Explanation:

      For black patients with type 2 diabetes and hypertension, the recommended first-line treatment is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, specifically losartan. This is based on evidence that ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, may be less effective in patients of African or African-Caribbean ethnicity. For non-diabetic patients of this ethnicity, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide may be added as a second or third line of treatment. While lifestyle changes are important, this patient’s stage 2 hypertension and diabetes put him at high risk for complications, making prompt and effective treatment essential.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements regarding the Delphi method is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the Delphi method is correct?

      Your Answer: Is not a suitable method for developing evidenced-based guidelines

      Correct Answer: One of the key features is the anonymity of the participants

      Explanation:

      The panel’s size can be expanded without any restrictions, except for resource constraints. It has been proposed that a minimum of seven individuals should be included.

      The Delphi Process: A Method for Collecting Expert Knowledge

      The Delphi process, also known as the Delphi method or technique, is a structured approach to gathering and distilling knowledge from a group of experts. This method is often used for issues where there is little formal evidence available. The process involves several rounds of questionnaires, with the first round asking broad questions to the experts. The results of the first round are then analyzed and common themes are identified. This information is used to create a more specific questionnaire for the second round, which is sent back to the panel of experts. This iterative process is repeated two or three times.

      The Delphi method can be used in various fields, such as curriculum development, guideline development, and forecasting future health problems. For example, a group of expert stakeholders may be involved in determining what should be included in a curriculum. The expert panel for guideline development may include doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and patients. Anonymity is a key feature of the Delphi process, as it prevents individual participants from dominating the opinion-forming process. Overall, the Delphi process is a useful tool for collecting and synthesizing expert knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. She reports feeling generally healthy with no changes to her vision or fever. The patient wears contact lenses but has not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient displays injected conjunctiva in the affected eye, but there is no apparent redness or swelling around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein doesn't reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses when experiencing conjunctivitis, which is likely the case for this 15-year-old with viral conjunctivitis. While it is possible that her prescription may not be up to date, this doesn’t affect her susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions. Warm compresses are more effective for treating styes or chalazion, which present as lumps on the eyelid, rather than viral conjunctivitis. Since the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, there is no need for ophthalmology referral. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had staining, they would require a visit to eye casualty as this would indicate a corneal injury. While topical antihistamine eye drops may be used for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the presentation makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What substance can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?

      Your Answer: Amitryptiline

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      MAOIs and Paracetamol: Safe Combination

      Paracetamol is a safe medication to take with MAOIs. However, it is important to avoid other drugs, foodstuffs, and alcoholic beverages that can trigger the cheese reaction. This reaction can be caused by consuming food high in tyramine, which is listed in the accompanying leaflet of the prescribed drug. It is worth noting that MAOIs are not commonly prescribed in general practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
      What is the most appropriate advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, and there is no need for additional vaccination

      Correct Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth

      Explanation:

      Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
      – Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
      – Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
      – The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
      – The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
      – The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.

      In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old retired teacher comes to the clinic with her daughter because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher comes to the clinic with her daughter because she has been exhibiting unusual behavior for the past few months. She has been found wandering around the neighborhood at night and has started hoarding items from the grocery store. Her daughter also reports that she has become more aggressive and has made inappropriate comments to strangers. On physical examination, there are no significant findings and she has no known medical history.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Multi-infarct dementia

      Correct Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia Diagnosis: Fronto-Temporal Dementia

      A former professional footballer is exhibiting behavioural changes such as disinhibition, repetitive checking, and binge eating. These symptoms, along with his previous occupation, suggest a diagnosis of fronto-temporal dementia. The repetitive heading of heavy leather footballs is now recognized as a risk factor for this type of dementia. Lewy body dementia, Alzheimer’s dementia, multi-infarct dementia, and obsessive-compulsive disorder are all ruled out as potential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old overweight woman comes to the surgery seeking guidance on birth control....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old overweight woman comes to the surgery seeking guidance on birth control. Her BMI is 38 kg/m^2. What is the appropriate prescription for her?

      Your Answer: Desogestrel (Cerazette) 150 mcg od (double dose)

      Correct Answer: Desogestrel (Cerazette) 75 mcg od (standard dose)

      Explanation:

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain, and dry eyes. He has also noticed a red-purple rash on his upper cheeks that worsens after sun exposure. Upon further inquiry, he reports frequent mouth ulcers. Based on these symptoms, you suspect systemic lupus erythematosus.

      Initial laboratory tests show anemia and proteinuria on urinalysis. Which of the following tests would be the most appropriate to rule out this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ro/La antibodies

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      The ANA test is commonly used to screen for autoimmune rheumatic disease in adults, but it has limited diagnostic value on its own. The presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies, low complement levels, or anti-Smith (Sm) antibodies, along with relevant clinical features, are highly indicative of a diagnosis of SLE. However, these markers cannot be used to rule out SLE as there is still a chance of a false negative result. Anti-Ro/La antibodies are less specific to SLE and can also be found in other autoimmune rheumatic disorders.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies experiencing any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include fluctuating mood and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.

      Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While some degree of paranoia is described in the patient, the other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for being alone. The patient in this scenario describes relationships with partners, friends, and family.

      Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, auditory hallucinations, and disorders of thought perception.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in advance of the annual diabetes review of Mrs. Johnson, a 50-year-old patient. Mrs. Johnson was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about 4 years ago, and after 2 years of attempting to control it with lifestyle measures, she commenced metformin and is now prescribed 1g BD. Her full blood count, renal profile and liver function tests are normal, her total cholesterol is 5.3mmol/L. Her HbA1c is 60mmol/mol.

      As per NICE guidelines, what should be done regarding Mrs. Johnson's blood sugar control?

      Your Answer: Reinforce lifestyle and diet measures only

      Correct Answer: Commence a second blood glucose lowering drug and reinforce lifestyle and diet measures

      Explanation:

      If the HbA1c is > 58 mmol/mol in type 2 diabetes mellitus, a second blood glucose lowering drug should be added while also reinforcing lifestyle and diet measures, according to NICE guidelines. Simply reinforcing lifestyle measures is not enough. It is important to intensify drug treatment and revisit lifestyle and dietary advice with the patient. It is not recommended to stop metformin unless it is contraindicated or not tolerated. Modified-release metformin may be an option for patients experiencing gastrointestinal side effects on standard release metformin, but it will not improve blood sugar control.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism two years ago and has been taking levothyroxine 75mcg od, which has kept her condition stable. Additionally, she has been taking folic acid 400mcg od for the past 8 months. Her last blood test, taken 4 months ago, showed the following results:

      TSH 1.6 mU/l

      You decide to order a repeat TSH and free T4 measurement. What is the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Keep levothyroxine at 75mcg od

      Correct Answer: Increase levothyroxine to 100 mcg od

      Explanation:

      If a woman has hypothyroidism, it is recommended to promptly raise the dosage of levothyroxine and closely observe her TSH levels.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the thigh and a shorter leg.

      Possible diagnoses include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that primarily affects boys aged 10 to 15. It occurs when the upper femoral epiphysis slips in a posterior inferior direction with respect to the femur. The exact cause of this condition is unclear, but it has been suggested that hormonal or calcification abnormalities may play a role. Obese children with delayed secondary sexual development or tall thin boys are particularly susceptible.

      Symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include rest pain, limp, pain on movement, reduced range of abduction and internal rotation, and an externally rotated and shortened affected leg. It is important to note that musculoskeletal disease doesn’t typically present with a shortened leg.

      Other conditions that may be mistaken for slipped upper femoral epiphysis include Perthes’ disease, Osgood-Schlatter syndrome, and chondromalacia patellae. Perthes’ disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in childhood, while Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is an overuse syndrome associated with physical exertion before skeletal maturity. Chondromalacia patellae is softening of the articular cartilage of the patella usually caused by indirect trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on the side of her neck has recently grown. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped lesion with variable pigmentation and a diameter of 7 mm.

      What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Photograph and observe in eight weeks

      Correct Answer: Reassess in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This patient’s lesion is highly suspicious of a melanoma and requires immediate referral to a dermatologist. Any delay in monitoring in primary care could result in delayed treatment and potentially worse outcomes. The lesion’s recent increase in size, irregular pigmentation, and margin are all factors that raise suspicions. To aid in decision-making, the 7-point weighted checklist can be used, which includes major features such as change in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, as well as minor features like inflammation, oozing, change in sensation, and largest diameter 7 mm or more. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred, even if the score is less than 3. If the lesion were low risk, it would be reasonable to monitor over an eight-week period using the 7-point checklist, photographs, and a marker scale and/or ruler. However, it is not appropriate to excise or biopsy suspicious pigmented lesions in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower back pain for the past year, which has gradually worsened. The pain now radiates bilaterally to his buttocks, thighs, and legs, with the left leg being worse than the right. He describes the pain as 'cramping' and 'burning'. Walking for more than a few minutes causes weakness and numbness in his legs, which improves when he sits down and leans forward. Standing exacerbates the symptoms, and he has lost his independence and now uses a walking aid. His wife has noticed a more stooped posture than 12 months ago.

      The patient's medical history includes hypertension, which is controlled with medication. He has never smoked and has a normal BMI. On examination, he has a wide-based gait, and neurological examination of his lower limbs is normal. Peripheral pulses feel normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation and examination findings?

