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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Domperidone

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs

      Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.

      On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands. He also says that he suffers from embarrassing grunting which can affect him at almost any time. When he is in lectures at the university he manages to control it, but often when he comes home and relaxes the movements and noises get the better of him. His girlfriend who attends the consultation with him tells you that he seems very easily distracted and often is really very annoying, repeating things which she says to him and mimicking her. On further questioning, it transpires that this has actually been a problem since childhood. On examination his BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 74 beats/min and regular. His heart sounds are normal, respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations are entirely normal.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 193 × 109 /l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 23 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Gilles de la Tourette syndrome

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Movement Disorders: Gilles de la Tourette Syndrome, Congenital Cerebellar Ataxia, Haemochromatosis, Huntington’s Disease, and Wilson’s Disease

      Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is characterized by motor and vocal tics that are preceded by an unwanted premonitory urge. These tics may be suppressible, but with associated tension and mental exhaustion. The diagnosis is based on clinical presentation and history, with an association with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, behavioural problems, and self-mutilation. The pathophysiology is unknown, but treatments include neuroleptics, atypical antipsychotics, and benzodiazepines.

      Congenital cerebellar ataxia typically presents with a broad-based gait and dysmetria, which is not seen in this case. Haemochromatosis has a controversial link to movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily presents with chorea, irregular dancing-type movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic and lack the premonitory urge and suppressibility seen in Tourette’s. Wilson’s disease has central nervous system manifestations, particularly parkinsonism and tremor, which are not present in this case. It is important to distinguish between these movement disorders for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.

      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Primary restless legs syndrome

      Correct Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.

      Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.

      Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.

      Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
      Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.

      Nocturnal Cramps:
      Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.

      Diabetic Neuropathy:
      Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.

      In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a...

    Incorrect

    • In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a neuron?

      Your Answer: By its concentration gradient alone

      Correct Answer: By its valence, concentration gradient and membrane permeability

      Explanation:

      The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.

      Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

      As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.

      Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3
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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which she has noticed over the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications.

      Upon examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp, without signs of haemorrhages or exudates. However, her visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even when using a pinhole card. Additionally, she exhibits five-beat nystagmus and double vision when looking to the left.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Myopia

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis in a Young Woman

      This young woman shows signs of retrobulbar neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve behind the eye. Additionally, she exhibits some cerebellar features such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Multiple sclerosis (MS), a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system.

      Further diagnostic tests can support this diagnosis. Visual evoked responses can measure the electrical activity in the brain in response to visual stimuli, which can be abnormal in MS. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can reveal demyelinating plaques, or areas of damage to the protective covering of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord. Finally, oligoclonal bands can be detected in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of MS patients, indicating an immune response in the central nervous system.

      In summary, this young woman’s symptoms and diagnostic tests suggest a possible diagnosis of MS. Further evaluation and treatment by a healthcare professional are necessary to confirm this diagnosis and manage her symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.3
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  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. He had not experienced any recent foreign travel or trauma. Upon examination, he had a fever but no rash or focal neurology. The medical team suspected bacterial meningitis and began treatment. They also requested a lumbar puncture. What is the appropriate spinal level and dural space for the needle to be advanced to during a lumbar puncture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement for Lumbar Puncture

      The ideal location for a lumbar puncture is between L3 and L4, as this avoids the risk of piercing the spinal cord. To locate this area, a line is drawn across the superior aspect of the posterior iliac crests. The purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. However, there are contraindications to this procedure, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to coning and respiratory arrest.

