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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part of a 'well man' check. His full blood count comes back with a haematocrit of 0.59 (Normal: 0.35-0.55) and a haemoglobin level of 182 g/l (Normal: 135-175 g/l).
Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Correct Answer: Stroke
Explanation:Understanding Polycythemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Polycythemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the body to produce too many red blood cells. A person with this condition may experience generalized pruritus, splenomegaly, thrombocytosis, and neutrophil leukocytosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for a specific mutation (JAK2) present in more than 95% of people with polycythemia vera is necessary.
Without treatment, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera is only 6-18 months. This is due to the high risk of thrombosis, which can lead to ischaemic stroke and myocardial infarction. Venous and arterial thrombosis can also cause other complications such as pulmonary emboli, renal failure, intestinal ischaemia, and peripheral arterial emboli. Bleeding is also a common complication, usually resulting from vascular occlusion due to thrombosis or hyperviscosity. Acute leukaemia, myelofibrosis, and peptic ulcer disease are also possible complications.
However, with treatment to maintain a normal haematocrit, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera can increase to an average of 20 years. While this is still reduced compared to the general population, it is a significant improvement. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive proper medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to concerns about his recent behavior. The mother has noticed that he appears paler than usual and has been experiencing increased fatigue over the past few weeks, despite maintaining his regular routine. Additionally, he has been experiencing multiple colds and coughs over the past month, which is unusual for him. Upon examination, the boy's vital signs are all within normal range, and some pallor is noted, but no other abnormalities are observed. What would be the next step in investigating this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy to be performed within 48 hours
Correct Answer: FBC to be performed within 48 hours
Explanation:An urgent full blood count is required to evaluate for leukaemia in children and young adults (0-24 years) who exhibit symptoms suggestive of the disease. These symptoms may include persistent fatigue, unexplained infections, and pallor. The primary concern is to rule out leukaemia, and a full blood count should be conducted within 48 hours. While a lymph node biopsy and bone marrow biopsy may be necessary in the future, they are not currently required.
Identifying Haematological Malignancy in Young People
Young people aged 0-24 years who exhibit any of the following symptoms should undergo a full blood count within 48 hours to investigate for leukaemia: pallor, persistent fatigue, unexplained fever, unexplained persistent infections, generalised lymphadenopathy, persistent or unexplained bone pain, unexplained bruising, and unexplained bleeding. These symptoms may indicate the presence of haematological malignancy, which requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify these symptoms early to ensure timely treatment and improve outcomes for young people with suspected haematological malignancy. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in recognising these symptoms and referring patients for urgent investigation. Proper management of haematological malignancy in young people can significantly improve their quality of life and long-term prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, type two diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease stage three (CKD 3) presents with a unilateral red eye with purulent discharge. You diagnose her with bacterial conjunctivitis. Considering her medication history, which drug should you avoid prescribing as eye drops?
Your Answer: Lisinopril
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should steer clear of using chloramphenicol eye drops for treating bacterial conjunctivitis. Co-trimoxazole and trimethoprim should also be avoided as they can increase the risk of methotrexate toxicity and pancytopenia. Aspirin and lisinopril are unlikely to interact seriously with methotrexate. However, caution should be exercised when using gliclazide and metformin in patients with a history of CKD 3, although the concurrent use of chloramphenicol is not expected to pose any problems.
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.
The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with increasing fatigue. He reports feeling tired for the past few months without any specific symptoms. The following blood tests are ordered:
Hemoglobin: 12.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 84 fL
Platelets: 230 * 10^9/L
White blood cells (WBC): 6.2 * 10^9/L
Iron studies: Normal
Vitamin B12/folate: Normal
C-reactive protein (CRP): 5 mg/L
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 2.5 mIU/L
According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Explanation:If patients exhibit new symptoms of colorectal cancer but do not meet the 2-week criteria, NICE recommends conducting the FIT test, regardless of whether or not they have iron deficiency.
Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation. She is of Pakistani origin and has no notable medical history. She reports taking iron supplements regularly since her midwife diagnosed her with anemia, but her blood count has not improved. Her recent lab results reveal an Hb of 96 g/L, MCV of 67.4 fL, and normal serum iron and ferritin levels. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobinopathy
Explanation:Thalassaemia Minor: A Mild Anaemia with Low MCV
This lady is experiencing a mild, well-tolerated anaemia with a very low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Despite having normal iron and ferritin levels, her Pakistani background suggests a possible haemoglobinopathy, specifically thalassaemia minor. This condition is characterized by an MCV less than 75 fL and may worsen during pregnancy.
