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Question 1
Correct
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Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true?
Your Answer: The left coronary artery originates from the left posterior aortic sinus
Explanation:The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and divides into the circumflex arteries and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery.
The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and supplies:
– the right ventricle
– part of the interventricular septum
– the atrioventricular (A-V) node and
– in 85% of cases the inferior part of the left ventricle.
The right coronary artery provides a posterior interventricular branch and a marginal branch that anastomoses with the LAD at the apex.The oblique vein together with the small, middle and great cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium.
The anterior cardiac vein drains directly into the right atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric ischemia. To diagnose the condition, an angiogram is performed. The radiologist needs to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta for the angiogram. What vertebral level does the coeliac axis originate from the aorta?
Your Answer: T10
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening especially if the small intestine is involved.
A critical factor for survival of acute mesenteric ischemia is early diagnosis and intervention. Angiography uses X-ray and contrast dye to image arteries and identify the severity of ischemia or obstruction.
The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
1. Left gastric
2. Common hepatic
3. Splenic arteriesThere are some important landmarks of vessels at different levels of vertebrae that need to be memorized.
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription. He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery. The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa. What is the name of this structure?
Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.
The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.
The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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The spinal cord tracts that transmits the sensations of pain, crude temperature, and light touch is?
Your Answer: Spinothalamic
Explanation:Dorsal column (ascending tract) – Proprioception, vibration, discriminative
Spinocerebellar (ascending tract) – Subconscious muscle position and tone
Corticospinal (descending tract) – Voluntary muscle
Rubrospinal (descending tract) – Flexor muscle tone
Vestibulospinal (descending tract) – Reflexes and muscle tone
Reticulospinal(descending tract) – Voluntary movements, head position.-
Autonomic – Descending tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?
Your Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve
Explanation:Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.
Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.
There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon mask ventilation, patient's oxygen saturation level dropped to 90% despite maximal head extension, jaw thrust and two handed mask seal. Intubation was performed twice but failed. Use of bougie also failed to localize the trachea. Oxygen levels continued to drop, but was maintained between 80 and 88% with mask ventilation. Which of the following options is the best action to take for this patient?
Your Answer: Insert a supraglottic airway
Explanation:A preplanned preinduction strategy includes the consideration of various interventions designed to facilitate intubation should a difficult airway occur. Non-invasive interventions intended to manage a difficult airway include, but are not limited to: (1) awake intubation, (2) video-assisted laryngoscopy, (3) intubating stylets or tube-changers, (4) SGA for ventilation (e.g., LMA, laryngeal tube), (5) SGA for intubation (e.g., ILMA), (6) rigid laryngoscopic blades of varying design and size, (7) fibreoptic-guided intubation, and (8) lighted stylets or light wands.
Most supraglottic airway devices (SADs) are designed for use during routine anaesthesia, but there are other roles such as airway rescue after failed tracheal intubation, use as a conduit to facilitate tracheal intubation and use by primary responders at cardiac arrest or other out-of-hospital emergencies. Supraglottic airway devices are intrinsically more invasive than use of a facemask for anaesthesia, but less invasive than tracheal intubation. Supraglottic airway devices can usefully be classified as first and second generation SADs and also according to whether they are specifically designed to facilitate tracheal intubation. First generation devices are simply €˜airway tubes’, whereas second generation devices incorporate specific design features to improve safety by protecting against regurgitation and aspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently. Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone. What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.
The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.
The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about number needed to harm?
Your Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one patient in that group to receive an adverse outcome.
Correct Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome.
Explanation:Number needed to harm are a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death). It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. It can equally well be applied to harmful outcomes as well as beneficial ones, where it becomes numbers needed to treat (NNT) instead.
In this way, they are both calculated the same but NNT usually refers to a therapeutic treatment whereas NNH refers to a risk-factor for disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A meta analysis takes into consideration five studies each of which is aimed at finding out the relation between a novel drug and upper gastro intestinal bleeding. The relative risk of getting an upper gastrointestinal bleed matched to a control population is recorded by each study. Which among the following studies provides the most compelling evidence that the bleeding is not caused by the new drug?
