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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue and left-sided deficits in motor eye activity. He has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and a previous ischemic stroke. A CT head scan is undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a left-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wallenberg’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Weber’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Occlusion of the branches of the basilar artery that supply the midbrain leads to the development of Weber’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by contralateral hemiplegia, which affects the limbs, face, and tongue due to damage to the descending motor tracts within the crus cerebri. Additionally, there are ipsilateral deficits in eye motor activity caused by damage to cranial nerve III.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She is complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She is complaining of left-sided ear pain and symptoms of a cold. On examination, she has a red eardrum on the left-hand side. She does not have a fever and appears to be in good health. You determine that she has acute otitis media.
      What would be a valid reason to prescribe antibiotics for this child?

      Your Answer: Otorrhoea

      Explanation:

      According to a Cochrane review conducted in 2008, it was discovered that approximately 80% of children experiencing acute otitis media were able to recover within a span of two days. However, the use of antibiotics only resulted in a reduction of pain for about 7% of children after the same two-day period. Furthermore, the administration of antibiotics did not show any significant impact on the rates of hearing loss, recurrence, or perforation. In cases where antibiotics are deemed necessary for children with otitis media, some indications include being under the age of two, experiencing discharge from the ear (otorrhoea), and having bilateral acute otitis media.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old male medical student presents with intense vomiting that began a couple...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male medical student presents with intense vomiting that began a couple of hours after consuming a microwaved Chinese takeout.
      What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?

      Your Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Bacillus cereus is a type of bacterium that is Gram-positive, rod-shaped, and beta-haemolytic. It is responsible for causing a condition known as ‘fried rice syndrome’.

      The bacterium forms hardy spores that can withstand boiling temperatures and remain viable even when rice is left at room temperature for extended periods before being fried. When these spores germinate, they can lead to the development of the syndrome.

      There are two types of strains associated with Bacillus cereus. The first type produces an emetic enterotoxin, which results in symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms typically occur within 1 to 6 hours after consuming contaminated food and can be quite severe, lasting for about 6 to 24 hours.

      The second type of strain produces a diarrheagenic enterotoxin. This strain is commonly associated with the ingestion of meat, vegetables, and dairy products. Symptoms of this type of infection include abdominal pain and vomiting, which usually begin 8 to 12 hours after ingestion and resolve within 12 to 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      176
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man with a history of severe asthma is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of severe asthma is brought to the Emergency Department by his girlfriend. He is experiencing extreme shortness of breath and wheezing, and his condition worsens rapidly. After receiving back-to-back nebulizer treatments, hydrocortisone, and IV magnesium sulfate, he is taken to resus, and the intensive care team is called for consultation. He is now severely hypoxic and has developed confusion. It is decided that the patient needs to be intubated.
      Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate choice for inducing anesthesia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Midazolam

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Intubation is rarely necessary for asthmatic patients, with only about 2% of asthma attacks requiring it. Most severe cases can be managed using non-invasive ventilation techniques. However, intubation can be a life-saving measure for asthmatic patients in critical condition. The indications for intubation include severe hypoxia, altered mental state, failure to respond to medications or non-invasive ventilation, and respiratory or cardiac arrest.

      Before intubation, it is important to preoxygenate the patient and administer intravenous fluids. Nasal oxygen during intubation can provide additional time. Intravenous fluids are crucial because patients with acute asthma exacerbations can experience significant fluid loss, which can lead to severe hypotension during intubation and positive pressure ventilation.

      There is no perfect combination of drugs for rapid sequence induction (RSI), but ketamine is often the preferred choice. Ketamine has bronchodilatory properties and does not cause hypotension as a side effect. Propofol can also be used, but it carries a risk of hypotension. In some cases, a subdissociative dose of ketamine can be helpful to facilitate the use of non-invasive ventilation in a hypoxic or combative patient.

      Rocuronium and suxamethonium are commonly used as paralytic agents. Rocuronium has the advantage of providing a longer period of paralysis, which helps avoid ventilator asynchrony in the early stages of management.

      Proper mechanical ventilation is essential, and it involves allowing the patient enough time to fully exhale the delivered breath and prevent hyperinflation. Therefore, permissive hypercapnia is typically used, and the ventilator settings should be adjusted accordingly. The recommended settings are a respiratory rate of 6-8 breaths per minute and a tidal volume of 6 ml per kilogram of body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      667.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old diabetic woman presents with a history of a shadow passing across...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old diabetic woman presents with a history of a shadow passing across her left eye 'like a curtain being drawn'. For the two weeks before this occurring, she had experienced flashing lights and floaters in the periphery of her vision in the eye. The floaters were most prominent to the nasal side of her central vision in the left eye. She has a feeling of 'heaviness in the eye' but no eye pain. She normally wears glasses for myopia, and her visual acuity in the left has been reduced to counting fingers.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a history consistent with retinal detachment preceded by posterior vitreous detachment.

