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Question 1
Correct
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In what region of the brain is the dentate gyrus located?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:The hippocampal formation includes the dentate gyrus, which is located in the medial temporal lobe. The cerebrum, which is the largest part of the brain, is divided into four lobes: frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital. The frontal lobe is situated at the front of the cerebrum, while the temporal lobes are on the sides, the parietal lobe is on the top, and the occipital lobe is at the back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 2
Correct
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What type of dysarthria is typically caused by damage to the lower motor neurons related to a tumor?
Your Answer: Flaccid dysarthria
Explanation:Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.
Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.
Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.
Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.
Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.
Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 3
Correct
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What is another name for the forebrain in the developing embryo?
Your Answer: Prosencephalon
Explanation:Neurodevelopment: Understanding Brain Development
The development of the central nervous system begins with the neuroectoderm, a specialized region of ectoderm. The embryonic brain is divided into three areas: the forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon). The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, while the hindbrain subdivides into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.
The telencephalon, of cerebrum, consists of the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal ganglia. The diencephalon includes the prethalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and pretectum. The mesencephalon comprises the tectum, tegmentum, ventricular mesocoelia, cerebral peduncles, and several nuclei and fasciculi.
The rhombencephalon includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum, which can be subdivided into a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In humans, eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus. Rhombomeres Rh7-Rh4 form the myelencephalon, while Rh3-Rh1 form the metencephalon.
Understanding neurodevelopment is crucial in comprehending brain development and its complexities. By studying the different areas of the embryonic brain, we can gain insight into the formation of the central nervous system and its functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A middle-aged father who unconsciously resents the responsibility he has for his aging parents and the limitations that they place on his personal time goes out each weekend and buys them extravagant gifts and hires expensive caretakers. Assuming the two are connected, which defense mechanism is likely to be underlying this behavior?
Your Answer: Sublimation
Correct Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to a dual-diagnosis outpatient clinic for psychiatric evaluation. She reports an increase in her alcohol consumption over the past week due to frustration with her colleagues and partner. Over the past two weeks, she has been more productive at work, leading to conflicts with her colleagues whom she accuses of holding her back. She frequently argues with her partner, who accuses her of being too friendly with male colleagues. She has experienced similar episodes in the past, lasting about a month and occurring twice a year. During these times, she drinks more alcohol than usual as she finds it difficult to relax and fall asleep in the evenings. She is concerned that her alcohol consumption could have negative health consequences if this pattern continues. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Type II bipolar affective disorder
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a hypomanic episode, which is characterized by increased concentration, productivity, over-familiarity, possible increased sexual drive, and poor sleep. Her alcohol use is likely a result of her mood disturbance. Although she has shown increased irritability and alcohol consumption, she has been able to maintain her employment and there is no evidence of psychosis. Based on these symptoms, the patient can be diagnosed with hypomania, rather than cyclothymia of depressive disorder. It is common for individuals with bipolar affective disorder to have comorbid substance misuse. However, the patient’s alcohol use appears to be secondary to her disrupted sleep and other signs of mood disturbance, rather than harmful alcohol use disorder. It is important to note that the patient does not meet the criteria for type I bipolar disorder, as she has not experienced episodes of mania of severe disruption to social functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 6
Correct
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Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals conform to group opinions on the length of a string, even if it is clearly incorrect?
Your Answer: Asch
Explanation:Psychology Experiments and Theories
Asch conducted experiments on conformity, where participants tended to agree with group estimates even when they were clearly wrong. Heider introduced attribution theory and the fundamental attribution error. Milgram studied obedience by instructing participants to administer electric shocks to actors who were struggling in a learning task. Janis described groupthink, which is the tendency to pursue consensus in group decisions. On a different note, James Osterberg, who is more commonly known as Iggy Pop, performed with the rock band The Stooges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Correct
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What category of behavior does saluting fall under?
Your Answer: Mannerisms
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Are athetoid movements commonly associated with basal ganglia dysfunction rather than cerebellar dysfunction?
Your Answer: Ataxia
Correct Answer: Athetoid movements
Explanation:Abnormal movements known as athetoid movements are commonly associated with issues in the basal ganglia.
Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs
Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).
Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.
Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.
Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but were still not provided with it?
Your Answer: Beecher's study
Correct Answer: Tuskegee experiment
Explanation:Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 10
Correct
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What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?