      Your Answer: Sciatica

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      A patient who experiences gradual leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness while walking, with a normal clinical examination, is most likely suffering from spinal stenosis. This condition is characterized by symptoms that are relieved by sitting and leaning forward, and worsened by walking, especially on flat surfaces. Although physical examination findings are often normal in patients with lumbar spinal stenosis, it is important to rule out other conditions such as vascular claudication. Sciatica, which typically presents with unilateral leg pain, is less likely to be the cause of these symptoms.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He underwent ileostomy surgery six years ago, which has been successful until recently. He is currently experiencing significant pain in the area around the stoma site. Upon examination, a deep erythematous ulcer with a ragged edge is observed, along with swollen and erythematous surrounding skin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Irritant contact dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Pyoderma gangrenosum, which can be observed around the stoma site, is linked to inflammatory bowel disease. Surgery is not recommended as it may exacerbate the condition, and immunosuppressants are typically used for treatment. It is important to consider malignancy as a possible alternative diagnosis, and lesions should be referred to a specialist for evaluation and potential biopsy. While irritant contact dermatitis is a common occurrence, it is unlikely to result in such a profound ulcer.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.

      Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he is diagnosed it has spread to the liver.

      The oncologist feels that palliative care is best in this situation and the patient is started on painkillers and other treatments to relieve his symptoms. He has a past history of osteoarthritis and bipolar disorder and takes lithium for this.

      He comes to you a few weeks later with a range of symptoms that he thinks may be side effects of lithium. His lithium levels are within the therapeutic range.

      Which of the following is most likely to be a side effect of lithium?

      Your Answer: Sweating

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Lithium Side Effects

      A common side effect of lithium is a fine tremor, which can occur even when lithium levels are within the therapeutic range. However, a coarse tremor suggests that lithium levels are toxic. It is important to monitor lithium levels regularly to avoid toxicity. While tinnitus is not a side effect of lithium, vertigo can occur. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the safe and effective use of lithium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are examining the results of an ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM) for...

    Correct

    • You are examining the results of an ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM) for a 65-year-old man with suspected hypertension. You have also arranged an ECG, blood tests and a urine dipstick, all of which have been normal. According to QRISK, his 10-year cardiovascular risk is 7%. The ABPM results reveal an average daytime reading of 148/94 mmHg. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Diagnose stage 1 hypertension and advise about lifestyle changes

      Explanation:

      This pertains to the utilization of statins for initial prevention, as opposed to the present NICE guidelines for hypertension.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb and index finger and inability to pronate his forearm on one side. There is no history of trauma.
      Identify the nerve that is most likely to be affected.

      Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Anterior Interosseous Nerve: Function, Symptoms, and Treatment

      The anterior interosseous nerve is a motor nerve that branches off from the median nerve just below the antecubital fossa. It runs along the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius and ends in the pronator quadratus muscle at the wrist. Its primary function is to supply the flexor pollicis longus, the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and the pronator quadratus.

      However, the nerve can be affected by direct penetrating injury or compression, leading to a condition known as anterior interosseous syndrome. This condition causes weakness in the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers, as the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus are weakened.

      Treatment for compression includes rest, immobilization, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and possibly steroid injections or nerve release and repair. While spontaneous recovery is possible, seeking medical attention is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are working in a community sexual health clinic. Your patient is a...

    Correct

    • You are working in a community sexual health clinic. Your patient is a 17-year-old female who is complaining of vaginal discharge. She reports a 3 week history of 'clumpy' white discharge with no odour. She also reports itching and reddening of skin around the vaginal opening.

      She has no relevant past medical history and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. Sexual history reveals that she has recently broken up with her long-term boyfriend, thus has a new sexual partner. She is concerned about the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection.

      Based on the pH test result of a sample of the patient's discharge, what is the most appropriate treatment for the cause of her vaginal discharge?

      Your Answer: Clotrimazole cream

      Explanation:

      The patient has vaginal candidiasis, indicated by itching, reddening, and ‘curdy’ discharge with pH <4.5. Treatment with vaginal clotrimazole is appropriate. Other treatments are used for bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Chlamydia, and gonorrhoea infections. Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice Surgery with complaints of being unable to pass urine for the past 10 hours. As a result, he has not been drinking fluids and is now dehydrated. Upon examination, you find a tender bladder palpable to his umbilicus and immediately catheterise him. The residual volume is 500 ml. What is the most suitable advice you can provide to this patient regarding his acute retention?

      Your Answer: It is nearly always due to prostatic enlargement

      Correct Answer: Constipation is the most likely cause

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Urinary Retention: Common Misconceptions Debunked

      Urinary retention is a condition where the bladder is unable to empty completely or at all. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this condition that need to be debunked.

      Firstly, severe constipation can lead to urinary retention and should be considered as a cause. Other common causes include prostatic disease, urethral strictures, pelvic tumors, and medications. It is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.

      Secondly, suprapubic catheterization is not always indicated for co-existent urinary tract infections. It is only recommended when transurethral catheterization is not possible.

