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Question 1
Correct
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Which option is not a treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer: Antipsychotics
Explanation:NMS is a potential side effect of antipsychotics.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which substances are metabolized by the enzyme CYP1A2?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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What kind of tremor is commonly observed as a result of prolonged usage of antipsychotic drugs?
Your Answer: Parkinsonian tremor
Explanation:Types of Tremor
Essential Tremor
Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.
Parkinsonian Tremor
This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.
Cerebellar Tremor
Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).
Psychogenic Tremor
Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.
Physiologic Tremor
This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.
It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.
Type of Tremor Frequency
Intention 2-3Hz
Parkinsonian 5Hz
Essential 7Hz
Physiological 10Hz
Psychogenic variable
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is another term for a neuropathic gait?
Your Answer: Waddling gait
Correct Answer: Equine gait
Explanation:Gait disorders can be caused by a variety of conditions, including neurological, muscular, and structural abnormalities. One common gait disorder is hemiplegic gait, which is characterized by unilateral weakness on the affected side, with the arm flexed, adducted, and internally rotated, and the leg on the same side in extension with plantar flexion of the foot and toes. When walking, the patient may hold their arm to one side and drag their affected leg in a semicircle (circumduction) due to weakness of leg flexors and extended foot. Hemiplegic gait is often seen in patients who have suffered a stroke.
Other gait disorders include ataxic gait, spastic gait, and steppage gait, each with their own unique characteristics and associated conditions. Accurate diagnosis and treatment of gait disorders is important for improving mobility and quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Goffman categorized individuals who faced stigma into two groups: those who were discredited and those who were discreditable. What is the meaning of discreditable in this particular context?
Your Answer: The person has performed an act of which they are ashamed
Correct Answer: The person has a stigmatised condition which they are able to hide
Explanation:Individuals who are discreditable possess a disability that is not immediately visible of apparent to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective in treating borderline personality disorder?
Your Answer: Albert Bandura
Correct Answer: Otto Kernberg
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which prion disease exhibits minimal of no spongiform alteration?
Your Answer: Kuru
Correct Answer: Fatal familial insomnia (FFI)
Explanation:Fatal familial insomnia (FFI) is characterized by minimal spongiform change, but notable thalamic atrophy and astrogliosis. Diagnosis of FFI relies heavily on immunohistochemistry and genotyping. In contrast, spongiform change is a hallmark of CJD and Kuru. The majority of CJD cases (85%) are sporadic, while only a small percentage are caused by consuming contaminated food (variant CJD of vCJD).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old male working in a coffee shop strongly believes that a 35-year-old regular customer is interested in him romantically. He thinks that she has been leaving bigger tips and was considering asking her out on a date. What is this belief known as?
Your Answer: Erotomania
Explanation:A delusion is a false and unwavering belief that is not in line with the individual’s education, cultural of social background. It is held with strong conviction. Erotomania is a type of delusional disorder where the affected person believes that someone, usually of higher status and often a stranger, is in love with them. This disorder is more common in women and can cause them to believe that someone who has no knowledge of their existence is in love with them. Nymphomania is a condition where a woman experiences uncontrollable and excessive sexual desire, while satyriasis is the male equivalent. Morbid jealousy is a disorder that can manifest in various forms, including delusions, overvalued ideas, depressive affect, of anxiety state. With this disorder, a person may believe that their partner is being unfaithful without any of little evidence to support their belief. Grandiose delusion is where a person believes they have supernatural powers of are a famous celebrity, and may think they are involved in secret missions of have connections with wealthy and famous people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the annual incidence rate of tardive dyskinesia in patients exposed to typical antipsychotics?
Your Answer: 5%
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which processes involve the activation of incentive salience?
Your Answer: Jealousy
Correct Answer: Grief
Explanation:Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief
Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.
Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the definition of priapism?
Your Answer: A persistent and painful erection
Explanation:Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection
Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale?
Your Answer: It can be used in both males and females
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management
Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The prevalence of a homozygous recessive condition is 1 in 3600 individuals at birth. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what fraction of the population would be carriers of the recessive allele?