Your Answer: It includes a total of 21 questions
Explanation:The Beck’s depression inventory consists of 21 questions with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored from 0 to 3 and is used to evaluate the severity of depression. It is a self-rated assessment that covers the two weeks leading up to the evaluation.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Before being utilized for mood disorders, what medical conditions was lithium employed to treat?
Your Answer: Rheumatic arthritis
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:During the latter half of the 19th century, the concept of uric acid imbalances causing various diseases extended beyond bladder stones and gout to encompass a wide range of ailments, such as depression and mania. This expansion was fueled by the discovery of lithium’s ability to dissolve uric acid deposits in vitro by Alexander Ure in 1843 and Sir Alfred Garrod’s subsequent finding that lithium solutions could dissolve gout uric acid deposits in finger joints in the early 1860s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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During which stage of sleep do sleep spindles appear on an EEG in a typical individual?
Your Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages. These stages are categorized into Non-REM (NREM) and Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep. Each cycle of NREM and REM sleep takes around 90 to 110 minutes.
Stage 1 is the lightest stage of sleep, where the sleeper may experience sudden muscle contractions and a sense of falling. The brain waves during this stage are called theta waves.
In Stage 2, eye movement stops, and brain waves become lower. Sleep spindles and K complexes, which are rapid bursts of 12-14 Hz waves, are seen during this stage.
Stages 3 and 4 are referred to as deep sleep of delta sleep. There is no eye movement of muscle activity during these stages. Children may experience night terrors of somnambulism during these stages.
REM sleep is characterized by rapid, shallow breathing and rapid, jerky eye movements. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep.
Overall, the different stages of sleep are important for the body to rest and rejuvenate. Understanding these stages can help individuals improve their sleep quality and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 13
Correct
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At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage in symbolic play but struggle with understanding others' perspectives?
Your Answer: Preoperational
Explanation:The preoperational stage, according to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, is characterized by children engaging in symbolic play but not yet being able to comprehend logic. Piaget identified four main stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage occurs from birth to two years old, during which the child experiences the world through their senses. The concrete operational stage occurs from seven to eleven years old, during which the child can think logically and is no longer egocentric. The formal operational stage occurs from eleven to sixteen years old, during which the child develops abstract reasoning. It is important to note that the Freudian stage of psychosexual development known as latency is not relevant to Piaget’s theory and is therefore not included in his stages of cognitive development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which statement about Williams syndrome is not true?
Your Answer: It is caused by a error during meiosis
Correct Answer: It results from a microdeletion in chromosome 8
Explanation:Understanding Williams Syndrome
Williams syndrome is a rare neurodevelopmental disorder that is characterized by distinct physical and behavioral traits. Individuals with this syndrome have a unique facial appearance, including a low nasal bridge and a cheerful demeanor. They also tend to have mild to moderate mental retardation and are highly sociable and verbal.
Children with Williams syndrome are particularly sensitive to sound and may overreact to loud of high-pitched noises. The syndrome is caused by a deletion in the q11.23 region of chromosome 7, which codes for more than 20 genes. This deletion typically occurs during the recombination phase of meiosis and can be detected using fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH).
Although Williams syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases are not inherited and occur sporadically in individuals with no family history of the disorder. With a prevalence of around 1 in 20,000, Williams syndrome is a rare condition that requires specialized care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Correct
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What proportion of individuals who experience suicidal thoughts progress to making a plan and attempting suicide within the initial year of onset?
Your Answer: 60%
Explanation:In a survey conducted by Nock et al.1, which involved interviewing more than 80,000 individuals across 17 countries regarding suicidal behaviors, it was discovered that 60% of individuals who transitioned from suicidal ideation to planning and attempting suicide did so within the first year of experiencing ideation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman taking medication for her depression experiences dry mouth and blurred vision. Which psychotropic medication is most likely causing these side effects?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, urinary retention, and dry skin, are commonly associated with Amitriptyline and other tricyclic antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A child psychologist is conducting an evaluation of a new client who seems to be suppressing of denying some past traumatic events. The psychologist wants to administer a projective personality assessment to the child.
What would be the most appropriate assessment to use in this situation?Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Holtzman inkblot technique (HIT)
Explanation:Personality assessment can be approached in two ways: objective and projective. Objective assessment involves structured, standardized measurement tools that typically require self-reporting. This approach uses direct questions to gather information about a person’s opinion of themselves. In contrast, projective assessment involves unstructured and often ambiguous stimuli to elicit responses that reveal information about a person’s personality. The Holtzman inkblot technique (HIT) is an example of a projective measure, while the Eysenck personality questionnaire (EPQ), Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI), and Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI) are all examples of objective measures. The EPQ, PAI, and MCMI all use a true of false self-reporting format to gather information about a person’s personality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 18
Correct
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Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'sick role'?
