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Question 1
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A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams, an 86-year-old retired dock worker with a history of hypertension and mitral valve replacement, who visited his general practitioner with symptoms of fever, night sweats and fatigue? During examination, his hands showed loss of angle between the nail fold and nail plate, a bulbous fingertip, and painful, erythematous nodules present on both hands.
Your Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:The patient’s nail signs suggest a diagnosis of clubbing, which is commonly seen in various internal conditions such as cardiac issues like infective endocarditis and cyanotic congenital heart disease, respiratory problems like bronchial cancer, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis, gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease, biliary cirrhosis, and malabsorption, and other conditions like thyroid acropachy. The presence of Osler’s nodes, painful nodules caused by immune complex deposition, further supports a diagnosis of infective endocarditis, which is commonly associated with this symptom. Although the patient has a history of potential asbestos exposure, the history of heart valve replacement, current symptoms, and nail signs point towards infective endocarditis as the likely diagnosis. Other conditions like inflammatory bowel disease, pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis can cause clubbing but not Osler’s nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore and itchy patch around her upper lip for the past 3 days. The mother noticed a few small blisters on the lip that burst, leaving brown and/or honey-coloured crusts on the affected area. The patch has been gradually increasing in size. After examination, the GP diagnoses impetigo.
What is the most probable cause of impetigo in this case?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Impetigo and its Causes
Impetigo is a highly contagious skin infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which presents as red sores and blisters on the face, leaving behind golden crusts. While the condition is usually self-limiting, treatment is recommended to prevent spreading to others. Staphylococcus epidermidis, a normal human flora, is an unlikely cause of impetigo, but may infect immunocompromised patients in hospital settings. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is associated with urinary tract infections, while Streptococcus viridans is found in the oral cavity and can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis. Candida albicans, a pathogenic yeast, commonly causes candidiasis in immunocompromised individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
What is the definitive management for this patient?Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because she is concerned about patches of depigmentation on her skin. There are patches on the back of her hands and her elbows, but she is particularly concerned about depigmentation around her mouth and affecting her breasts. Her only other past history of note is a tendency to gain weight over the past few months. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
Depigmented skin areas fluoresce bright blue-white on Wood’s lamp inspection.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Vitiligo, Lichen Planus, Leprosy, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Idiopathic Hypomelanosis
Vitiligo: This condition is characterized by depigmentation and is often associated with autoimmune diseases such as hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, and alopecia. It is caused by the destruction of melanocytes in the interfollicular dermis and can be treated with phototherapy, corticosteroids, and tacrolimus ointment.
Lichen Planus: This condition presents as a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape, often with a fine scale.
Leprosy: This infectious disease is caused by Mycobacterium leprae and is most commonly found in South East Asia, Africa, and South America. Diagnosis requires the presence of reddish patches or hypopigmented areas of skin with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the presence of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies.
Pityriasis Versicolor: This common skin complaint is caused by the proliferation of the yeast Malassezia furfur and presents as flaky, discolored patches mainly on the chest and back.
Idiopathic Hypomelanosis: This condition is characterized by flat, white spots on the shins and forearms, typically appearing as part of the aging process and possibly due to sun damage. However, the age and distribution of the patient make this diagnosis doubtful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?
Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline
Explanation:Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline
Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.
The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma
When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.
A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.
In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.
During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.
What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
(slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans
Explanation:Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis
Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 14-year-old female has been experiencing multiple, non-tender, erythematosus, annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery for the past two weeks. These lesions are only present on her trunk. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea
Pityriasis rosea (PR) is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents and young adults. It is often associated with upper respiratory infections and is characterized by a herald patch, which is a circular or oval-shaped lesion that appears on the trunk, neck, or extremities. The herald patch is usually about 1-2 cm in diameter and has a central, salmon-colored area surrounded by a dark red border.
About one to two weeks after the herald patch appears, a generalized rash develops. This rash is symmetrical and consists of macules with a collarette scale that aligns with the skin’s cleavage lines. The rash can last for up to six weeks before resolving on its own.
Overall, PR is a benign condition that does not require treatment. However, if the rash is particularly itchy or uncomfortable, topical corticosteroids or antihistamines may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. It is important to note that PR is not contagious and does not pose any serious health risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 19-year-old man is suffering from acne vulgaris, with inflamed, open comedones on his face, chest and neck. What micro-organism degrades sebum to produce inflammatory fatty acids in such cases?