Your Answer: 1 in 600
Correct Answer: 1 in 30
Explanation:The Hardy-Weinberg proportions, which are the genotype proportions of p2, 2pq, and q2, can be expressed as p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 and p + q = 1. If we assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can calculate the frequency of the recessive allele (q) by taking the square root of the frequency of the affected homozygous recessive disorder, which is 1/60 in this case. The frequency of the normal allele (p) can be calculated as 59/60 (1 − 1/60). The number of heterozygous carriers (2pq) can be calculated as 2 × 59/60 × 1/60, which is equal to 118/3600 of approximately 1/30.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Correct
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Which structure is not included in the neocortex?
Your Answer: Caudate nucleus
Explanation:The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex
The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with concerns that she may be losing her mind. She reports experiencing peculiar odors, such as burnt rubber, and frequently experiences feelings of 'jamais vu'. However, no one else detects any unusual smells during these episodes. She remains fully conscious and can recall the events vividly. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complex partial seizure
Correct Answer: Simple partial seizure
Explanation:If the individual were to experience impaired consciousness during the attack, this would be classified as a complex partial seizure. However, based on the current symptoms, it appears to be a simple partial seizure with retained consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What was the first neurotransmitter to be recognized?
Your Answer: Substance P
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:Henry Dale was the first to identify acetylcholine in 1915 through its effects on cardiac tissue, and he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1936 alongside Otto Loewi for their work. Arvid Carlsson discovered dopamine as a neurotransmitter in 1957, while von Euler discovered noradrenaline (also known as norepinephrine) as both a hormone and neurotransmitter in 1946. Oxytocin is typically classified as a hormone, while substance P is a neuropeptide that functions as both a neurotransmitter and neuromodulator and was first discovered in 1931.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which one of these is not classified as a biogenic amine?
Your Answer: Adrenaline
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:Biogenic Amines: Understanding the Neurotransmitters
Biogenic amines are a class of compounds that are derived from amino acids. These compounds play a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline, and dopamine), serotonin, and histamine. A useful mnemonic to remember these neurotransmitters is HANDS (Histamine, Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, Dopamine, Serotonin).
Catecholamines are involved in the body’s response to stress and are responsible for the fight or flight response. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are catecholamines that are released by the adrenal glands in response to stress. Dopamine is involved in the reward system of the brain and is associated with pleasure and motivation.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in mood regulation, appetite, and sleep. It is also involved in the regulation of pain and the perception of pain.
Histamine is involved in the immune response and is responsible for the symptoms of allergies. It is also involved in the regulation of sleep and wakefulness.
Understanding the role of biogenic amines in the nervous system is crucial for the development of treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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For what is Carl Jung most well-known?
Your Answer: Differentiating between the personal and collective unconscious
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with unexplained weight loss and various medical tests have been inconclusive. You suspect she may be suffering from an eating disorder. Which of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is accurate?
Your Answer: In anorexia nervosa body weight is significantly reduced, but in bulimia nervosa it is often normal
Explanation:Eating disorders are serious mental health conditions that can have severe physical consequences. Anorexia nervosa is diagnosed when a person has a BMI less than 17.5 kg/m2, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, and abnormalities of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. On the other hand, bulimia nervosa is diagnosed when a person experiences recurrent episodes of binge eating and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain, occurring more than twice weekly for three months. Unlike anorexia nervosa, there is no diagnostic requirement for weight loss in bulimia nervosa. Both conditions are characterized by a preoccupation with shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely. A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 20
Correct
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What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, including by typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) categories of by chemical structure. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic that works as a dopamine D2 partial agonist, a weak 5HT1a partial agonist, and a 5HT2a receptor antagonist. It has a lower risk of causing movement disorders than typical antipsychotics and can also lower prolactin levels.
Typical antipsychotics, developed in the 1950s, block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain and can cause various side effects, including extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. They are not selective for any of the four dopamine pathways in the brain.
In elderly patients with dementia, antipsychotics are associated with an increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack, as well as a small increased risk of mortality. Prescribing guidelines for the elderly can be found in the British National Formulary (BNF).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Before the enactment of the 2012 law, what was the criterion that prevented an individual from becoming a member of Parliament?