      It is important to note that advancing the needle too high, such as between L1 and L2, can pose a risk to the spinal cord. Additionally, the epidural space is too superficial to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore, proper placement between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space, is crucial for a safe and successful lumbar puncture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over 1 week. Three weeks earlier, she had an episode of diarrhoea lasting 5 days. Examination confirms distal weakness and ‘glove-and-stocking’ sensory loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ascending Paralysis and Glove-and-Stocking Weakness

      The patient presents with acute progressive ascending paralysis and glove-and-stocking weakness, which is typical of Guillain–Barré syndrome. However, cranial nerve palsies can also occur. It is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as multiple sclerosis, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, diabetic neuropathy, and acute intermittent porphyria. MS is characterised by lesions separated in both space and time, while subacute combined degeneration of the cord is secondary to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and presents with progressive limb weakness, paraesthesiae, and visual disturbances. Diabetic neuropathy usually causes sensory impairment, not motor impairment, and acute intermittent porphyria manifests with a constellation of symptoms, including abdominal pain, peripheral and autonomic neuropathies, and proximal motor weakness. A thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 8 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about his recent forgetfulness. She also reveals that he has been experiencing hallucinations of small children playing in the house. On examination, there is nothing significant to note except for a mild resting tremor in the hands (right > left).

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Dementia: Lewy Body Dementia, Korsakoff’s Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, Multi-Infarct Dementia, and Pick’s Disease

      Lewy Body Dementia: This type of dementia is characterized by memory impairment and parkinsonism. It is caused by the build-up of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, resulting in a movement disorder similar to Parkinson’s disease and memory problems. Visual hallucinations are common, and symptoms often fluctuate. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and levodopa, while neuroleptics are contraindicated.

      Korsakoff’s Dementia: This type of dementia is typically associated with alcohol misuse. Patients tend to confabulate and make up information they cannot remember.

      Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common type of dementia. However, visual hallucinations and resting tremor are not typical symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Multi-Infarct Dementia: This type of dementia is caused by problems that interrupt blood supply to the brain, such as multiple minor and major strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.

      Pick’s Disease: Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, this type of dementia is characterized by the patient sometimes losing their inhibitions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol, but after two weeks, he was discovered to be confused and drowsy. Upon examination, he was found to have a fever of 40.7°C, rigid muscles, and a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg. What treatment would you recommend in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious medical condition that is commonly caused by potent neuroleptics. Its major features include rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, fever, and high creatinine kinase. The condition can lead to potential complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure.

      The treatment of choice for NMS is dantrolene and bromocriptine. However, withdrawal of neuroleptic treatment is mandatory to prevent further complications. It is important to note that NMS can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize the symptoms and seek medical help as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old motorcyclist was brought to the Emergency Department after being in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old motorcyclist was brought to the Emergency Department after being in a road traffic accident and found alone on the road. Upon examination, he seems drowsy and is making grunting sounds, his pupils are equal and reactive to light, his eyes open to pain, and he withdraws his hand when the nurses attempt to insert a cannula. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used by clinicians to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state, particularly in cases of head injury. It provides a common language for healthcare professionals to discuss a patient’s condition. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s best eye, verbal, and motor responses, with a maximum score of 15/15 for a fully conscious and alert patient.

      The calculation for the GCS score is as follows: for eyes, the score ranges from 1 to 4 depending on whether the patient’s eyes open spontaneously, in response to speech, in response to pain, or not at all. For verbal response, the score ranges from 1 to 5 depending on whether the patient is oriented, confused, uses inappropriate words or sounds, or has no verbal response. For motor response, the score ranges from 1 to 6 depending on whether the patient obeys commands, localizes pain, withdraws from pain, exhibits abnormal flexion or extension, or has no response.

      If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to accurately calculate the GCS score and take appropriate action based on the score.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing ‘tingling’ in his wrists and hands at night, with the right side being more affected than the left. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the thenar eminence of his right hand. He displays slight weakness in thumb opposition and reduced sensation to light touch on the palmar surface of his right hand on the lateral three digits and the lateral half of the fourth digit. Reproduction of his symptoms occurs when you tap immediately distal to the wrist joint of his right hand for about 30 s.
      Which nerve is implicated in this man’s condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in the Upper Limb

      Nerve injuries in the upper limb can cause a range of symptoms, including pain, weakness, and sensory loss. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:

      1. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Median Nerve): Compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel can cause pain and loss of sensation in the lateral three-and-a-half digits. Symptoms are often worse at night and are more common in people who use their hands repetitively throughout the day.

