-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
What do T waves represent on an ECG?
Your Answer: Atrial repolarisation
Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The Electrical Activity of the Heart and the ECG
The ECG (electrocardiogram) is a medical test that records the electrical activity of the heart. This activity is responsible for different parts of the ECG. The first part is the atrial depolarisation, which is represented by the P wave. This wave conducts down the bundle of His to the ventricles, causing the ventricular depolarisation. This is shown on the ECG as the QRS complex. Finally, the ventricular repolarisation is represented by the T wave.
It is important to note that atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG. This is because it is of lower amplitude compared to the QRS complex. the different parts of the ECG and their corresponding electrical activity can help medical professionals diagnose and treat various heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?Your Answer: Vagal manoeuvres
Explanation:SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?
Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps
Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps
Explanation:Different Cusps of Heart Valves
The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:
Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.
Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man with a known harsh ejection systolic murmur on cardiac examination collapses and passes away during a sporting event. His father and uncle also died suddenly in their forties. The reason for death is identified as an obstruction of the ventricular outflow tract caused by an abnormality in the ventricular septum.
What is the accurate diagnosis for this condition?Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Types of Cardiomyopathy and Congenital Heart Defects
Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart diseases that affect the structure and function of the heart muscle. There are different types of cardiomyopathy, each with its own causes and symptoms. Additionally, there are congenital heart defects that can affect the heart’s structure and function from birth. Here are some of the most common types:
1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: This is an inherited condition that causes the heart muscle to thicken, making it harder for the heart to pump blood. It can lead to sudden death in young athletes.
2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy: This is a rare form of cardiomyopathy that is caused by diseases that restrict the heart’s ability to fill with blood during diastole.
3. Dilated cardiomyopathy: This is the most common type of cardiomyopathy, which causes the heart chambers to enlarge and weaken, leading to heart failure.
4. Mitral stenosis: This is a narrowing of the mitral valve, which can impede blood flow between the left atrium and ventricle.
In addition to these types of cardiomyopathy, there are also congenital heart defects, such as ventricular septal defect, which is the most common congenital heart defect. This condition creates a direct connection between the right and left ventricles, affecting the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively.
Understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and congenital heart defects is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fatigue, it is important to seek medical attention promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance from a music festival. It is a hot day and she had been standing in the crowd when she suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. She is now fully alert and gives a history of feeling dizzy and nauseated before the collapse. She tells you that she is healthy, plays tennis for her local club and is a keen runner. She has had no previous episodes of losing consciousness. Her father has recently had a heart attack aged 60 years. Her resting electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a corrected QT interval of 400 ms and a slightly prolonged PR interval but is otherwise normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Long QT syndrome
Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Vasovagal Syncope
Vasovagal syncope is a common cause of transient loss of consciousness. The hallmark of this condition is the three Ps – pallor, palpitations, and sweating. In patients with a history of vasovagal syncope, the ECG is typically normal. A prolonged PR interval may be seen in young athletes, but first-degree heart block rarely causes cardiac syncope. Ischemic heart disease is not a significant factor in this condition, and a family history of myocardial infarction is not relevant.
If there are no features suggesting a more serious cause of transient loss of consciousness or a significant personal or family cardiac history, the patient can be discharged from the Emergency Department. However, they should be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any further episodes.
Other conditions that may cause transient loss of consciousness include complete heart block, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, substance misuse, and long QT syndrome. However, in this case, the patient’s history and ECG are not suggestive of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the cardiac cycle?
Your Answer: The second heart sound occurs at the same time as the QRS complex
Correct Answer: The QT interval gives a rough indication of the duration of ventricular systole
Explanation:Understanding the Electrocardiogram: Key Components and Timing
As a junior doctor, interpreting electrocardiograms (ECGs) is a crucial skill. One important aspect to understand is the timing of key components. The QT interval, which measures ventricular depolarization and repolarization, gives an indication of the duration of ventricular systole. However, this measurement is dependent on heart rate and is corrected using Bazett’s formula. The P wave results from atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex is caused by ventricular depolarization. The first heart sound, which coincides with the QRS complex, results from closure of the AV valves as the ventricles contract. The second heart sound, occurring at about the same time as the T wave, is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. Understanding the timing of these components is essential for accurate ECG interpretation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later, he is admitted to hospital with weight loss, palpitations, breathlessness and right ventricular hypertrophy. On examination he is found to have an audible pan systolic murmur.