Your Answer: Parsons
Explanation:The Sick Role and Illness Behavior
Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.
According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.
Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.
In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What type of chromosome is most vulnerable to Robertsonian translocations?
Your Answer: Metacentric
Correct Answer: Acrocentric
Explanation:Robertsonian translocations can involve chromosomes with very small p arms, which are known as acrocentric chromosomes.
Understanding Centromeres
A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 20
Correct
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Which receptor's agonist effect is most likely responsible for anorgasmia caused by SSRIs?
Your Answer: 5HT2C
Explanation:As an AI language model, I cannot provide a response without knowing the context of the rewrite you are referring to. Please provide more information of context so that I can assist you better.
Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) receptors are primarily G protein receptors, except for 5-HT3, which is a ligand-gated receptor. It is important to remember that 5-HT3 is most commonly associated with nausea. Additionally, 5-HT7 is linked to circadian rhythms. The stimulation of 5-HT2 receptors is believed to be responsible for the side effects of insomnia, agitation, and sexual dysfunction that are associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 21
Correct
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Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice?
Your Answer: Principlism
Explanation:Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine?
Your Answer: Hypersalivation
Explanation:Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What drug works by increasing the release of dopamine?
Your Answer: Cannabis
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Amphetamine induces the direct release of dopamine by stimulating it, while also causing the internalization of dopamine transporters from the cell surface. In contrast, cocaine only blocks dopamine transporters and does not induce dopamine release.
Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a QTc of 490ms. What would be the most appropriate alternative to their current antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the neurotransmitter that prevents the pituitary gland from releasing prolactin?
Your Answer: Oxytocin
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Hormones and their functions:
Dopamine, also known as prolactin inhibitory factor, is released from the hypothalamus. Antipsychotics, which are dopamine antagonists, are often linked to increased prolactin levels.
Oxytocin, released from the posterior pituitary, plays a crucial role in sexual reproduction.
Substance P is present throughout the brain and is essential in pain perception.
Vasopressin, a peptide hormone, is released from the posterior pituitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 26
Correct
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A senior citizen with an extensive mental health history shares with you about a medication they were previously prescribed. They are unable to recall the name of it, but recollect that it resulted in swollen ankles, constant thirst, and worsened psoriasis. What medication do you suspect they were administered?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The symptoms reported by the patient are likely caused by the side-effects of lithium. Increased thirst is a common occurrence when starting lithium treatment. Patients with psoriasis may not be suitable candidates for lithium use. Although the mechanism behind pedal edema is not fully understood, it is a well-known side-effect of lithium treatment, as reported in a case study by Paravathypriya (2016) in the International Journal of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following antipsychotics is currently offered in the United Kingdom as a prolonged-release injection?
Your Answer: Asenapine
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Olanzapine pamoate is the only antipsychotic with a long acting injectable (LAI) form. A three hour observation period is necessary after administration due to the potential for post-injection syndrome. The remaining antipsychotics do not have an LAI form available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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What is an example of a type of passive thinking?
Your Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Patients may feel that they have lost control over their thoughts, which can manifest as passivity of thought. This refers to the belief that an external agency is controlling one’s thoughts. Passivity can take different forms, such as thought withdrawal, thought insertion, and thought broadcasting.
Ego (Boundary) Disturbances
Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.
Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.
Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.
Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.
Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Goffman categorized individuals who faced stigma into two groups: those who were discredited and those who were discreditable. What is the meaning of discreditable in this particular context?
Your Answer: The person accepts the stigma attached to their diagnosis and is ashamed of it
Correct Answer: The person has a stigmatised condition which they are able to hide
Explanation:Individuals who are discreditable possess a disability that is not immediately visible of apparent to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the ratio of individuals who possess a specific gene variant and exhibit the corresponding trait?
Your Answer: Proportionality
Correct Answer: Penetrance
Explanation:Heterogeneity is characterized by the existence of multiple genetic abnormalities that result in the same disorder.