      2. Radial Neuropathy (Radial Nerve): Compression of the radial nerve at the spiral groove of the humerus can cause weakness of wrist and finger extension, as well as elbow flexion. There may also be sensory loss on the dorsum of the hand.

      3. Ulnar Neuropathy (Ulnar Nerve): The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the fifth digit and the medial aspect of the fourth digit, as well as the interosseous muscles of the hand. It is the second most commonly affected nerve in the upper limb after the median nerve.

      4. Musculocutaneous Nerve: Weakness of elbow flexion and sensory loss over the lateral forearm can occur with musculocutaneous nerve palsy.

      5. Long Thoracic Nerve: Injury to the long thoracic nerve affects the serratus anterior muscle, causing a winged scapula. This nerve is purely motor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital headache while decorating at home. She experienced vomiting and a brief loss of consciousness. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score is 15, and she has a normal physical exam except for an abrasion on her right temple. She is afebrile, has a blood pressure of 146/84 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute. What investigation would be the most beneficial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      The sudden onset of a severe headache in a young woman, accompanied by vomiting and loss of consciousness, is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage. The most appropriate diagnostic test is a CT scan of the brain to detect any subarachnoid blood. However, if the CT scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed as it can detect approximately 10% of cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage that may have been missed by the CT scan. It is important to diagnose subarachnoid haemorrhage promptly as it can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying the symptoms and conducting the appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure timely treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - What is the definition of Nissl bodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of Nissl bodies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Nissl Bodies: Stacks of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

      Nissl bodies are named after the German neurologist Franz Nissl and are found in neurones following a selective staining method known as Nissl staining. These bodies are composed of stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum and are a major site of neurotransmitter synthesis, particularly acetylcholine, in the neurone. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nissl bodies are granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is important to note that the other answer options are incorrect as they refer to entirely different organelles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?...

    Incorrect

    • What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The synaptic terminal of the presynaptic axon

      Explanation:

      Bouton Terminaux: The Synaptic Terminal of the Presynaptic Axon

      A bouton terminaux, also known as a terminal button or end bulb, is a bulge found at the end of a synaptic projection, which can be either an axon or a dendrite. This structure is responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, allowing for communication between neurons. It is important to note that the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell in the context of a synapse.

      It is essential to differentiate the bouton terminaux from other structures involved in synaptic transmission. For instance, synaptic vesicles are membrane-bound packages containing neurotransmitters, but they are not the same as the bouton terminaux. Similarly, axon varicosities are small swellings along the length of an axon that release neurotransmitters directly onto effector organs, such as smooth muscle, and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.

      Furthermore, the end bulb on the postsynaptic axon is not the same as the bouton terminaux, even though it is another term for it. This is because the end bulb refers to the postsynaptic cell, whereas the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell. Finally, fusion pores on the presynaptic axon membrane are structures formed after the presynaptic neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.

      In summary, the bouton terminaux is a crucial structure in synaptic transmission, responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. It is specific to the presynaptic cell and should not be confused with other structures involved in synaptic transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to the Emergency Department with left-sided weakness and numbness. On examination, he has a drooping left face, decreased strength in his left arm and leg (4/5), and reduced sensation on the left side of his body. His pulse is regular at 70 bpm, and his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg. The initial diagnosis is a possible ischemic stroke.
      What proportion of strokes are ischemic rather than hemorrhagic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80-85%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Prevalence and Causes of Ischaemic and Haemorrhagic Strokes

      Ischaemic strokes are the most common type of stroke, accounting for 80-85% of all cases. They are characterized by a sudden onset of neurological deficits, such as hemiplegia, and are usually caused by thromboembolic disease secondary to atherosclerosis. Risk factors for ischaemic stroke include smoking, diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, heart disease, and previous medical history of myocardial infarction, stroke or embolism.

      Haemorrhagic strokes, on the other hand, account for only 10-20% of all strokes and usually result from the rupture of a blood vessel within the brain. While they are less common than ischaemic strokes, they can be more severe and have a higher mortality rate.