Your Answer: Propionibacterium acnes
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and their Causes
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition among adolescents and young adults, particularly men. Hormonal changes stimulate the sebaceous glands to produce more sebum, leading to the formation of open comedones, which are inflamed follicles with a central dark plug of keratin. Propionibacterium acnes is responsible for breaking down complex lipids in sebum into free fatty acids, which cause inflammation of hair follicles. Treatment with antibiotics and 13-cis-retinoic acid can alleviate the symptoms of acne vulgaris.
Molluscum contagiosum is caused by the poxvirus, which leads to epidermal hyperplasia and ellipsoid molluscum bodies in the stratum corneum.
Impetigo is a bacterial infection of the skin caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It is highly contagious and often affects healthy children. The infection starts as a reddened macule and progresses to multiple serum-filled pustules that rupture and form a yellowish crust.
Papillomavirus causes warts or verrucae, which are common on the hands. They appear as several papules with a rough, irregular surface.
Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur, a fungus that causes superficial fungal infections in the skin. Other forms of tinea are also caused by fungal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?
Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream
Correct Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel
Explanation:Treatment Options for Head Lice
Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:
Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.
Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.
Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.
Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.
Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.
In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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You are asked to see a 40-year-old man with difficult-to-treat psoriasis. He has extensive plaque psoriasis and has tried a number of therapies, including retinoids, topical corticosteroids and photochemotherapy (PUVA).
What would be the next best step in management?Your Answer: Start methotrexate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
Chronic plaque psoriasis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when topical therapies are not effective. In such cases, systemic therapies may be considered. Methotrexate and ciclosporin are two such options that can be effective in inducing remission. However, it is important to weigh the potential side-effects of these medications before starting treatment. Vitamin D analogues and coal tar products may not be effective in severe cases of psoriasis. Oral steroids are also not recommended as a long-term solution. Biological therapy, such as etanercept, should only be considered when standard systemic therapies have failed. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and trial other treatments before considering biological agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient with a chronic skin condition is under annual review with the Dermatology team. At her review appointment, the patient mentions that she has been experiencing episodes of new skin lesions appearing in areas where she has scratched, often appearing in straight lines. The doctor examines a typical lesion, and notes that they are examples of Koebner phenomenon.
In which one of the following conditions is the Koebner phenomenon MOST likely to be seen?Your Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Conditions and Cutaneous Injury
The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of cutaneous injury, often caused by scratching, in otherwise healthy skin. This phenomenon is commonly seen in skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, and lichen planus. It may also manifest in association with other conditions such as viral warts, pyoderma gangrenosum, and molluscum contagiosum.
In cases where the Koebner phenomenon occurs, the new lesions have the same clinical and histological features as the patient’s original skin disease. They are often linear in nature, following the route of cutaneous injury.
It is important to note that not all skin conditions exhibit the Koebner phenomenon. Rosacea, eczema, pityriasis rosea, and cellulitis are examples of skin conditions that do not exhibit this phenomenon.
In summary, the Koebner phenomenon is a unique characteristic of certain skin conditions that can occur in response to cutaneous injury. Understanding this phenomenon can aid in the diagnosis and management of these skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies
Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.
Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.
Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.
Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.
Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff. He also reports the presence of scaling lesions on his face. Upon examination, there is waxing scale with underlying erythema on his eyebrows, scalp, and nasolabial fold. The patient has a history of HIV for the past 3 years and is currently taking retroviral medication. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a superficial fungal infection, Malassezia furfur. It typically affects the scalp and face, presenting as yellow papules and scaling plaques with underlying erythema. Treatment involves topical steroid and anti-fungal drugs.
Contact Dermatitis: Hypersensitivity reactions to substances like latex, jewellery, soap, and detergents can cause pruritic erythematous rashes with papulo-vesicular lesions at the site of contact.
Atopic Dermatitis: Patients with atopic dermatitis have high levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and present with scaly, erythematosus, pruritic skin lesions, most commonly on the flexor surfaces.
Acne: More common in women than men, acne presents as papulo-pustular lesions on the face and other body areas. Rupture of these lesions releases free fatty acids, which further irritate the skin and extend the lesions. Both black open comedones and closed white comedones may be present.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease causes discrete, smooth, circular areas of hair loss on the scalp, without associated scaling, inflammation, or broken hair. It can involve a single or multiple areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?Your Answer: Irregular shape or border
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions
The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.
Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. He has had these skin lesions on and off over the last 2 years. The lesions become less severe during summer, aggravate at the time of stress and recur at the site of skin trauma. Histopathological examination of the skin biopsy specimen shows epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils inside the epidermis.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Psoriasis, Lichen Planus, Seborrheic Dermatitis, Lichen Simplex Chronicus, and Tinea Corporis are all common skin conditions with distinct characteristics.
Psoriasis is identified by thick, well-defined, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. The Koebner phenomenon, the occurrence of typical lesions at sites of trauma, is often seen in psoriasis. Exposure to ultraviolet light is therapeutic for psoriatic skin lesions, which is why the lesions become less severe during summer. Pruritus is not always present in psoriasis.
Lichen Planus is characterised by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red to violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.
Seborrheic Dermatitis manifests with itching, ill-defined erythema, and greasy scaling involving the scalp, nasolabial fold or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.
Lichen Simplex Chronicus is characterised by skin lichenification in the area of chronic itching and scratching. Epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis with intraepidermal neutrophils are features of psoriasis, not lichen simplex chronicus.
Tinea Corporis is a ringworm characterised by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined, active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematous and scaly with papules, vesicles and pustules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old swimming instructor presents with an abrupt onset of diffuse inflamed, red, scaly skin changes that developed within 2 days. The medical team suspects erythroderma and initiates treatment with oral steroids. What is the most probable dermatological disorder that can lead to erythroderma?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions and Their Relationship to Erythroderma
Erythroderma is a condition that causes inflammation, redness, and scaling of over 90% of the skin surface. It can be caused by various dermatological conditions, including eczema, psoriasis, cutaneous T cell lymphoma, drug reactions, blistering conditions, and pityriasis rubra pilaris. Complications of erythroderma include hypothermia, dehydration, infection, and high-output heart failure. Treatment involves identifying and stopping any causative drugs, nursing in a warm room, and systemic steroids.
Livedo reticularis is another skin condition that causes a mottled discoloration of the skin in a reticular pattern due to a disturbance of blood flow to the skin. However, it does not cause erythroderma.
Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with a pruritic, papular eruption characterized by its violaceous color and polygonal shape, sometimes with a fine scale. It does not commonly cause erythroderma.
Norwegian scabies is a severe form of scabies caused by a mite infestation, but it does not cause erythroderma.
Pityriasis rosea is a viral rash characterized by a herald patch followed by smaller oval, red patches located on the torso. It does not cause erythroderma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology Clinic with an unsightly rash. The rash has been present for a number of years, but the area affected is becoming more prominent and is making her feel very self-conscious. She has been told previously that the rash is connected to her sarcoidosis; however, she would like to know if anything can be done to treat it.
Which one of the following dermatological conditions is diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Lupus pernio
Explanation:Cutaneous Manifestations of Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin. Cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can vary and may present differently depending on the stage of the disease. Here are some common cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis:
Lupus pernio: This is a specific skin involvement that affects the bridge of the nose and the area beneath the eyes and cheeks. It is diagnostic for the chronic form of sarcoidosis. The lesions are typically large, bluish-red and dusky purple, infiltrated, plaque-like nodules.
Erythema nodosum: This is seen in the acute stage of sarcoidosis, but it is also seen in many other diseases.
Keloid formation: This is a classic cutaneous lesion of sarcoidosis, but it is not diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis.
Subcutaneous nodules: These can also be seen in rheumatoid arthritis and are not diagnostic of sarcoidosis.
It is important to note that cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can be nonspecific and may resemble other skin conditions. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical reticulated, violaceous patches. These patches become more prominent in cold weather and involve both lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Livedo Reticularis
Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. This occurs due to the dilation of capillary blood vessels and the stagnation of blood within these vessels. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
Livedo reticularis can be idiopathic, meaning it has no known cause, or it can be secondary to other conditions such as malignancy, vasculitis, SLE, or cholesterol embolization. The condition is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries, which leads to the discoloration of the skin.
In summary, livedo reticularis is a skin condition that causes a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. It is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries and can be idiopathic or secondary to other conditions. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old fair-skinned woman presents with a facial rash and is concerned it may be acne. She is frustrated as she did not experience it severely during her teenage years. The rash is characterized by erythema on the cheeks, nose, and centre of the forehead, with additional lesions present in the affected area. Based on this presentation, what skin lesion would suggest a diagnosis of acne vulgaris rather than rosacea?
Your Answer: Pustule
Correct Answer: Comedone
Explanation:Differences and Similarities between Acne and Rosacea
Acne vulgaris and rosacea are two common skin conditions that affect the face. While they share some similarities, they also have distinct differences.