Which heart valve is most likely to have been affected following rheumatic fever?Your Answer: Mitral
Explanation:Rheumatic Heart Disease and Valve Involvement
Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that results from acute rheumatic fever and causes progressive damage to the heart valves over time. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve, with damage patterns varying by age. Younger patients tend to have regurgitation, while those in adolescence have a mix of regurgitation and stenosis, and early adulthood onwards tend to have pure mitral stenosis. Aortic valve involvement can also occur later in life. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing mitral regurgitation, causing palpitations and breathlessness. While the pulmonary valve can be affected, it is rare, and tricuspid involvement is even rarer and only present in advanced stages. Aortic valve involvement can produce similar symptoms, but with different murmurs on examination. When the aortic valve is involved, all leaflets are affected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman has been admitted for treatment of lower extremity cellulitis. During your examination, you hear three heart sounds present across all four auscultation sites. You observe that the latter two heart sounds become more distant from each other during inspiration.
What is the physiological explanation for this phenomenon?Your Answer: Increased return to the right heart during inspiration, which prolongs closure of the pulmonary valve
Explanation:Interpretation of Heart Sounds
Explanation: When listening to heart sounds, it is important to understand the physiological and pathological factors that can affect them. During inspiration, there is an increased return of blood to the right heart, which can prolong the closure of the pulmonary valve. This is a normal physiological response. Right-to-left shunting, on the other hand, can cause cyanosis and prolong the closure of the aortic valve. A stiff left ventricle, often seen in long-standing hypertension, can produce a third heart sound called S4, but this sound does not vary with inspiration. An atrial septal defect will cause fixed splitting of S2 and will not vary with inspiration. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of heart sounds can aid in the diagnosis and management of cardiovascular conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent sharp central chest pains over the past 48 hours. The pain worsens with exertion and when he lies down. He reports no difficulty breathing. The ECG reveals widespread ST elevation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Distinguishing Pericarditis from Other Cardiac Conditions: A Clinical Overview
Pericarditis is a common cause of widespread ST elevation, characterized by chest pain that is often pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include dry cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms, with the most important sign being pericardial rub. It can be caused by viral infections, post-MI, tuberculosis, or uraemia.
While pulmonary embolism may cause similar pleuritic pain, it would not result in the same ECG changes as pericarditis. Acute MI causes ST elevation in the affected coronary artery territory, with reciprocal ST depression. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with syncope or pre-syncope, and ECG changes consistent with left ventricular and septal hypertrophy. Ventricular aneurysm is another cause of ST elevation, but the clinical scenario and patient age align with a diagnosis of acute pericarditis.
In summary, recognizing the unique clinical presentation and ECG changes of pericarditis is crucial in distinguishing it from other cardiac conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure
When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.
Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.
Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of dyspnoea on exertion. She denies a history of cough, wheeze and weight loss but admits to a brief episode of syncope two weeks ago. Her past medical history includes, chronic kidney disease stage IV and stage 2 hypertension. She is currently taking lisinopril, amlodipine and atorvastatin. She is an ex-smoker with a 15-pack year history.
On examination it is noted that she has a low-volume pulse and an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge. The murmur is noted to radiate to both carotids. Moreover, she has good bilateral air entry, vesicular breath sounds and no added breath sounds on auscultation of the respiratory fields. The patient’s temperature is recorded as 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/90 mmHg, and a pulse of 68 beats per minute. A chest X-ray is taken which is reported as the following:
Investigation Result
Chest radiograph Technically adequate film. Normal cardiothoracic ratio. Prominent right ascending aorta, normal descending aorta. No pleural disease. No bony abnormality.