To confirm the diagnosis, a haemoglobin electrophoresis test can be performed, which will reveal an increased HbA2. Other potential causes of anaemia, such as anaemia of chronic disease, hypothyroidism, occult gastrointestinal blood loss, and osteomalacia, have been ruled out based on the patient’s history and test results.
In summary, thalassaemia minor is a mild form of anaemia that can be easily diagnosed through haemoglobin electrophoresis. While it may not require treatment, it is important to monitor the condition, especially during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP after receiving abnormal liver function test results from a private medical screening. Despite consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week, he is asymptomatic and in good health. The following results were obtained:
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- ALP: 100 u/l
- ALT: 67 u/l
- γGT: 110 u/l
- Albumin: 40 g/l
All other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. A liver screen was arranged, which revealed the following:
- Hepatitis B: Negative
- Hepatitis C: Negative
- Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
- Immunoglobulins: Normal
- Ultrasound liver: Fatty changes
- Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)
What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.
Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body
Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it for later use. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be synthesized in larger quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.
There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of patients) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of patients). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (which can occur after repeated transfusions).
On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can be an indication of iron deficiency anemia. Since iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state. It is important to note that the best test for determining iron overload is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A man in his 30s reports experiencing severe generalised itch for the past month. He denies having a rash but mentions waking up at night drenched in sweat.
Which of the following conditions is frequently linked to itching?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkin's disease
Explanation:Hodgkin’s Disease: A Malignant Lymphoid Proliferation
Hodgkin’s disease is a type of cancer that affects the lymphoid system. It is characterized by the abnormal growth of cells in the lymph nodes, which can cause swelling and tenderness. In addition to lymphadenopathy, patients with Hodgkin’s disease may also experience general pruritus (itchiness) and night sweats. These symptoms can be caused by the release of chemicals from the cancerous cells, which can affect the body’s immune system and cause inflammation. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing Hodgkin’s disease and improving outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment. He recently had his yearly medication review and blood tests were conducted as part of the review. The results of his full blood count show a microcytic anaemia with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/L.
Further blood tests confirm that he has iron deficiency anaemia with a low ferritin level. However, his B12, folate, anti-TTG, and haemoglobin electrophoresis blood tests are all normal. He reports feeling well, with no changes in weight or gastrointestinal symptoms. His bowel movements are regular, and he has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous per rectum. Upon review of his systems, there is no indication of blood loss, and he has no history of haematuria, haemoptysis, or haematemesis.
Upon clinical examination, there are no notable findings. His abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, his chest is clear, and his urine dipstick test is normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Unexplained Iron Deficiency Anaemia in Men Over 60
According to NICE guidelines, men over 60 with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L or less should be urgently referred to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for further assessment. In this case, the patient has been confirmed to have iron deficiency anaemia with a haemoglobin level below 120 g/L, despite being otherwise well with no other focal signs or symptoms, including gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, based solely on the unexplained nature and level of the iron deficiency anaemia, urgent referral is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been visiting the clinic multiple times in the past six months due to a persistent skin rash. She is referred to a Dermatologist, who diagnoses mycosis fungoides after conducting a biopsy of the affected area.
What is the most probable skin symptom that the patient is experiencing during the initial stages of the disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic patches of dermatitis
Explanation:Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma is a group of lymphoproliferative disorders that involve neoplastic T lymphocytes localizing to the skin. The most common form is mycosis fungoides, which presents as patches, plaques, or tumors on the skin. The disease can progress slowly over years or decades, mimicking benign dermatoses in its early stages. Patches may appear as erythematous pink-brown flat areas with atrophy and fine scaling, and may be non-diagnostic on biopsy. As the disease progresses, patches may become infiltrative and evolve into palpable plaques, and eventually into tumors. Sézary syndrome is a variant of T-cell lymphoma that affects the skin of the entire body, causing erythroderma. This variant has a poor prognosis, with a median survival of two to four years. Late-stage mycosis fungoides may present with ulcerated tumors and lymph node infiltration, and can spread to affect distant organs. Psoriatic-like plaques are a less likely presentation in the early stages of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an elective hip replacement two weeks ago. He has been self-administering subcutaneous venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and reports feeling well. His medical history includes hypertension and polymyalgia rheumatica, and he is currently taking co-codamol, prednisolone, and ramipril. However, his blood tests reveal a platelet count of 36 * 109/L (150 - 400). What is the most likely cause of his thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enoxaparin
Explanation:Thrombocytopenia can be caused by heparin, including the low molecular weight heparin enoxaparin. Prosthetic joints are not a common cause of thrombocytopenia, while the other drugs listed are not typically associated with this condition. If heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected or confirmed, it is important to discontinue heparin and switch to an alternative anticoagulant like danaparoid. Platelet counts should be monitored and normalized before administering warfarin.
Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with restless legs syndrome. What blood test is most pertinent to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:When it comes to diagnosing restless legs syndrome, there are several blood tests that could be considered. However, out of all of them, the most crucial one is the ferritin test. This is because a low level of ferritin in the blood is often the primary cause of secondary restless legs syndrome.
Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).
There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.
Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A patient in his 30s with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency seeks advice on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming 12-month travel abroad. What is the most crucial medication he should steer clear of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primaquine
Explanation:Individuals with G6PD deficiency may experience haemolytic anaemia as a result of taking malaria prophylaxis, such as primaquine.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
Haemoglobin
125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
White blood cell count (WCC)
19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Neutrophil
14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
Platelets
498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.
However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.
On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.
In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman has experienced a spontaneous iliofemoral venous thrombosis. She has tested positive for the lupus anticoagulant and her anticardiolipin antibodies are elevated to > 50 U/l. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulant therapy and what INR level should be targeted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.5 Lifelong
Explanation:INR Targets for Antiphospholipid Syndrome
Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a condition characterized by the presence of lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibody, and it increases the risk of thrombotic events. The appropriate target for international normalized ratio (INR) varies depending on the patient’s history and risk factors.
For patients with a single episode of venous thromboembolism (VTE) while being anticoagulated, the target INR should be 2.5. Treatment for significant thrombotic events in patients with APS is generally Lifelong, and the target INR should be maintained at 2.5.
Patients who experience recurrent thrombotic events while well anticoagulated may require an INR of 3.5. This higher target is appropriate for patients with arterial thrombosis or recurrent VTE despite adequate anticoagulation. In these cases, Lifelong anticoagulation is necessary, given that the risk of VTE is ongoing.
In high-risk situations, such as surgery or prolonged immobilization, thromboprophylaxis may be necessary in addition to maintaining the appropriate INR target. Close monitoring and individualized treatment plans are essential for managing APS and preventing thrombotic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of night sweats, lethargy, and gradual weight loss over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and had a previous myocardial infarction four years ago. Over the last two months, she has been seeing your colleague for back pain. Other than that, she is in good health.
During the examination, she appears pale and fatigued, with a blood pressure of 135/82 mmHg, a regular pulse of 85, and an unremarkable abdomen. Notable blood test results include a hemoglobin level of 90 g/L, an ESR of 85 mm/hr, and an impaired creatinine level of 130 µmol/L. Her serum immunoglobulins are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine protein electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Myeloma
Up to one-third of patients with myeloma may not show any abnormality in their serum immunoglobulin electrophoresis. In such cases, urine protein electrophoresis is the next appropriate step to confirm the diagnosis. The presence of monoclonal protein in serum often leads to an excess of free light chains in the urine, which can be detected through urine electrophoresis.
While bone scanning is not very effective in confirming myeloma, plain radiography can be used to evaluate the disease. A skeletal survey is the preferred option for disease evaluation. A trial of iron supplements should be avoided as it can delay the diagnosis of myeloma and lead to a poorer outlook. Endoscopy should only be considered after ruling out myeloma as the cause of anaemia.