Understanding Penetrance in Genetic Diseases
Penetrance refers to the likelihood of individuals with a specific genetic mutation developing clinical symptoms of a disease. It is expressed as a percentage, indicating the proportion of individuals with the mutation who exhibit symptoms. For instance, if a mutation in a gene responsible for an autosomal dominant disorder has a penetrance of 90%, it means that 90% of individuals with the mutation will develop the disease, while the remaining 10% will not.
Penetrance is an essential concept in genetics, as it helps to predict the likelihood of a disease occurring in individuals with a specific genetic mutation. However, it is important to note that penetrance can vary depending on several factors, including age, gender, and environmental factors. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when assessing the risk of developing a genetic disease. Understanding penetrance can also aid in genetic counseling and the development of personalized treatment plans for individuals with genetic mutations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A teenage girl shoplifts a piece of jewelry from a boutique. She is apprehended and when her mother asks her why she did it, she explains that she believed it was acceptable because she didn't think she would be caught. Based on Kohlberg's theory, which stage of moral development does she seem to exhibit?
Your Answer: Social contract orientation
Correct Answer: Obedience and punishment orientation
Explanation:His actions are influenced by his anticipation of receiving punishment of not.
Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.
The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.
The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.
It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an instance of secondary prevention?
Your Answer: Immunisation
Correct Answer: Screening programme
Explanation:Prevention levels for a disease can be classified as primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention, with primary prevention focusing on implementing broad changes to decrease the overall risk of a disease in a population. On the other hand, a screening program is an example of secondary prevention, which aims to detect and intervene early in the development of a disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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In comparison to conventional antipsychotics, which side-effect is more frequently observed with atypical antipsychotics?
Your Answer: Galactorrhoea
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'?
Your Answer: Limbic cortex
Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:Brain Regions and Functions
The brain is a complex organ with various regions that perform different functions. One of the key regions involved in the reward system is the nucleus accumbens (NA). This region receives input from the ventral tegmental area, which uses dopamine as a neurotransmitter. The NA is responsible for processing reward-related information and is often referred to as the pleasure center of the brain.
The limbic cortex, on the other hand, is not part of the reward circuit. It is involved in emotion, memory, and motivation.
Another important gland in the brain is the pituitary gland. This endocrine gland secretes nine hormones that are involved in maintaining homeostasis in the body.
The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement, learning, and addiction. Although it has a role in reward-seeking, it is not considered to be part of the classic reward pathway.
Finally, the tegmentum is a region of the brainstem that contains several cranial nerve nuclei. It is involved in various functions such as movement, sensation, and autonomic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 35
Correct
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What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for?
Your Answer: Language and knowledge
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling unwell. They have developed mouth ulcers and a rash since starting a new medication two weeks ago, which was prescribed by their psychiatrist. The patient cannot remember the name of the drug they were started on. What medication do you suspect they have been prescribed?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a condition that can be triggered by various anticonvulsants including lamotrigine, appears to align with the patient’s medical history.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that can be caused by medication use of infection. Anticonvulsants, particularly lamotrigine, are often the cause. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, fatigue, and the appearance of ulcers and lesions in the mucous membranes. A rash of round lesions also appears on the face, trunk, arms, legs, and soles of the feet. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What type of group is most susceptible to groupthink?
Your Answer: Confrontational
Correct Answer: Homogeneous
Explanation:Groupthink, Groupshift, and Deindividuation are potential problems that can occur when working in groups. Groupthink is a phenomenon where the desire for harmony of conformity in the group results in an incorrect of deviant decision-making outcome. This occurs when group members try to minimise conflict and reach a consensus decision without critical evaluation of alternative ideas of viewpoints. Several conditions must take place for groupthink to occur, such as group isolation, loyalty, loss of individual creativity, and an illusion of invulnerability. Symptoms of groupthink include an illusion of invulnerability, belief in inherent morality of the group, collective rationalisation, stereotypes of ‘out-groups,’ self-censorship, illusion of unanimity, direct pressure on dissenters, and self-appointed mindguards. To reduce groupthink, leaders should allow each member to challenge ideas and present objections, talk about and solicit ideas with people outside the group, invite outside experts to attend meetings, avoid expressing opinions about the preferred outcome, and assign a ‘Devil’s Advocate’ at all meetings to challenge any and all ideas.
Groupshift is the phenomenon in which the initial positions of individual members of a group are exaggerated toward a more extreme position. For example, when people are in groups, they assess risk differently from when they are alone. In the group, they are likely to make riskier decisions as the shared risk makes the individual risk seem to be less.