Which of the following most likely explains her dyspnoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve does not open completely, resulting in dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. It produces a narrow pulse pressure, a low volume pulse, and an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. An enlarged right ascending aorta is a common finding in aortic stenosis. Calcification of the valve is diagnostic and can be observed using CT or fluoroscopy. Aortic stenosis is commonly caused by calcification of the aortic valve due to a congenitally bicuspid valve, connective tissue disease, or rheumatic heart disease. Echocardiography confirms the diagnosis, and valve replacement or intervention is indicated with critical stenosis <0.5 cm or when symptomatic. Aortic regurgitation is characterized by a widened pulse pressure, collapsing pulse, and an early diastolic murmur heard loudest in the left lower sternal edge with the patient upright. Patients can be asymptomatic until heart failure manifests. Causes include calcification and previous rheumatic fever. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a congenital or acquired condition characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Acquired VSD is mainly a result of previous myocardial infarction. VSD can be asymptomatic or cause heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard best at the apex that radiates towards the axilla. A third heart sound may also be heard. Patients can remain asymptomatic until dilated cardiac failure occurs, upon which dyspnea and peripheral edema are among the most common symptoms. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic rumble heard best at the apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. Auscultation of the precordium may also reveal an opening snap. Patients are at increased risk of atrial fibrillation due to left atrial enlargement. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is a previous history of rheumatic fever.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man presents with syncope, which was preceded by palpitations. He has no past medical history and is generally fit and well. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a positive delta wave in V1.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White (WPW) syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating ECG Features of Various Heart Conditions
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a congenital heart condition characterized by an accessory conduction pathway connecting the atria and ventricles. Type A WPW syndrome, identified by a delta wave in V1, can cause supraventricular tachycardia due to the absence of rate-lowering properties in the accessory pathway. Type B WPW syndrome, on the other hand, causes a negative R wave in V1. Radiofrequency ablation is the definitive treatment for WPW syndrome.
Maladie de Roger is a type of ventricular septal defect that does not significantly affect blood flow. Atrioventricular septal defect, another congenital heart disease, can cause ECG features related to blood shunting.
Brugada syndrome, which has three distinct types, does not typically present with a positive delta wave in V1 on ECG. Tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, presents earlier with symptoms such as cyanosis and exertional dyspnea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his ankle after a night out drinking vodka red-bulls. His blood pressure is low at 90/50 mmHg. He insists that it is never normally that low.
Which one of these is a possible cause for this reading?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incorrect cuff size (cuff too large)
Explanation:Common Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
Blood pressure readings can be affected by various factors, including cuff size, alcohol and caffeine consumption, white coat hypertension, pain, and more. It is important to be aware of these factors to ensure accurate readings.
Incorrect Cuff Size:
Using a cuff that is too large can result in an underestimation of blood pressure, while a cuff that is too small can cause a falsely elevated reading.Alcohol and Caffeine:
Both alcohol and caffeine can cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.White Coat Hypertension:
Many patients experience elevated blood pressure in medical settings due to anxiety. To obtain an accurate reading, blood pressure should be measured repeatedly on separate occasions.Pain:
Pain is a common cause of blood pressure increase and should be taken into consideration during medical procedures. A significant rise in blood pressure during a procedure may indicate inadequate anesthesia.Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs when walking more than 200 meters for the past six months. During physical examination, her legs appear pale and cool without signs of swelling or redness. The palpation of dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses is not possible. The patient has a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 and has been smoking for 25 pack years. What is the most probable vascular abnormality responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:Arteriosclerosis and Related Conditions
Arteriosclerosis is a medical condition that refers to the hardening and loss of elasticity of medium or large arteries. Atherosclerosis, on the other hand, is a specific type of arteriosclerosis that occurs when fatty materials such as cholesterol accumulate in the artery walls, causing them to thicken. This chronic inflammatory response is caused by the accumulation of macrophages and white blood cells, and is often promoted by low-density lipoproteins. The formation of multiple plaques within the arteries characterizes atherosclerosis.
Medial calcific sclerosis is another form of arteriosclerosis that occurs when calcium deposits form in the middle layer of walls of medium-sized vessels. This condition is often not clinically apparent unless it is severe, and it is more common in people over 50 years old and in diabetics. It can be seen as opaque vessels on radiographs.
Lymphatic obstruction, on the other hand, is a blockage of the lymph vessels that drain fluid from tissues throughout the body. This condition may cause lymphoedema, and the most common reason for this is the removal or enlargement of the lymph nodes.