Acne vulgaris is characterized by a mixture of comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts. Comedones are formed when the cells lining the sebaceous duct proliferate excessively and block the duct. Open comedones are blackheads, while closed comedones are whiteheads. Other types of comedones include giant comedones and solar comedones. Acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and can continue into adulthood.
On the other hand, rosacea is a chronic or intermittent rash that affects the central face. It is characterized by blushing or flushing and persistent redness and telangiectasia. Telangiectasias are small, dilated blood vessels that appear as red lines on the skin. Papules and pustules may also develop, and the skin may be dry and flaky. The nose may have prominent pores due to sebaceous gland hyperplasia.
While both acne and rosacea can present with papules, pustules, and crusting, comedones are a characteristic feature of acne and are not present in rosacea. Additionally, acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and is more common in younger individuals, while rosacea typically affects those aged 30-60.
In summary, while acne and rosacea share some similarities in their presentation, they also have distinct differences that can help differentiate between the two conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sweet's syndrome
Correct Answer: Pemphigoid
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. The use of furosemide, a diuretic, is a common cause of this condition. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence. A positive immunofluorescence test confirms the diagnosis, and treatment with steroids is usually successful.
It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt, leading to widespread lesions. Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of pemphigoid and identifying its underlying cause can lead to effective treatment and management of this skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 42-year-old black woman comes in with depigmented patches of skin on her hands and face. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders
Vitiligo, Pityriasis alba, Albinism, Melasma, and Melanoma are all skin pigmentation disorders that affect people of different ages and ethnicities. Vitiligo is a rare autoimmune condition that destroys melanocytes, causing white patches on the skin. Pityriasis alba is a scaly, white patch that usually affects children’s facial skin. Albinism is a genetic disorder that reduces tyrosinase activity in melanocytes, resulting in a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and irises. Melasma is a condition of increased pigmentation, usually occurring underneath the eyes, and is common in pregnant women and oral contraceptive users. Melanoma is a malignant skin cancer that develops from melanocytes and is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles. Understanding these disorders can help individuals identify and manage their skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Permethrin cream
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which statement about nail changes is accurate?
Your Answer: Ridges in the nails may be seen in psoriasis
Explanation:Common Nail Changes and Their Causes
Nail changes can be a sign of underlying health conditions. Here are some common nail changes and their causes:
Psoriasis: Ridges, pits, and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) are features of psoriasis.
Splinter haemorrhages: Although splinter haemorrhages occur in bacterial endocarditis, trauma is the most common cause. They can also be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and psoriasis.
White nails: White nails are a feature of hypoalbuminaemia.
Koilonychia: Iron deficiency causes koilonychia and may cause onycholysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency does not cause nail changes.
Clubbing: Ischaemic heart disease does not cause clubbing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe itching that worsens at night. The rash is made up of small, red, extremely itchy bumps on the limbs and torso. His girlfriend is also experiencing itching. Upon closer examination of his skin, what finding would most likely confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Excoriations
Correct Answer: Burrows
Explanation:Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Characteristics
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, variety hominis. The female mite burrows into the skin, creating characteristic lesions known as burrows. However, the absence of burrows does not rule out a diagnosis of scabies. Other symptoms include erythema, or redness and scaling of the skin, and excoriations, or skin abrasions caused by scratching. In severe cases, crusting patches may develop, particularly in crusted scabies, a highly contagious variant of the condition. Prurigo nodules, or small bumps on the skin, may also occur in scabies, especially in young children. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies, as prompt treatment can prevent the spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with severe itching, mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past few weeks and is now unbearable. She admits to having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem. You notice an erythematosus, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular. Investigations reveal normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, and creatinine. When you draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip, rubbing off the excess reveals a number of burrows. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Differential Diagnosis
Scabies Infection
A scabies infection is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with itching between the web spaces and in the groin. The infection is typically acquired through skin-to-skin contact, often after sexual intercourse. Symptoms may not appear until three to four weeks after initial contact, and treatment involves the use of a topical agent such as permethrin cream.Atopic Dermatitis
Atopic dermatitis, or eczema, is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with a rash and itching on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual activity.Folliculitis
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with pinpoint erythematosus lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual activity.Erythema Infectiosum Infection
Erythema infectiosum infection is a very unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It primarily affects children and results from infection with parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a slapped cheek appearance, fever, headache, and coryza.Keratosis Pilaris Infection
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It results from the buildup of keratin and is more common in patients with dry skin. It is unrelated to sexual activity.Differential Diagnosis of Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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