Deindividuation is a concept in social psychology that is generally thought of as the loss of self-awareness in groups. Theories of deindividuation propose that it is a psychological state of decreased self-evaluation and a decreased evaluation of apprehension causing abnormal collective behaviour, such as violent crowds and lynch mobs. Conversely, it also explains people’s tendency to donate more readily to charity when in groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 38
Correct
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A client is referred to your clinic by their physician due to a recent decline in their mood. The client reports difficulty swallowing pills and shares that during their last visit with a psychiatrist, they were given an antidepressant in the form of a patch. Can you identify which antidepressant was previously prescribed to this client?
Your Answer: Selegiline
Explanation:Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What is typically considered a hazardous combination with an MAOI?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:It is not recommended to combine MAOIs with SSRIs, clomipramine, of ephedrine.
MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions
First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).
MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.
Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.
Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What is the purpose of using Raven's Progressive Matrices test?
Your Answer: Attention
Correct Answer: General intelligence
Explanation:The Raven’s Progressive Matrices test assesses general intelligence without the use of verbal language.
The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most likely to cause dysgeusia?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Taste disturbance is known as Dysgeusia in medical terminology and can be caused by various medications. Lithium is a frequently encountered culprit, but other drugs such as certain antidepressants, benzodiazepines, z-drugs, and opiates can also lead to this condition. Additionally, any medication that causes dry mouth may result in taste disturbance. This information is sourced from D Kaufman’s book, Clinical neurology for psychiatrists, published in 2007 on page 38.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the options below is not considered a primary delusion?
Your Answer: Delusional memory
Correct Answer: Delusional guilt
Explanation:Delusional guilt is an intense feeling of remorse or guilt that lacks a rational basis and is often associated with depression. It is not classified as a primary delusion.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 43
Incorrect
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How can the rights of patients be defined as an international statement?
Your Answer: Declaration of Ottawa
Correct Answer: Declaration of Lisbon
Explanation:Declarations
The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:
Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.
Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.
Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.
Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.
Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.
Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.
Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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An examiner asks a child to subtract 3 from 50 and then subtract 3 again from the product of that calculation. What is being assessed?
Your Answer: Visual construction
Correct Answer: Concentration
Explanation:The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.
Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)
The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old individual presents with a sudden onset of horizontal diplopia. Upon examination, you note that they have an inability to move their left eye laterally. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?
Your Answer: V
Correct Answer: VI
Explanation:Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions
The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.
The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.
The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.
The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.
The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.
The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.
The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.
The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which researcher suggested that there is a correlation between arousal and task performance up to a certain threshold, after which performance decreases?
Your Answer: Cox
Correct Answer: Yerkes and Dodson
Explanation:The Yerkes-Dodson curve suggests that performance is optimal at moderate levels of arousal, forming an inverted U-shaped relationship.
Cox developed a stimulus model theory inspired by engineering principles, including Hooke’s Law of Elasticity.
Lazarus and Folkman investigated how the perception and interpretation of stressors affect emotional responses.
Seyle is known for his work on response models and the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).
Plutchik identified eight fundamental emotions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What condition primarily impacts females?
Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Correct Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Features
Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:
– Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
– Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
– Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
– Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
– Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
– Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
– Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
– Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
– Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
– Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
– Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
– Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
– Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
– Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
– Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
– Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
– Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
– Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is accurate regarding psychiatric disorders in the elderly population?
Your Answer: ECT is contraindicated
Correct Answer: Sulpiride should be avoided in breastfeeding mothers
Explanation:Puerperal psychosis does not have a specific set of symptoms, syndrome, of course, and about one in 500 live births are affected by it. During the episode of in recurrences, a bipolar pattern is often observed, and there is a higher incidence of puerperal attacks in women with manic-depressive rather than schizophrenic disorders. Suicide threats are common, but the risk of suicide is lower in parous mothers than in nulliparous women. Antipsychotics excreted in breast milk are unlikely to be harmful, but animal studies suggest potential adverse effects on the developing nervous system, and sulpiride should be avoided during breastfeeding. If standard psychotropic treatments fail, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered, and it is particularly effective in postpartum psychosis. The onset of postpartum psychoses is usually rapid, occurring between two and 14 days after delivery, and almost any psychotic symptom may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 49
Correct
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Where is the nucleus basalis of Meynert located?