It is important to understand these conditions and their differences to properly diagnose and treat patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She has known persistently uncontrolled hypertension, previously managed in the community. Blood tests are performed as follows:
Investigation Patient Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/
Chloride (Cl–) 100 mEq/l 96–106 mEq/l
What is the next most appropriate investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldosterone-to-renin ratio
Explanation:Investigating Hypertension in a Young Patient: The Importance of Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio
Hypertension in a young patient with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia can be caused by renal artery stenosis or an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma. To determine the cause, measuring aldosterone levels alone is not enough. Both renin and aldosterone levels should be measured, and the aldosterone-to-renin ratio should be evaluated. If hyperaldosteronism is confirmed, CT or MRI of the adrenal glands is done to locate the cause. If both are normal, adrenal vein sampling may be performed. MR angiogram of renal arteries is not a first-line investigation. Similarly, CT angiogram of renal arteries should not be the first choice. 24-hour urine metanephrine levels are not useful in this scenario. The electrolyte abnormalities point towards elevated aldosterone levels, not towards a phaeochromocytoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 51-year-old man passed away from a massive middle cerebral artery stroke. He had no previous medical issues. Upon autopsy, it was discovered that his heart weighed 400 g and had normal valves and coronary arteries. The atria and ventricles were not enlarged. The right ventricular walls were normal, while the left ventricular wall was uniformly hypertrophied to 20-mm thickness. What is the probable reason for these autopsy results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Differentiating Cardiac Conditions: Causes and Risks
Cardiac conditions can have varying causes and risks, making it important to differentiate between them. Essential hypertension, for example, is characterized by uniform left ventricular hypertrophy and is a major risk factor for stroke. On the other hand, atrial fibrillation is a common cause of stroke but does not cause left ventricular hypertrophy and is rarer with normal atrial size. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is more common in men and often has a familial tendency, typically causes asymmetric hypertrophy of the septum and apex and can lead to arrhythmogenic or unexplained sudden cardiac death. Dilated cardiomyopathies, such as idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, often have no clear precipitant but cause a dilated left ventricular size, increasing the risk for a mural thrombus and an embolic risk. Finally, tuberculous pericarditis is difficult to diagnose due to non-specific features such as cough, dyspnoea, sweats, and weight loss, with typical constrictive pericarditis findings being very late features with fluid overload and severe dyspnoea. Understanding the causes and risks associated with these cardiac conditions can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the following options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome and coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Common Cardiovascular Abnormalities Associated with Genetic Syndromes
Various genetic syndromes are associated with cardiovascular abnormalities. Turner syndrome is linked with coarctation of the aorta, aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, aortic dilation, and dissection. Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic root dilation, mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, and aortic dissection. Kartagener syndrome can lead to bicuspid aortic valve, dextrocardia, bronchiectasis, and infertility. However, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not associated with congenital cardiac conditions. Finally, congenital rubella syndrome is linked with patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, and pulmonary stenosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was discharged without medication. His total cholesterol is 9 mmol/l, with triglycerides of 1.2 mmol/l. He is a non-smoker with a blood pressure of 145/75. His father passed away from an MI at the age of 43.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-dose atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Hypercholesterolemia and Recent MI
When treating a patient with hypercholesterolemia and a recent myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to choose the most appropriate treatment option. In this case, high-dose atorvastatin is the best choice due to the patient’s high cholesterol levels and family history. It is crucial to note that medication should have been prescribed before the patient’s discharge.
While dietary advice can be helpful, it is not the most urgent treatment option. Ezetimibe would only be prescribed if a statin were contraindicated. In this high-risk patient, low-dose atorvastatin is not sufficient, and high-dose atorvastatin is required, provided it is tolerated. If cholesterol control does not improve with high-dose atorvastatin, ezetimibe can be added at a later check-up. Overall, the priority is to control the patient’s high cholesterol levels with medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and dizziness. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse.
Which of the following conditions in his past medical history might be the cause of his presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Common Endocrine Disorders and their Cardiac Manifestations
Endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, including the development of arrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia that can be caused by hyperthyroidism, which should be tested for in patients presenting with this condition. Other signs of thyrotoxicosis include sinus tachycardia, physiological tremor, lid lag, and lid retraction. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, can also present with pretibial myxoedema, proptosis, chemosis, and thyroid complex ophthalmoplegia. Mnemonics such as SHIMMERS and ABCD can be used to remember the causes and management of atrial fibrillation.
Cushing syndrome, hyperparathyroidism, and hypothyroidism can also have cardiac manifestations, although they are not typically associated with arrhythmias. Cushing syndrome is not commonly associated with arrhythmias, while hyperparathyroidism can cause hypercalcemia, leading to non-specific symptoms such as aches and pains, dehydration, fatigue, mood disturbance, constipation, and renal stones. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, may cause bradycardia and can be caused by various factors such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, subacute thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, and iatrogenic factors such as post-carbimazole treatment, radio-iodine, thyroidectomy, and certain medications like lithium and amiodarone.
In summary, endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, and it is important to be aware of their potential cardiac manifestations, including arrhythmias. Early detection and management of these conditions can help prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An ECG is done and shows ST elevation, indicating an infarct on the inferior surface of the heart. The patient undergoes primary PCI, during which a blockage is discovered in a vessel located within the coronary sulcus.