      It is important to understand the prevalence and causes of both types of strokes in order to prevent and treat them effectively. By addressing risk factors such as smoking and heart disease, we can reduce the incidence of ischaemic strokes. And by recognizing the symptoms of haemorrhagic strokes and seeking immediate medical attention, we can improve outcomes for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with jaundice yesterday. They discovered him in the linen cupboard, disoriented and searching for his luggage so he could check-out before midday. Upon your arrival, he is still confused and unsteady, with a tachycardia of 120 bpm and nystagmus. However, he poses no immediate danger to himself or others. Which medication would be suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine IV and chlordiazepoxide orally (PO)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. The triad of ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia characterizes it. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff syndrome with lasting memory impairment. The following treatment plan is recommended:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      1. Thiamine IV: Parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex®) is required and should be given in a setting where resuscitation facilities are available due to the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine is also given prophylactically in alcohol withdrawal.

      2. Chlordiazepoxide PO: Given orally as required (PRN) to control the symptoms of delirium tremens. The dosage should be adjusted according to symptom severity.

      3. Haloperidol IM: Antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or IM benzodiazepines are not required in this instance where the patient is not at risk to himself or others.

      4. N-acetylcysteine IV: N-Acetylcysteine is used commonly for the treatment of paracetamol overdose. There is no evidence that this patient has a liver impairment as a result of paracetamol overdose.

      5. Propranolol PO: Propranolol is used for the treatment of portal hypertension and although likely, there is no evidence this patient has portal hypertension.

      6. Thiamine IM and midazolam IM: Thiamine is not given IM. There is no indication for IM benzodiazepines as this patient is co-operating with treatment. A chlordiazepoxide withdrawal regime would be better suited to this patient’s needs. This can be given orally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Passive stretch of affected muscles exacerbates pain

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome

      Compartment syndrome is a condition that occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases to a level that exceeds arterial blood pressure. This can happen even without a fracture, such as in cases of crush injuries. The earliest and most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is pain, which can be exacerbated by passive stretching of the muscles in the affected area. As the condition progresses, loss of peripheral pulses may occur, indicating that the pressure has reached a critical level.

      Treatment for compartment syndrome involves decompression of the affected compartment(s), including the skin. It is important to recognize the symptoms of compartment syndrome early on in order to prevent further damage and potential loss of function. By the signs and symptoms of this condition, individuals can seek prompt medical attention and receive the appropriate treatment to alleviate the pressure and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of bacterial meningitis. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was normal. The patient complains of ongoing headache, photophobia and fever. A lumbar puncture (LP) is to be performed.
      Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to performing an LP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Lumbar Puncture in Patients with Suspected Meningitis

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is a diagnostic procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. LP is an essential tool in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, but it should be performed with caution and only in appropriate patients. Here are some guidelines for LP in patients with suspected meningitis:

      Concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken to calculate the CSF: plasma glucose ratio, which is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial meningitis.

      Normal CSF opening pressure ranges from 7-18 mmH2O.

      Verbal consent for the procedure is sufficient, but written consent should be obtained from the patient if possible.

      LP is typically performed in the left lateral position, but it may be performed in the sitting position or with imaging guidance if necessary.

      Neuroimaging is required before an LP only in patients with a clinical suspicion of raised intracranial pressure, especially in immunocompromised patients.

      Possible complications of LP include post-dural puncture headache, transient paraesthesiae, spinal haematoma or abscess, and tonsillar herniation. These should be discussed with the patient before the procedure.

      LP should not be performed in patients with an acutely raised CSF pressure, as it may cause brainstem herniation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Complications of Measles and Other Causes of Neck Stiffness

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to various complications. These include respiratory problems such as croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonitis. Measles can also cause conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis, which occurs in 1 in 1000-2000 cases. Additionally, measles can make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia.

      Apart from measles, other conditions can also cause neck stiffness. For instance, the involvement of the cervical spine in the arthritis of Still’s disease may lead to neck stiffness. Tuberculosis (TB) may cause tuberculous meningitis or Pott’s disease, both of which can cause neck stiffness. Another recognized cause of neck stiffness with an extended neck is retropharyngeal abscess.