Your Answer: Inferior to globus pallidus
Explanation:The nucleus basalis of Meynert, located in the basal forebrain substantia innominata, is a cluster of neurons that sends extensive projections to the neocortex. It is situated below the globus pallidus and contains high levels of acetylcholine esterase and choline acetyltransferase. In Alzheimer’s disease, the nucleus basalis of Meynert degenerates, leading to a decrease in acetylcholine levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Among the following groups, which has the highest occurrence of individuals with poor metabolism of CYP2D6?
Your Answer: Caucasian
Correct Answer: Africans and African-Americans
Explanation:The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 51
Correct
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A boy describes how he can see a lion's face in the patterns on his bedroom curtains. He acknowledges that it is just his imagination and the image disappears when he loses focus. What is the nature of this phenomenon?
Your Answer: Pareidolic illusion
Explanation:The perception of an image is created from the stimulus of dirt, which is known as a pareidolic illusion. These illusions tend to fade as concentration decreases.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A client who needs to begin taking an antipsychotic expresses worry about the potential for weight gain. They inquire about which antipsychotic is linked to the highest amount of weight gain. What would you say in response?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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In addition to functioning as a melatonin receptor agonist, what other roles does agomelatine play?
Your Answer: Presynaptic alpha-2 adrenoceptor antagonist
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin-receptor antagonist
Explanation:Agomelatine acts as a melatonin receptor agonist and a selective antagonist of serotonin receptors, without affecting the uptake of serotonin, noradrenaline, of dopamine. Second-generation antipsychotics exhibit some level of dopamine D2 antagonism. Mirtazapine functions as a presynaptic antagonist of alpha-2 adrenoceptors. Reboxetine selectively inhibits the reuptake of noradrenaline. Venlafaxine and duloxetine are recognized as inhibitors of serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A woman undergoes intelligence testing to determine if a learning disability is present. She obtains a Full Scale IQ of 73. Her psychiatrist questions the reliability of the result as they note that the test was normed several decades ago and so the result may overestimate the women's actual ability.
Which phenomenon underpins the psychiatrist's argument?Your Answer: Dunning Kruger effect
Correct Answer: Flynn effect
Explanation:The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to a phenomenon where individuals with limited skills of knowledge tend to overestimate their abilities, leading them to believe they are more competent than they actually are.
The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 55
Incorrect
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One statement that is false regarding the genetics of ADHD is: ADHD is caused by a single gene mutation.
Your Answer: There is strong evidence for a genetic component for the condition
Correct Answer: ADHD has been associated with the neuregulin 1 gene
Explanation:While ADHD has been linked to various genes, neuregulin 1 is not among them. However, it has been suggested to play a role in schizophrenia.
ADHD and Genetics
Decades of research have shown that genetics play a crucial role in the development of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and its comorbidity with other disorders. However, twin estimates of heritability being less than 100% suggest that environmental factors also play a role. Parents and siblings of a child with ADHD are more likely to have ADHD themselves, but the way ADHD is inherited is complex and not related to a single genetic fault. The heritability of ADHD is around 74%, and longitudinal studies show that two-thirds of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood. Adoption studies suggest that the familial factors of ADHD are attributable to genetic factors rather than shared environmental factors. The heritability is similar in males and females, and studies suggest that the diagnosis of ADHD is the extreme of a continuous distribution of ADHD symptoms in the population. Several candidate genes, including DAT1, DRD4, DRD5, 5 HTT, HTR1B, and SNAP25, have been identified as significantly associated with ADHD.
Source: Faraone (2019) Genetics of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Molecular Psychiatry volume 24, pages 562–575 (2019).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 56
Incorrect
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What substance has a comparable impact to khat?
Your Answer: Cocaine
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:For centuries, individuals from the East coast of Africa have been chewing khat, which produces effects that stem from two phenylalkylamines, cathinone and cathine, both of which are structurally similar to amphetamine. The physical effects of khat include dry mouth, dizziness, impotence, cirrhosis, tachycardia, and tachypnoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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How can the frontal lobe function of abstraction be tested?
Your Answer: Alternating sequences
Correct Answer: Cognitive estimates
Explanation:An instance of cognitive approximations involves requesting a patient to provide an estimation of the typical height of a male in the United Kingdom.
Frontal Lobe Tests
The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.
Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.
Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.
Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.
Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.
Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 58
Incorrect
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Which of the following examples best illustrates a drug interaction that affects the way a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, of eliminated in the body?