In summary, a combination of serum and urine protein electrophoresis, plain radiography, and skeletal survey can help diagnose myeloma accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks into her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
Patient
Haemoglobin
101 g/l (115–155 g/l )
Haematocrit
0.38 (0.35–0.55)
Red blood cell count
5.24 × 1012/l (3.8–5.8 × 1012/l)
Mean corpuscular volume
63 fl (76–98 fl)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin
20 pg (27.0–32.0 pg)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
32 g/dl (32.0–36.0 g/dl)
White cell count
6.9 × 109/l (4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Platelets
241 × 109/l (150–400 × 109/l)
Further testing reveals a fetal haemoglobin (HbF) of 0.6% (normal range < 1%) and haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) of 4.5% (normal range 1.5–3.5%).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Understanding Beta Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differences from Other Blood Disorders
Beta thalassaemia trait is a genetic blood disorder that affects the production of beta globin, a protein that makes up part of the haemoglobin molecule. This condition is autosomal-recessive, meaning that it only occurs when both parents carry the gene mutation. Individuals with beta thalassaemia trait have a mild form of microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which can be detected through blood tests that show a normal red cell count and mean cell haemoglobin concentration, but an elevated level of haemoglobin A2.
It is important to distinguish beta thalassaemia trait from other blood disorders, such as acute folic acid deficiency, alpha thalassaemia trait, iron deficiency, and sickle cell anaemia. Acute folic acid deficiency typically occurs after tissue damage or renal failure, while alpha thalassaemia trait is caused by a deficiency in alpha globin production. Iron deficiency can coexist with beta thalassaemia trait, but cannot be diagnosed based on microcytosis alone. Sickle cell anaemia is a separate condition that involves homozygosity for the sickle cell haemoglobin mutation.
Diagnosis of beta thalassaemia trait requires measuring the alpha-beta chain synthesis ratio or performing genetic tests. While beta thalassaemia trait is usually asymptomatic and doesn’t cause problems during pregnancy, it is important to screen both partners to assess the risk of having a child with beta thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who has been diagnosed and treated for malaria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Travellers visiting friends and family are more at risk of malaria than tourists
Explanation:Malaria Risk and Prevention
Travellers visiting friends and family are at a higher risk of contracting malaria compared to tourists due to their likelihood of visiting rural areas. To accurately diagnose malaria, repeat blood films should be taken after 12-24 hours and again at 24 hours. The gold standard for diagnosis is the thick and thin blood films, while the antigen test is less sensitive. It is important to note that even with full adherence to prophylaxis, it is still possible to develop malaria. While most cases of P.falciparum present within 6 months of exposure, infection with other species can present months or even years after exposure due to reactivation of the dormant liver stage. By taking preventative measures and seeking prompt medical attention, the risk of contracting and spreading malaria can be greatly reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to be anaemic and the following blood test results are significant:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 68 g/l 115-155 g/l
White cell count 2.6 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
Platelets 160 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
Reticulocyte count 0.75% 0.5%-1.5%
Mean corpuscular volume 135 fl 76-98 fl
Ferritin 110 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
What is the most probable cause of her anaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Macrocytosis and its Differential Diagnosis
Macrocytosis is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream. While there are several possible causes of macrocytosis, one of the most common is vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can lead to anaemia and macrocytosis, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 130 femtolitres or more being a strong indicator of B12 deficiency.
Other potential causes of macrocytosis include drug-induced effects, excessive alcohol intake, and human immunodeficiency virus infection. However, these conditions may not necessarily lead to anaemia unless poor nutrition is also a factor.
Myelodysplasia and aplastic anaemia are also in the differential diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency, but the MCV level can help differentiate between these conditions. If the MCV is between 100-110 femtolitres, other causes of macrocytosis should be considered.
Overall, understanding the potential causes of macrocytosis and their differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic for a consultation. He recently had a splenectomy following a sports injury and wants to know what this means for him.
For how long is he at risk of pneumococcal infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: > 10 years
Explanation:Understanding the Lifelong Risk of Infection After Splenectomy
Splenectomy, the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it comes with a lifelong risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. The risk of OPSI is highest in the first year after surgery, but it remains a lifelong complication.
The most common causative organism is the pneumococcus, but other bacteria, viruses, and parasites can also cause severe infections. Children and patients with immunosuppressive disorders are at the greatest risk, but even those who underwent splenectomy due to trauma carry a lifelong susceptibility.
To reduce the risk of infection, patients should receive vaccinations against pneumococcus, meningococcus, Haemophilus influenza, and influenza. These immunizations should be given before or after the surgery, and additional doses may be needed. Lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended.
Infections related to splenectomy can occur early on, but they can also occur many years after the procedure. The risk of infection doesn’t significantly decrease even five years post-splenectomy. Therefore, patients should be aware of the lifelong risk of infection and take necessary precautions to prevent OPSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia underwent splenectomy because she did not respond to immunosuppression and chemotherapy.