      Posterior vitreous detachment occurs when the vitreous membrane separates from the retina. There are several risk factors for posterior vitreous detachment, including myopia, recent cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus, increasing age, and eye trauma.

      The main clinical features of posterior vitreous detachment include flashes of light (photopsia), increased numbers of floaters, a ring of floaters to the temporal side of central vision, and a feeling of heaviness in the eye. Another characteristic is Weiss’ ring, which is an irregular ring of translucent floating material in the vitreous.

      It is important to note that there is a small associated risk of retinal detachment in the 6-12 weeks following a posterior vitreous detachment. Retinal detachment can be distinguished from posterior vitreous detachment by the presence of a dense shadow in the periphery that spreads centrally, a curtain drawing across the eye, straight lines suddenly appearing curved (positive Amsler grid test), and central visual loss with decreased visual acuity.

      Given the patient’s presentation, an urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary. In most cases of retinal detachment, surgical repair will be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      308.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with complaints of intermittent abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain over the past 6 weeks, which appears to be worsening. The patient reports that eating food partially relieves the pain, but it returns to its worst state after 2-3 hours. Additionally, the pain is particularly severe at night. The patient has attempted using over-the-counter pain relievers but found them to be ineffective. Based on these symptoms, what is the primary cause of duodenal ulcers?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

      Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori infection

      Explanation:

      Most duodenal ulcers are caused by H. pylori infection, while peptic ulcers not associated with H. pylori are typically caused by the use of NSAIDs.

      Further Reading:

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.

      The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.

      Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.

      The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.

      For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      396.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman is given a medication during the advanced stages of pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is given a medication during the advanced stages of pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experiences respiratory depression and develops a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      During the later stages of pregnancy, the use of diazepam has been linked to respiratory depression in newborns and a withdrawal syndrome. There are several drugs that can have adverse effects during pregnancy, and the list below outlines the most commonly encountered ones.

      ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if given in the second and third trimesters. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can lead to ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, including diazepam, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome when administered late in pregnancy. Calcium-channel blockers can cause phalangeal abnormalities if given in the first trimester and fetal growth retardation if given in the second and third trimesters. Carbamazepine can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol is associated with grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, when administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

      Lithium, if given in the first trimester, poses a risk of fetal cardiac malformations. In the second and third trimesters, it can result in hypotonia, lethargy, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, goiter, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old smoker with a diagnosis of advanced lung cancer with spinal metastases...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old smoker with a diagnosis of advanced lung cancer with spinal metastases experiences a severe, shooting pain in his left leg. He is currently using a fentanyl patch, but it is not providing relief for the pain.
      What would be the most appropriate next course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gabapentin

      Explanation:

      This patient is currently experiencing neuropathic pain due to spinal metastases from their lung malignancy.

      The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the initial treatment is not effective or well-tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs can be considered. If the second and third drugs tried also prove to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, it may be necessary to switch to a different medication. Tramadol should only be considered as a last resort for acute rescue therapy.

      For more information on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in adults, please refer to the NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD for severe psoriatic arthropathy. She has been experiencing increasing difficulty breathing during physical activity for the past few months. During the examination, you detect fine bibasal crepitations. You order a chest X-ray, which reveals signs of pulmonary fibrosis.
      What is the SINGLE medication she is most likely taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      There is a significant link between methotrexate and the development of pulmonary fibrosis. While there have been instances of pulmonary fibrosis occurring as a result of infliximab, this particular side effect is more commonly associated with methotrexate use.

      Methotrexate can also cause other side effects such as nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, dizziness, stomatitis, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, and pneumonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The ambulance team brings a 72-year-old into the ER with suspected heat stroke....

    Incorrect

    • The ambulance team brings a 72-year-old into the ER with suspected heat stroke. The patient had been participating in a charity marathon during a period of extreme heat. Which of the following statements about heat stroke is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with heatstroke have a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke can be differentiated from other heat related illnesses by the presence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Patients with heatstroke typically have a core body temperature exceeding 40ºC and lack sweating (unlike heat exhaustion where profuse sweating is common). It is important to note that diuretic treatment is not suitable for heat edema and Dantrolene should not be used to treat environmental heat related illnesses.

      Further Reading:

      Heat Stroke:
      – Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
      – Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
      – Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
      – Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
      – Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
      – Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
      – Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
      – Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°C

      Heat Exhaustion:
      – Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
      – Core temperature elevated but <40°C
      – Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
      – Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
      – Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and rest

      Other Heat-Related Illnesses:
      – Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
      – Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
      – Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydration

      Risk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
      – Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factors

      Management:
      – Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
      – Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
      – Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
      – Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
      – Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
      – Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Basic Anaesthetics (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
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