Your Answer: Allosteric modulation
Correct Answer: Change in gastrointestinal tract motility
Explanation:Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types
Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for the past year due to anxiety. The friend last went shopping a year ago and expressed feeling too nervous to leave the house again. The individual reports no knowledge of any panic attacks. The friend is now experiencing low mood and has begun to lose contact with friends. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Agoraphobia
Explanation:Agoraphobia is the most probable diagnosis, even though not all individuals with agoraphobia experience panic attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A woman is arrested by the police for strangling her husband. She believes he has been replaced by an impostor. Select the appropriate delusional syndrome:
Your Answer: Ekbom's
Correct Answer: Capgras
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 61
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is not associated with an abnormality in the tau protein?
Your Answer: Hepatolenticular degeneration
Explanation:Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is identified by the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain.
Tau and Tauopathies
Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.
When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.
The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 62
Incorrect
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What is the characteristic of jaw musculature contraction?
Your Answer: Laryngeal dystonia
Correct Answer: Trismus
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Broca's aphasia?
Your Answer: Comprehension is severely impaired
Correct Answer: Main areas affected are Brodmann areas 44 and 45
Explanation:Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Through which opening in the skull does the cranial nerve exit that is known as the superior orbital fissure?
Your Answer: Facial (VII)
Correct Answer: Abducens (VI)
Explanation:Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions
The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.
The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.
The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.
The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.
The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.
The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.
The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.
The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 65
Correct
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Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a 3-year-old girl?
Your Answer: A 3-year-old girl will be scared of monsters
Explanation:The types of fear that arise during childhood and adolescence vary depending on the age of the individual. Fear of new things, like strangers, is common at 6 months and peaks at 2 years old. Fear of heights typically starts at 6 to 8 months and intensifies when the child begins to walk. From 3 to 5 years old, children often fear animals, the dark, and monsters. Between 6 and 11 years old, fear of embarrassing social situations, such as being made fun of, may develop. During adolescence, fear of death, failure, social events like parties, and even nuclear war may become more prevalent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 66
Incorrect
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What is the accuracy of the statement that transference is a common occurrence in therapeutic relationships?
Your Answer: Transference is only seen in psychiatric setting
Correct Answer: Transference is the patient’s emotional response to the therapist
Explanation:Transference is the unconscious process of shifting emotions and desires from one person to another, often from a parent of sibling to the therapist. While positive transference can strengthen a patient’s weak ego during psychoanalysis, it is not enough on its own. Resistance, a defense mechanism that thwarts the therapist’s attempts to access unconscious processes, can hinder progress. Freud initially believed transference only occurred in therapy, but later expanded his view to include its presence in all relationships. He also believed that interpreting transference was crucial to the success of psychoanalysis, as the transferential relationship between therapist and patient was the curative factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
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Question 67
Incorrect
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With which concept is the 'phonological similarity effect' commonly associated?
Your Answer: Procedural memory
Correct Answer: Working memory
Explanation:If you are familiar with the ‘phonological Loop’ component of the working memory, you may be able to deduce the meaning of the ‘phonological similarity effect’. This effect describes the difficulty in remembering words that sound alike. Additionally, the ‘word-length effect’ and ‘articulatory suppression’ are two other phenomena that involve the working memory.
Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-dominant parietal lesions?
Your Answer: Dressing apraxia
Correct Answer: Agraphia
Explanation:Non-Dominant Parietal Lobe Dysfunction
The non-dominant parietal lobe is typically the right lobe in most individuals. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, including the inability to recognize one’s own illness (anosognosia), neglect of half the body (hemiasomatognosia), difficulty dressing (dressing apraxia), trouble with spatial awareness and construction (constructional dyspraxia), difficulty recognizing familiar places (geographical agnosia), and altered perception of sensory stimuli (allesthesia). It’s important to note that agraphia, a symptom seen in Gerstmann’s syndrome, is caused by dysfunction in the dominant parietal lobe, not the non-dominant lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 69
Correct
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A child in the hospital is experiencing tactile hallucinations during alcohol withdrawal. What is the term used to describe this sensation?
Your Answer: Formication
Explanation:The sensation of insects crawling on of under the skin is known as formication and is often linked to alcohol withdrawal of delirium. Briquet’s syndrome is a type of somatisation disorder. Jamais vu is a phenomenon where a person recognizes a situation but feels unfamiliar with it, which can be a normal experience. Lilliputian hallucinations, which involve seeing miniature people of animals, may be a symptom of temporal lobe epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 70
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there is no apparent cause, you schedule an appointment to conduct a thorough assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that he experiences strong cravings to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. He then takes laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and his body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa
Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement. In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely. A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.