What is the most likely long-term risk factor after splenectomy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infections
Explanation:The Risks and Benefits of Splenectomy
Splenectomy, or the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it is not without risks. One of the most significant risks is overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. Patients who have had a splenectomy are at a lifetime risk of 5% for OPSI, with the most common causative organism being the pneumococcus. Therefore, it is crucial for these patients to receive vaccinations and prophylactic antibiotics.
While splenectomy is not typically performed for cancer or liver fibrosis, it may be beneficial for certain haematological disorders such as autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and hereditary spherocytosis. In rare cases, splenectomy may also be indicated for patients with Hodgkin’s disease who are refractory to medical therapy.
Overall, the decision to undergo splenectomy should be carefully considered, weighing the potential benefits against the risks. Close monitoring and appropriate preventative measures should be taken to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 70-year-old woman presents with lethargy and breathlessness. She looks anaemic and significant blood results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 72 g/l 135-175 g/l
White cell count 2.4 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
Platelets 155 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
Reticulocytes 0.80% 0.5%-1.5%
Mean corpuscular volume 92 fl 76-98 fl
Ferritin 8 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate next option for further investigation of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate
Explanation:The Importance of Checking B12 and Folate Levels in Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia can mask the development of macrocytic anaemia, leading to a normal mean cell volume despite anaemia and iron deficiency. To avoid missing a potential underlying condition, it is crucial to check serum B12 and folate levels. Thalassaemia trait can also mask macrocytosis, but ferritin levels are elevated in this case. A blood film may not be helpful if macrocytosis has not developed, but in megaloblastic anaemia, oval macrocytes and hypersegmented nuclei in neutrophils can be seen. Therefore, checking B12 and folate levels is essential in the diagnosis and management of iron deficiency anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a routine medical check-up. He is in good health but has a history of sickle cell disease. According to his immunisation record, he received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine five years ago.
What is the recommended frequency for administering this vaccine to him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Every 5 years
Explanation:Individuals with sickle cell disease should be administered the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years to prevent pneumococcal infections, as they are at a heightened risk due to the hypofunction of their spleen caused by recurrent splenic infarction. Children should receive their first vaccine at 2 years of age, followed by subsequent doses every 5 years.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of nonspecific fatigue and has undergone blood tests. She schedules an appointment with you to discuss the results. She denies any sensory loss, weakness, headache, palpitations, or visual disturbance. She reports having a well-balanced diet. Upon examination, including neurological examination, everything appears normal. Her BMI is within the normal range. The following are the results:
- Hb 104 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- MCV 109 fl (80-100)
- Ferritin 76 ng/mL (20 - 230)
- Vitamin B12 130 ng/L (200 - 900)
- Folate 12.3 nmol/L (> 3.0)
- Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe intramuscular (IM) hydroxocobalamin
Explanation:The usual management for Vitamin B12 deficiency involves intramuscular B12 replacement, with a loading regime followed by injections every 2-3 months. In the case of a woman with macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels, the presence of intrinsic factor antibodies (IFAB) suggests pernicious anaemia, which requires lifelong hydroxocobalamin injections at 2-3 monthly intervals. While most patients with B12 deficiency are treated with IM replacement, NICE guidelines during the COVID pandemic recommend oral cyanocobalamin where possible, but this is not appropriate for this patient. Ferrous sulphate is a suitable treatment for iron deficiency anaemia. A haematology referral may be necessary if initial treatment is unsuccessful.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman from Kenya informs you that she has been diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. She underwent testing due to a family history of the condition.
What is the most probable characteristic that this patient possesses? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No symptoms at all
Explanation:Understanding G6PD Deficiency: Symptoms and Characteristics
G6PD deficiency is a common enzyme-deficiency disease that affects 400 million people worldwide. It is inherited as an X-linked disorder and has more than 300 reported variants. The disease protects against malaria, which may explain its high gene frequency. The enzyme is crucial in red blood cell metabolism, and G6PD enzyme activity is the definitive test for diagnosis.
Most individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic, but symptomatic patients are almost exclusively male due to the X-linked pattern of inheritance. Female carriers may also be affected, as inactivation of an X chromosome in certain cells creates a population of G6PD-deficient red blood cells co-existing with normal red cells.