What is the most probable location of the occlusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Identifying the Affected Artery in a Myocardial Infarction
Based on the ECG findings of ST elevation in the inferior leads and the primary PCI result of an occlusion within the coronary sulcus, it is likely that the right coronary artery has been affected. The anterior interventricular artery does not supply the inferior surface of the heart and does not lie within the coronary sulcus. The coronary sinus is a venous structure and is unlikely to be the site of occlusion. The right (acute) marginal artery supplies a portion of the inferior surface of the heart but does not run within the coronary sulcus. Although the left coronary artery lies within the coronary sulcus, the ECG findings suggest an infarction of the inferior surface of the heart, which is evidence for a right coronary artery event.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, bibasilar wet pulmonary crackles are noted with mild bilateral lower limb pitting oedema. His jugular vein is slightly distended. An S4 sound is audible on cardiac auscultation. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows evidence of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy. Chest radiography shows bilateral interstitial oedema without cardiomegaly.
Which one of the following findings is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired LV relaxation – increased LV end-diastolic pressure – normal LV end-systolic volume
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Left Ventricular Dysfunction in Heart Failure
Left ventricular (LV) dysfunction can result in heart failure, which is a clinical diagnosis that can be caused by systolic or diastolic dysfunction, or both. Diastolic dysfunction is characterized by impaired LV relaxation, resulting in increased LV end-diastolic pressure but normal LV end-systolic volume. This type of dysfunction can be caused by factors such as LV hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. On the other hand, impaired LV contraction results in systolic dysfunction, which is characterized by LV dilation, increased LV end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes, and increased LV end-diastolic pressure. It is important to differentiate between these types of LV dysfunction in order to properly diagnose and manage heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Explanation:Systolic Valvular Murmurs
A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.
If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old known intravenous drug user presents to your GP clinic with complaints of fatigue, night sweats and joint pain. During the examination, you observe a new early-diastolic murmur. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Causes of Infective Endocarditis and their Characteristics
Infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. The most common causative organism of acute infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, especially in patients with risk factors such as prosthetic valves or intravenous drug use. Symptoms and signs consistent with infective endocarditis include fever, heart murmur, and arthritis, as well as pathognomonic signs like splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Roth spots, Janeway lesions, and petechiae.
Group B streptococci is less common than Staphylococcus aureus but has a high mortality rate of 70%. Streptococcus viridans is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it does cause 50-60% of subacute cases. Group D streptococci is the third most common cause of infective endocarditis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis and usually requires surgery for cure.
In summary, knowing the characteristics of the different causative organisms of infective endocarditis can help in the diagnosis and treatment of this serious condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A radiologist examining a routine chest X-ray in a 50-year-old man is taken aback by the presence of calcification of a valve orifice located at the upper left sternum at the level of the third costal cartilage.
Which valve is most likely affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The pulmonary valve
Explanation:Location and Auscultation of Heart Valves
The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through its chambers. Each valve has a specific location and can be auscultated to assess its function.
The Pulmonary Valve: Located at the junction of the sternum and left third costal cartilage, the pulmonary valve is best auscultated at the level of the second left intercostal space parasternally.
The Aortic Valve: Positioned posterior to the left side of the sternum at the level of the third intercostal space, the aortic valve is best auscultated in the second right intercostal space parasternally.
The Mitral Valve: Found posteriorly to the left side of the sternum at the level of left fourth costal cartilage, in the fifth intercostal space in mid-clavicular line, the mitral valve can be auscultated to assess its function.
The Valve of the Coronary Sinus: The Thebesian valve of the coronary sinus is an endocardial flap that plays a role in regulating blood flow through the heart.
The Tricuspid Valve: Located behind the lower mid-sternum at the level of the fourth and fifth intercostal spaces, the tricuspid valve is best auscultated over the lower sternum.