Your Answer: Prolonged incapacity due to physical illness
Correct Answer: Detention under mental health legislation
Explanation:Before the Mental Health (Discrimination) Bill was passed in 2012, MPs who were detained under the Mental Health Act for over six months would lose their seat. However, this changed with the passing of the Bill, which also addressed discrimination against mental health in regards to being a company director, school governor, and serving on a jury. It is important to note that prolonged incapacity due to physical illness has never been a hindrance to serving as an MP, and taking psychiatric medication does not disqualify someone from being an MP, although it does disqualify them from serving on a jury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which first-generation antipsychotic is utilized as an antiemetic in end-of-life care?
Your Answer: Promazine hydrochloride
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Antiemetic Properties of Antipsychotics
Antipsychotics are commonly used in palliative care to prevent nausea and vomiting. Chlorpromazine and haloperidol are two antipsychotics that have been found to be effective antiemetics. Chlorpromazine works by blocking histamine receptors, while haloperidol blocks dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), which influences the vomiting center. Promazine is also a potent histamine antagonist but is not commonly used as an antiemetic. However, both chlorpromazine and promazine have sedative effects.
Pimozide, on the other hand, has low affinity for histamine receptors, and pericyazine demonstrates moderate affinity. Flupenthixol is not used as an antiemetic. Overall, antipsychotics have proven to be effective in preventing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, with different mechanisms of action depending on the specific drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which theory was significantly influenced by Harlow's experiment with rhesus monkeys?
Your Answer: Attachment theory
Explanation:Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys
Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.
Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.
Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following is most likely to cause dysgeusia?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Taste disturbance is known as Dysgeusia in medical terminology and can be caused by various medications. Lithium is a frequently encountered culprit, but other drugs such as certain antidepressants, benzodiazepines, z-drugs, and opiates can also lead to this condition. Additionally, any medication that causes dry mouth may result in taste disturbance. This information is sourced from D Kaufman’s book, Clinical neurology for psychiatrists, published in 2007 on page 38.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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What is a true statement about serotonin syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypertonia is a characteristic finding
Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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What is a true statement about the symptoms that occur when discontinuing SSRI medication?
Your Answer: They are more common with antidepressants with shorter half-lives
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is most in line with the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11) guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: International classification of diseases uses the term mental disorder
Explanation:Classification of Diseases: A Brief Overview
A scientific classification system should have standardized names, clear operational criteria, and a multiaxial arrangement for citing important attributes. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) has been the main nosologic system for identifying human ailments for the past century. It has a well-organized and widely accepted nomenclature, but lacks operational criteria and an appropriate multiaxial pattern. The ICD-10 is available in major languages and classifies psychiatric conditions under Mental and behavioural disorders in Chapter V. However, it does not include social consequences of the disorder, which is included in the DSM IV under Axis 4 (Psychosocial and Environmental Problems). Neurasthenia is classified under Other neurotic disorders (F48.0) in the ICD-10. Overall, classification of diseases is a system of categories to which morbid entities are assigned according to established criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old individual reports a sudden inability to chew food and upon examination, displays weakened masseter muscles. What nerve damage do you suspect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V
Explanation:Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions
The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.
The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.
The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.
The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.
The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.
The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.
The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.
The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old habitual smoker was admitted to the hospital due to a decline in his mental health. The nurse on duty suggested a smoking cessation program to him. He informed the nurse that he was seriously contemplating quitting smoking in the next six months and was planning to quit within the next 30 days. According to Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical model of change, what stage of quitting is he in?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preparation
Explanation:This individual is currently in the preparation phase of quitting smoking. According to Prochaska et al.’s stages of change model, this means they are currently smoking but have a strong intention to quit within the next 30 days and have been seriously considering quitting for the past six months. The stages of change are a spiral, meaning individuals may move back and forth between stages and even experience relapses. The other stages include precontemplation (not considering quitting within the next six months), contemplation (seriously considering quitting within the next six months but not within the next 30 days), action (currently not smoking and quit within the last six months), and maintenance (currently not smoking and quit more than six months ago).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away a child's train set for hitting their friend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Negative punishment
Explanation:The objective is to decrease the occurrence of the conduct through punishment, which involves taking away a pleasurable stimulus (the train set).
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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