Your Answer: Brand et al
Correct Answer: Atkinson et al
Explanation:The research study conducted by Atkinson et al makes the most compelling case for the drug as it indicates the relative risk levels to be lower than 1. Also the study employs large square and a narrow confidence interval that are an indicative of a well performed study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents for transsphenoidal surgery following a diagnosis of pituitary macroadenoma. Which of the following is the most common visual field defect caused by such lesions?
Your Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:Pituitary tumours that compress the optic chiasma primarily affect the neurones that decussate at this location. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by neurones that emerge from the nasal half of the retina and transmit the temporal half of the visual field.
The axons of ganglion cells in the retina form the optic nerve.
It exits the orbit through the optic foramen and projects to the thalamic lateral geniculate body. The optic chiasma forms above the sella turcica as the nasal fibres decussate along the way. The optic radiation travels from the lateral geniculate body to the occipital cortex.
Lesions at various points along this pathway cause the following visual field defects:
Scotoma implies partial retinal or optic nerve damage.
Monocular vision loss occurs when the optic nerve is completely damaged.
Pathology at the optic chiasma causes bitemporal hemianopia.
Cortical blindness with occipital cortex pathology and homonymous hemianopia with lesions compromising the optic radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year old male with palpitations and dizziness presents to the emergency room. In the triage process, cardiac monitoring shows supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. This high heart rate arises as a result of different specialised cells and nerve fibres in the heart which are responsible for conducting that action potential which is generated in the event of systole. The fastest conduction velocity is carried out by which of the following?
Your Answer: Bundle of His
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The correct answer is the Purkinje fibres, which conducts at a velocity of about 4m/sec.
The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 12
Correct
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Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer: Blood glucose
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised inpatients with propofol infusion syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different. Which of the following physiological characteristics of a 5-year-old most closely resembles those of a healthy adult?
Your Answer: Upper airway resistance (cm H2O/L/second)
Correct Answer: Dead space ratio
Explanation:Whatever the age, the dead space ratio is 0.3. It’s the dead space (Vd) to tidal volume ratio (Vt).
The glottis is the narrowest point of the upper airway in an adult, while the cricoid ring is the narrowest point in a child.
A child’s airway resistance is much higher than an adult’s. The resistance to airflow increases as the diameter of a paediatric airway shrinks. The radius (r) to the power of 4 is inversely proportional to airway resistance (r4). As a result, paediatric patients are more susceptible to changes in airflow caused by a small reduction in airway diameter, such as caused by oedema.
The compliance of a newborn’s lungs is very low (5 mL/cmH2O), but it gradually improves as lung size and elasticity grow. Lung compliance in an adult is 200 mL/cmH2O.
In children, minute ventilation (mL/kg/minute) is much higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Correct
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If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?
Your Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:
Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limitsThere is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.
SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])
This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow when occluded surgically?
Your Answer: Coeliac axis
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The portal vein arises from the splenic and mesenteric veins, and is the biggest vessel in the portal venous system, accounting for about 75% of the hepatic blood flow.
It is responsible for draining blood from parts of the gastrointestinal system, the spleen, the pancreas and the gallbladder into the liver.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Acidaemia
Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia
Explanation:The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.
Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:
Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.
MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.
MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension ( 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Correct
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How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?
Your Answer: Three
Explanation:The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;
– 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)
– 6 paired branches
– unpaired median sacral artery.We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;
-Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
-Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries
-Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries
-Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteriesThe celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut.
The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys.
The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms. Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL. Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?
Your Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear
Explanation:Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.
There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.
In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.
In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.
Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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In the United Kingdom, a new breast cancer screening test is being conducted compared to the conventional use of mammography. This test predicts that if the breast cancer is diagnosed at an earlier stage, it could improve the survival rate but the overall results remains constant. This is an example of what kind of bias?
Your Answer: Procedure Bias
Correct Answer: Lead time bias
Explanation:Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.
In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically.
Self Selection or volunteer bias occur when those subjects are selected to participate in the study who are not the representative of the entire target population. those subjects may be from high socio-economic status and practice those activities or lifestyle that improves their health.
Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure?
Your Answer: 4 bar for oxygen
Explanation:Pipeline gases (in the UK this includes: Oxygen, Nitrous oxide, Medical air, and Entonox) are supplied at 4 bar (or 400 kPa), and compressed air is supplied at 7 bar for power tools.
Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide are usually only supplied in cylinders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?
Your Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right
Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperatureBohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis. Clinical examination is as follows: Airway: Patent Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added. Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries. Pulse: 125 beats per minute, BP: 125/96 mmHg. Disability: Glasgow coma score 15,|Anxious and in pain. Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established. Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?
Your Answer: Left cephalic vein
Explanation:The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).
Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported: 165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044. In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?
Your Answer: 32
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)
ARR= (0.157-0.126)
ARR= 0.031
NNT= 1/0.031
NNT=32.3
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of the porta hepatis?
Your Answer: Lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Cystic duct
Explanation:The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures that enter and leave the porta hepatis are:
1. hepatic portal vein
2. hepatic artery
3. hepatic ducts
4. hepatic nerve plexus (It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve.)These structures supply and drain the liver. Only the hepatic vein is not part of the porta hepatis.
The porta hepatis is also surrounded by lymph nodes, that may enlarge to produce obstructive jaundice.
These structures divide immediately after or within the porta hepatis to supply the functional left and right lobes of the liver.The cystic duct lies outside the porta hepatis and is an important landmark in laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Correct
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A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis. Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?
Your Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases
Explanation:A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ‰¥25/min
Heart rate: ‰¥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.
A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicatedA peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.
An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 26
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital. For temporal arteritis, he takes 40 mg prednisolone orally in divided doses. His prescription chart will need to be adjusted to reflect his inability to take oral medications. What is the equivalent dose of intravenous hydrocortisone to 40 mg oral prednisolone?
Your Answer: 160 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.
Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.
Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.
5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?
Your Answer: Consistency
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:
1. Coherence & Consistency
2. Temporal Precedence
3. Specificity
As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship). Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?
Your Answer: Phenyl and ethyl groups at C5
Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2
Explanation:Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).
The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.
The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).
The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient?
Your Answer: Water droplets of size 1 micron
Correct Answer: Reduction in gas flow resistance
Explanation:Smallest drops reach not only the upper but also the lower respiratory tracks. As a result, the ultrasonic nebulizer is most efficient for the therapy of pulmonary diseases and stands out as a robust and reliable support within the clinical setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 30
Correct
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The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration
Explanation:Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.
Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.
Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.
Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:
Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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At 37 weeks' gestation, a 29-year-old parturient is admitted to the labour ward. Her antenatal period was asymptomatic for her. The haematological values listed below are available: Hb concentration of 100 g/L (115-165), 200x109/L platelets (150-400), MCV 81 fL (80-96). Which of the following is the most likely reason for the problem?
Your Answer: Haemodilution
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:This patient’s limited haematological profile includes mild normocytic anaemia and a normal platelet count.
Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anaemia during pregnancy. It affects 75 to 95 percent of patients. A haemoglobin level of less than 110 g/L in the first trimester and less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters is considered anaemia. There will usually be a low mean cell volume (MCV), mean cell haemoglobin (MCH), and mean cell haemoglobin concentration in addition to a low haemoglobin (MCHC). The MCV may be normal in mild cases of iron deficiency or coexisting vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.
To determine whether you have an iron deficiency, you’ll need to take more tests. Low serum ferritin (15 g/L) and less reliable indices like serum iron and total iron binding capacity are among them.
A number of factors contribute to iron deficiency in pregnancy, including:
Insufficient dietary iron to meet the mother’s and foetus’ nutritional needs
Multiple pregnancies
Blood loss, as well as
Absorption of iron from the gut is reduced.The volume of plasma increases by about 50% during pregnancy, but the mass of red blood cells (RBCs) increases by only 30%. Dilutional anaemia is the result of this situation. From the first trimester to delivery, the RBC mass increases linearly, while the plasma volume plateaus, stabilises, or falls slightly near term. As a result, between 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, haemoglobin concentrations are at their lowest. The effects of haemodilution will be negated in this patient because she is 37 weeks pregnant.
Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency are less common causes of anaemia in pregnancy. The diagnosis could be ruled out if the MVC is normal.