Understanding the location and auscultation of heart valves is essential for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syncope
Explanation:Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:
– Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
– Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
– Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
– Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
– Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man experienced acute kidney injury caused by rhabdomyolysis after completing his first marathon. He was started on haemodialysis due to uraemic pericarditis. What symptom or sign would indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Understanding Pericarditis and Related Symptoms
Pericarditis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. One of the signs of pericarditis is pulsus paradoxus, which is a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg during inspiration. This occurs when the pericardial effusion normalizes the wall pressures across all the chambers, causing the septum to bulge into the left ventricle, reducing stroke volume and blood pressure. Pleuritic chest pain is not a common symptom of pericarditis, and confusion is not related to pericarditis or incipient tamponade. A pericardial friction rub is an audible medical sign used in the diagnosis of pericarditis, while a pericardial knock is a pulse synchronous sound that can be heard in constrictive pericarditis. Understanding these symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and management of pericarditis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old obese woman is admitted with episodic retrosternal chest pain not relieved by rest, for the past 3 weeks. The pain is described as squeezing in nature, and is not affected by meals or breathing. The episodic pain is of fixed pattern and is of same intensity. She has a background of diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidaemia and hypertension. Her family history is remarkable for a paternal myocardial infarction at the age of 63. She is currently haemodynamically stable.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute coronary syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Coronary Syndrome from Other Cardiac Conditions
The patient in question presents with retrosternal chest pain that is squeezing in nature and unrelated to meals or breathing. This highly suggests a cardiac origin for the pain. However, the episodic nature of the pain and its duration of onset over three weeks point towards unstable angina, a type of acute coronary syndrome.
It is important to differentiate this condition from other cardiac conditions such as aortic dissection, which presents with sudden-onset tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. Stable angina pectoris, on the other hand, manifests with episodic cardiac chest pain that has a fixed pattern of precipitation, duration, and termination, lasting at least one month.
Myocarditis is associated with a constant stabbing chest pain and recent flu-like symptoms or upper respiratory infection. Aortic stenosis may also cause unstable angina, but the most common cause of this condition is critical coronary artery occlusion.
In summary, careful consideration of the pattern, duration, and characteristics of chest pain can help differentiate acute coronary syndrome from other cardiac conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman came to the Heart Failure Clinic complaining of shortness of breath. During the examination, a loud pansystolic murmur was heard throughout her chest. The murmur was more audible during inspiration than expiration, and it was difficult to determine where it was loudest. Additionally, she had distended neck veins and an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation (TR)
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: A Guide
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here is a guide to differentiating some common heart murmurs:
Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)
TR presents with a loud pan-systolic murmur audible throughout the chest, often loudest in the tricuspid area. The most common cause is heart failure, with regurgitation being functional due to myocardial dilation. Patients may have raised JVPs, distended neck veins, and signs of right-sided heart failure.Aortic Sclerosis
Aortic sclerosis is a loud murmur early in systole, with normal S1 and S2. It does not affect pulse pressure, and there is no radiation to the right carotid artery. Right-sided murmurs are louder on inspiration.Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a mid-systolic ejection murmur, heard best over the aortic area or right second intercostal space, with radiation into the right carotid artery. It may reduce pulse pressure to <40 mmHg, and S2 may be diminished. Pulmonary Stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis gives a crescendo-decrescendo ejection systolic murmur, loudest over the pulmonary area. It is not pan-systolic, and S2 splitting is widened due to prolonged pulmonic ejection.Mitral Regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation is a pan-systolic murmur heard best over the mitral area, radiating to the axilla. It is not increased on inspiration.Remember to listen carefully to S1 and S2, check for radiation, and consider associated symptoms to differentiate heart murmurs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with general malaise and epigastric pain of 2 hours’ duration. She is hypotensive (blood pressure 90/55) and has jugular venous distension. Cardiac workup reveals ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6. A diagnosis of high lateral myocardial infarction is made, and the patient is prepared for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Blockage of which of the following arteries is most likely to lead to this type of infarction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left (obtuse) marginal artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and their Associated ECG Changes
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries, and blockages in these arteries can lead to myocardial infarction (heart attack). Different coronary arteries supply blood to different parts of the heart, and the location of the blockage can be identified by changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) readings.
Left (obtuse) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads I, aVL, V2, V5, and V6, with reciprocal changes in the inferior leads.
Anterior Interventricular (Left Anterior Descending) Artery: This artery supplies the anterior walls of both ventricles and the anterior part of the interventricular septum. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads V2-V4, sometimes extending to V1 and V5.
Posterior Interventricular Artery: This artery is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the posterior walls of both ventricles. ECG changes associated with blockages in this artery are not specific.
Right (Acute) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the right ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads II, III, aVF, and sometimes V1.
Right Mainstem Coronary Artery: Inferior myocardial infarction is most commonly associated with blockages in this artery (80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (20% of cases). ECG changes in this type of infarct are seen in leads II, III, and aVF.
Understanding Coronary Arteries and ECG Changes in Myocardial Infarction
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)