      Thirdly, urinary retention may not always be painful. Chronic retention may not cause pain, and even with acute retention, patients may not always report pain.

      Lastly, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is the most common cause of urinary retention in men, there are many other causes, and thorough evaluation is needed to identify and treat the underlying cause. Additionally, urinary retention can occur in both men and women.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths surrounding urinary retention to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical...

    Correct

    • A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical steroids. He is aware of the potential side effects of continuous topical steroid use and asked about the recommended duration of break between courses of treatment according to NICE guidelines.

      Your Answer: Aim for a break of 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Psoriasis with Topical Treatments

      Psoriasis patients are advised by NICE to take a break of at least 4 weeks between courses of treatment with potent or very potent corticosteroids. During this period, patients should consider using topical treatments that are not steroid-based, such as vitamin D or vitamin D analogues, or coal tar to maintain psoriasis disease control. These topical treatments can help manage psoriasis symptoms and prevent flare-ups. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs. By incorporating non-steroid topical treatments into their psoriasis management plan, patients can achieve better control of their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

    She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

      She is brought to the surgery where you are asked to see her. She is hyperventilating and looks very anxious. She is tender to light pressure on the front of her chest, but examination is otherwise unremarkable. Breathing room air, her oxygen saturation (finger probe) is 99%. Her ECG is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this woman?

      Your Answer: Check troponin and send with routine samples. Plan to repeat ECG in two hours. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a heart attack.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Panic Attack

      The ECG and pulse oximetry tests were normal, and the clinical context and examination findings all point to the diagnosis of a panic attack. It is appropriate to explain the diagnosis to the patient and provide reassurance.

      Psychological symptoms of an anxiety state include irritability, intolerance of noise, poor concentration/memory, fearfulness, apprehensiveness, restlessness, and continuous worrying thoughts. On the other hand, physical symptoms of an anxiety state include dry mouth, difficulty in swallowing, chest pain, shakiness, diarrhoea, urinary frequency, paraesthesiae, and hot flashes. Physical signs of an anxiety state include tenseness, sweating, shaking, pallor, restlessness, and sighing.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of a panic attack to provide appropriate care and support to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A thirty-two-year-old lady presents for postpartum contraception review. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A thirty-two-year-old lady presents for postpartum contraception review. She has a history of using combined hormonal contraceptives and wishes to continue with this method. She is currently 14 days postpartum.
      What would be a contraindication to prescribing a combined hormonal contraceptive at this time?

      Your Answer: She suffered with pre-eclampsia in the antenatal period

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Postpartum Women

      Postnatally, it is important for women to undergo a risk assessment for venous thromboembolism before considering their contraceptive options. Women with risk factors for venous thromboembolism within 6 weeks of childbirth, such as immobility, postpartum haemorrhage, and pre-eclampsia, should not use combined hormonal contraception. This applies to women who are breastfeeding and not breastfeeding, as the risk of venous thromboembolism is the same for both groups. However, the risk reduces quickly over the first three weeks postpartum, and the UKMEC advises that women who breastfeed should wait until six weeks postpartum before using combined hormonal contraception. Studies have shown that early initiation of combined hormonal contraception may have inconsistent effects on breastfeeding performance and conflicting data on infant outcomes, but overall, there is no negative impact on infant outcomes when initiated from six weeks postpartum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Your practice plans to grow its list size, take on more staff, and...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice plans to grow its list size, take on more staff, and possibly take over the work of a neighbouring practice from which two GPs are retiring in the next five years. Before you start planning how to achieve these aims you decide to do a SWOT analysis of the factors involved.

      Which one of the following forms part of the acronym in the term SWOT analysis?

      Your Answer: Signals

      Correct Answer: Threats

      Explanation:

      Understanding SWOT Analysis

      SWOT analysis is a strategic planning tool that helps organisations identify their Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. It is a method used to evaluate the internal and external factors that may impact an organisation or plan. The analysis can be used to develop a clear objective and form part of an overall strategic planning programme.

      The process involves identifying the strengths and weaknesses of an organisation’s internal factors, such as its resources, capabilities, and culture. It also considers the external factors, such as market trends, competition, and regulatory changes. By identifying these factors, organisations can develop strategies to maximise their strengths, address their weaknesses, take advantage of opportunities, and mitigate threats.

      SWOT analysis is widely used in various industries, including healthcare. For instance, in the NHS, it can be used to manage change and improve patient care. In the Better Care Together initiative, a SWOT analysis was conducted to identify the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the healthcare system in Morecambe Bay. This helped the organisation develop a strategic plan to improve patient care and outcomes.

      In summary, SWOT analysis is a valuable tool for organisations to evaluate their internal and external factors and develop strategies to achieve their objectives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      9.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Population Health (0/2) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/2) 0%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/3) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (1/1) 100%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Passmed