      In summary, measles can lead to various complications, including respiratory problems, conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis. It can also make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia. Other conditions such as Still’s disease, TB, and retropharyngeal abscess can also cause neck stiffness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: By regulating opening and closing ion channels

      Explanation:

      The Role of Ion Channels in Regulating Membrane Potential

      The membrane potential of a cell is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell membrane. This potential is influenced by the movement of ions across the membrane, which is determined by their valence and concentration gradient. However, the permeability of ions also plays a crucial role in regulating membrane potential. This is achieved through the presence of ion channels that can open and close in response to various stimuli, such as action potentials.

      Neurons, for example, are able to regulate their membrane potential by controlling the opening and closing of ion channels. This allows them to maintain a stable resting potential and respond to changes in their environment. The permeability of ions through these channels is carefully regulated to ensure that the membrane potential remains within a certain range. This is essential for proper neuronal function and communication.

      In summary, the regulation of membrane potential is a complex process that involves the movement of ions across the membrane and the opening and closing of ion channels. This process is critical for maintaining proper cellular function and communication, particularly in neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by air ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by air ambulance after being involved in a road traffic accident. According to witnesses this was a high-impact car crash and the other passenger in the car has unfortunately already passed away. The man is unconscious when he arrives, and initial assessment reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9. He has some minor facial injuries and is bleeding from his nose.
      What is the appropriate initial management for traumatic brain injury in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintain pCO2 4.5 kPa

      Explanation:

      Management of Traumatic Brain Injury: Key Considerations

      Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent secondary injury and improve outcomes. Here are some key considerations for managing TBI:

      Maintain pCO2 4.5 kPa: Sedation and ventilation should be used to maintain a pCO2 of 4.5 kPa to protect the brain. Adequate oxygenation is also essential.

      Permissive hypotension: Hypotension should be treated aggressively to prevent secondary ischaemic injury. Mean arterial pressure should be maintained >75 mmHg.

      Intubation if GCS falls below 6: Patients with a GCS score below 8 should be intubated to maintain their airway. Spinal immobilisation is also essential.

      Head-up tilt to 30 degrees: Head-up tilt to 30 degrees is an accepted measure to minimise rises in intracranial pressure in patients with TBI. Care should be taken if the patient has a cervical spine injury.

      Fluid resuscitation with saline: Initial fluid resuscitation should be with a crystalloid, such as normal saline, and/or blood. Albumin should be avoided.

      By following these key considerations, healthcare professionals can effectively manage TBI and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the past few months. She reports difficulty getting up from a chair and climbing stairs, which worsens throughout the day and especially with prolonged walking. She has no significant medical history but is a smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. During the review of her systems, she mentions a loss of appetite and weight loss, as well as a worsening cough that led to one episode of haemoptysis two weeks ago. On examination, there are no clear signs of ptosis, diplopia, or dysarthria. The doctor considers a list of differential diagnoses.
      Which antibody is most likely to be involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their associated conditions

      Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is an autoimmune condition affecting skeletal muscle and can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung. The causative autoantibody is against voltage-gated calcium channels. Clinical features include insidious and progressive onset of proximal muscular weakness, particularly in the legs, and autonomic involvement.

      Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is associated with anti-RNP antibodies. Common presenting features include general malaise and lethargy, arthritis, pulmonary involvement, sclerodactyly, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and myositis.

      Myasthenia gravis is a long-term autoimmune disease affecting skeletal muscle associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. It causes fatigable weakness, and oculopharyngeal and ocular muscles are usually prominently affected.

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a vasculitic condition associated with c-ANCA antibodies. It often presents with renal impairment, upper airway disease, and pulmonary haemorrhage and pneumonia-like infiltrates.

      Thyrotropin receptor antibody is an indicator for Graves’ disease, which causes hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this,...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this, he fell four weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.

      Four weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.

      The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.

      What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this 85-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomograms of the head

      Explanation:

      Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly

      The confusion and neurological symptoms that developed after a fall in the past suggest that the patient may have chronic subdural haematoma. The best way to investigate this condition is through a CT scan, which is the preferred diagnostic tool. A skull x-ray may also be useful in detecting any fractures.