While neonatal jaundice is not a symptom of G6PD deficiency, it may occur in some cases. It usually appears within 24 hours of birth and may require exchange transfusions. Abdominal pain is not a typical symptom, but back pain, abdominal pain, and jaundice may occur during a haemolytic crisis. Gallstones are more common in individuals with G6PD deficiency, and splenomegaly may be present in severe cases of haemolysis.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of G6PD deficiency is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a haemoglobin level of 185 g/l, raised serum vitamin B12 level, pruritus, neutrophilia, thrombocytosis, and splenomegaly.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycythaemia rubra vera
Explanation:Polycythaemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Polycythaemia rubra vera (PRV) is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by excessive production of red blood cells, leukocytes, and platelets. This condition arises when a single clone of stem cells gains a proliferative advantage over other stem cells. PRV is often discovered through routine blood tests and may present with nonspecific symptoms such as headache, weakness, and joint pain. However, about one-third of patients may present with thrombosis. Physical examination may reveal ruddy cyanosis, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and hypertension. The haemoglobin level is typically elevated in PRV.
Differential diagnosis includes von Willebrand’s disease, which presents with mucosal bleeding, and haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron accumulation in the liver and other organs. Secondary polycythaemia, on the other hand, is caused by an underlying condition and only affects red blood cells. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare disorder of the blood-coagulation system that causes extensive microscopic clots to form in small blood vessels throughout the body. It is a medical emergency and presents with symptoms such as purpura, fever, dyspnoea, confusion, and headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for hereditary thrombophilia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 54-year-old woman with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. Her sister was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism three years ago
Explanation:The probability of an underlying hereditary thrombophilia is high in the 54-year-old woman who has an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis and a first-degree relative with the same condition.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 68-year-old man is referred to you by the practice nurse. During a routine medical check-up, the nurse noticed an irregular pulse while taking his blood pressure. An ECG confirmed persistent atrial fibrillation. Despite being asymptomatic, he is surprised by the diagnosis as he has always been fairly fit and healthy. He has a medical history of childhood asthma and migraines, for which he uses salbutamol and ibuprofen PRN, respectively. His blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, and his clinical examination is otherwise normal. Recent blood tests show a HbA1c of 36 mmol/mol, total cholesterol of 5.2, LDL cholesterol of 2.6, and triglycerides of 2.2. What is the first-line antithrombotic treatment that should be considered for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral anticoagulation (for example, warfarin)
Explanation:Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Stroke Risk Assessment
The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a tool used to assess the risk of stroke and guide the use of thromboprophylaxis. It takes into account various risk factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, prior stroke or thromboembolism, vascular disease, and sex. Each factor is assigned a certain number of points, and the total score is used to determine whether oral anticoagulation is necessary.
If the score is 1 or more, oral anticoagulation is recommended, while a score of 0 indicates that no anticoagulation is needed. However, if the score is 1 but the only point scored is for female gender, then it is treated as a score of 0. It is important to note that aspirin, clopidogrel, and dipyridamole are not recommended alone or in combination.
In summary, the CHA2DS2-VASc score is a useful tool for assessing stroke risk and guiding thromboprophylaxis use. By taking into account various risk factors, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the appropriate treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his neck which he first noticed two months ago. He tried several homeopathic medications but the lump steadily increased in size. He also noticed some shortness of breath and sweating at night. On examination, he has a large mass that is firm, non-tender and not fixed to deeper structures or to the skin. You suspect the mass is lymph nodes. He is slightly pale but no other masses are palpable. His temperature is 38°C.
Which of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excision biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging for Unilateral Lymphadenopathy: Excision Biopsy as the Best Option
Unilateral lymphadenopathy without pain is most likely caused by lymphoma, either Hodgkin’s or non-Hodgkin’s. Tuberculosis is a less likely diagnosis but should not be ruled out, especially in patients with risk factors. Systemic symptoms (B symptoms) suggest Hodgkin’s disease. Excisional node biopsy is the best diagnostic option as it allows for the identification of lymphomas based on lymph node morphology. CT scans of the thorax and abdomen are used for staging Hodgkin’s lymphoma, while fine-needle aspiration biopsy is less helpful as it fails to reveal the lymph node architecture and may not retrieve Reed-Sternberg cells. MRI scans of the neck are not commonly used for lymphoma assessment, while ultrasonography is commonly used for thyroid lump detection and assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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