During pregnancy, the platelet count drops, especially in the third trimester. Gestational thrombocytopenia is the medical term for this condition. It’s due to a combination of factors, including haemodilution and increased platelet activation and clearance. Pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are common causes of thrombocytopenia. Pre-eclampsia isn’t the only cause of anaemia during pregnancy.
A typical blood picture of a haemoglobinopathy like sickle cell disease shows quantitative and qualitative defects, with the former leading to a severe anaemia exacerbated by haemodilution and other factors that contribute to iron deficiency. Microcytic cells are the most common type.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 32
Correct
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A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period. Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?
Your Answer: 1300 kcal
Explanation:1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.
A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.
1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.
A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.
1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.
The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 33
Correct
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A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All β-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The β-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?
Your Answer: Asymmetry of the circle of Willis is a risk factor for the development of intracranial aneurysms
Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together
Explanation:There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.
Each half of the circle is formed by:
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Internal carotid artery
4. Posterior communicating artery
5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 35
Correct
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A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI. What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?
Your Answer: Ascending aorta
Explanation:The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.
The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.
The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.
The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.
The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.
The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 36
Correct
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Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which structure passes through the foramen magnum?
Your Answer: Vertebral veins
Correct Answer: Spinal roots of the accessory nerve
Explanation:The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:
Meningeal lymphatics
Spinal cord
Spinal meninges
Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
Vertebral arteries
Vertebral artery spinal branches
The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.
The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 38
Correct
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An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape. The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance. End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes). Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa. Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?
Your Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial€“end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 39
Correct
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Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?
Your Answer: Kataria
Explanation:Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.
Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.
The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.
The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults
The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.
The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter. His vital readings are: Temperature: 38.1°C. Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg), Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg). Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg, Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg, Cardiac output: 5 L/min, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%. Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance. Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5
Your Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5
Explanation:Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
It is derived mathematically by:PVR = MPAP – PCWP
CO
where,
MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
CO: Cardiac outputFor this patient:
PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
5Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:
PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5
Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 41
Correct
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An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery. On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled. Her measurements are: End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240), End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140). Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.
The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:
SV = EDV – ESV, and
EF = SV/EDV x 100
The normal range for EF is >55-70%.
For this patient,
SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore
EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 42
Incorrect
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The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium. Which structure forms the largest tributary of the coronary sinus?
Your Answer: Small cardiac veins
Correct Answer: Great cardiac vein
Explanation:The coronary sinus is large venous structure located on the posterior aspect of the left atrium, coursing within the left atrioventricular groove. The function of the coronary sinus is to drain the venous blood from the majority of the heart. It opens into the right atrium between the opening of inferior vena cava, the fossa ovalis and the right atrioventricular orifice. The coronary sinus is often guarded by a thin, semicircular endocardial fold, also known as the thebesian valve.
Tributaries include: Great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, posterior vein of left ventricle, oblique vein of left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 43
Correct
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One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system. Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?
Your Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Explanation:The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.
The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.
The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and expected level of disease in a particular population?
Your Answer: Epidemic
Correct Answer: Endemic
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 45
Correct
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Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation?
Your Answer: Emergency surgery for major trauma
Explanation:Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.
The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.
The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes. One terabyte is equal to which of the following numbers?
Your Answer: 1,000,000,000 bytes
Correct Answer: 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
Explanation:To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:
1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 47
Correct
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Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?
Your Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.
Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.
The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.
The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.
Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.
Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?
Your Answer: Has active metabolites
Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl
Explanation:Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.
Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.
Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)
It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Correct
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Regarding thermocouple, which of the following best describes its properties?
Your Answer: The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature
Explanation:Thermocouples are based on the Seebeck effect, i.e. a small thermoelectric current is generated when two different metal wires are put into contact at both ends with their junctions having a different temperature. If one junction is open, a contact electromotive force is generated. The current, or the electromotive force, is to a first approximation proportional to the temperature difference ΔT between the two junctions. A better approximation is obtained with a MacLaurin expansion with the second power of ΔT.
Two wires bonded together with different coefficients of expansion can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.
The resistance at the measuring junction is irrelevant.
The resistance of a thermistor varies exponentially with temperature, while the resistance of a measuring junction varies linearly with temperature. Incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge is this unknown resistance, which is used to indirectly measure temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 50
Correct
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Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?
Your Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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