      Chronic subdural haematoma is a condition that commonly affects elderly individuals. It occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This can cause pressure on the brain, leading to a range of symptoms such as confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat chronic subdural haematoma promptly, as it can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Treatment may involve draining the blood from the affected area, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary. Early diagnosis and treatment can greatly improve the patient’s chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is referred to you in a psychiatry ward. She reports feeling generally unwell for several weeks, with increasing stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for the past few years with good symptom control. During examination, her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What drug treatments would you consider for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome vs Serotonin Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. Concurrent use of lithium or anticholinergics may increase the risk of NMS. Symptoms include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the offending medication and using antipyretics to reduce body temperature. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be helpful.

      Serotonin syndrome is a differential diagnosis for NMS, but the two can be distinguished through a thorough history and examination. NMS develops over days and weeks, while serotonin syndrome can develop within 24 hours. Serotonin syndrome causes neuromuscular hyperreactivity, such as myoclonus, tremors, and hyperreflexia, while NMS involves sluggish neuromuscular response, such as bradyreflexia and rigidity. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are rare in NMS, and resolution of NMS takes up to nine days, while serotonin syndrome usually resolves within 24 hours.

      Despite these differences, both conditions share common symptoms in severe cases, such as hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, leukocytosis, elevated CK, altered hepatic function, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, a thorough history and physical examination are crucial in distinguishing between the two syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease comes in with sudden shaking, vertigo, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease comes in with sudden shaking, vertigo, and upward eye movement. What could be the probable reason for his abrupt onset?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Oculogyric Crisis

      Oculogyric crisis is a common ocular dystonic reaction that often occurs as a side effect of neuroleptic drug treatment. This condition is characterized by a sustained upward deviation of the eyes, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as restlessness, agitation, malaise, and a fixed stare. The onset of a crisis may be paroxysmal or stuttering over several hours, and the eyes may also converge, deviate upward and laterally, or deviate downward.

      In addition to the ocular symptoms, oculogyric crisis may also be associated with other findings such as backwards and lateral flexion of the neck, widely opened mouth, tongue protrusion, and ocular pain. The causes or triggering factors of this condition include various medications such as neuroleptics, benzodiazepines, and tricyclics, as well as medical conditions like postencephalitic Parkinson’s, Tourette’s syndrome, multiple sclerosis, neurosyphilis, and head trauma.

      It is important to recognize and manage oculogyric crisis promptly to prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes. Healthcare providers should be aware of the medications and medical conditions that may trigger this condition and monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of oculogyric crisis. Treatment options may include discontinuing the offending medication, administering anticholinergic or antihistaminic agents, or using benzodiazepines or other sedatives to manage symptoms. With proper management, most patients with oculogyric crisis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You observe that he is having some trouble speaking, and upon further inquiry, he reveals that this has also been worsening over time. He reports no issues with chewing. During the examination, you note that he has a missing gag reflex and displays tongue atrophy and fasciculations.
      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Bulbar Palsy

      Bulbar palsy is a condition that affects the lower motor neurons of the cranial nerves, causing difficulty in speech and swallowing. To manage a patient with this condition, appropriate investigations must be conducted to determine the underlying cause.

      MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, and lumbar puncture are some of the most appropriate investigations to manage a patient with bulbar palsy. These investigations can help identify reversible causes such as brainstem stroke or tumor, neurodegenerative diseases, infectious neuropathies, and autoimmune neuropathies.

      On the other hand, investigations such as nerve conduction studies and viral PCR have no place in the management of this patient. CT head may be helpful, but MRI brain is a more appropriate form of imaging. Routine bloods can also be done to determine the systemic health of the patient.

      Speech and language therapy is an essential part of managing a patient with bulbar palsy, as it can help improve their speech and swallowing. However, ophthalmology review and ECG are not necessary unless there is a clear clinical indication.

      In summary, appropriate investigations for a patient with bulbar palsy include MRI brain, serology for infectious neuropathies, lumbar puncture, and routine bloods. Speech and language therapy is also crucial for managing the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor notices evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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