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Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement.
In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely.
A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder presents with an acute confusional state.
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to precipitate lithium toxicity?Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Plasma concentrations of lithium may be decreased by both sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A teenage girl refuses to attend social events with her peers due to her fear of having bad breath, even though others have told her she does not have it. She insists on staying home alone. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Locura
Correct Answer: Taijin-jikoshu-kyofu
Explanation:Culture-bound syndromes are conditions that are specific to certain cultures and are often accompanied by culturally accepted beliefs and practices for treatment. These syndromes may not fit into the diagnostic criteria of Western medicine and are often unique to certain regions of ethnic groups. Examples of culture-bound syndromes include Taijin-jikoshu-kyofu in Japan, Piblokto in the Arctic, Koro in Malaysia, Locura among Latinos in the United States and Latin America, and Susto among Latinos in the United States and in Mexico, Central America, and South America. These syndromes are often associated with social and cultural factors and may require culturally sensitive approaches to treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Which drug is most likely to increase the likelihood of serious cardiac events?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Thioridazine
Explanation:Which two medications have been associated with sudden death and subsequently removed from the UK market due to their effect on the QTc interval?
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 74
Correct
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Which type of channel opening in the plasma membrane leads to the depolarization of a neuron?
Your Answer: Na
Explanation:Understanding Action Potentials in Neurons and Muscle Cells
The membrane potential is a crucial aspect of cell physiology, and it exists across the plasma membrane of most cells. However, in neurons and muscle cells, this membrane potential can change over time. When a cell is not stimulated, it is in a resting state, and the inside of the cell is negatively charged compared to the outside. This resting membrane potential is typically around -70mV, and it is maintained by the Na/K pump, which maintains a high concentration of Na outside and K inside the cell.
To trigger an action potential, the membrane potential must be raised to around -55mV. This can occur when a neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic neuron and opens some ion channels. Once the membrane potential reaches -55mV, a cascade of events is initiated, leading to the opening of a large number of Na channels and causing the cell to depolarize. As the membrane potential reaches around +40 mV, the Na channels close, and the K gates open, allowing K to flood out of the cell and causing the membrane potential to fall back down. This process is irreversible and is critical for the transmission of signals in neurons and the contraction of muscle cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Which category does utilitarianism belong to?
Your Answer: Kantianism
Correct Answer: Teleology
Explanation:Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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What sign of symptom is most indicative of a long-term issue with alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: Argyll Robertson pupils
Correct Answer: Multiple spider naevi
Explanation:Spider Nevus: Causes and Symptoms
A spider nevus is a common type of angioma that appears on the skin’s surface. It is usually considered a normal finding when one of two are present. However, if there is a rapid development of numerous prominent spider nevi, it may indicate an underlying liver problem. The most common cause of this condition is alcohol consumption. Pregnant women and those who use oral contraceptives are also prone to developing spider nevi due to the dilation of existing vessels on the skin surface. If you notice any unusual changes in the appearance of spider nevi, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A senior citizen is experiencing sedation during lurasidone dose titration. What is the medication's minimum effective dose?
Your Answer: 18.5 mg
Correct Answer: 37 mg
Explanation:Lurasidone may cause akathisia and sedation as common side effects, which can vary based on the dosage. Its metabolic profile is neutral. However, doses lower than 37 mg are unlikely to produce desired results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 78
Correct
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Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect?
Your Answer: Anticholinergics are indicated in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Patients who develop TD who are prescribed an anticholinergic drug should not have this discontinued if possible.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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What is the enzyme responsible for deactivating acetylcholine?
Your Answer: Cholinesterase
Correct Answer: Acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 80
Incorrect
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What option has the least likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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What is a licensed treatment for PTSD?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:While NICE recommends mirtazapine for the treatment of PTSD, its license only permits its use for major depression.
Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)
The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.
– Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
– Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
– Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
– Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
– Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
– Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
– OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
– Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
– PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects?
Your Answer: Cocaine
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines
Explanation:Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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What is the rate of schizophrenia concordance among dizygotic twins according to the Gottesman data?
Your Answer: 55%
Correct Answer: 17%
Explanation:Schizophrenia: A Genetic Disorder
Adoption studies have consistently shown that biological relatives of patients with schizophrenia have an increased risk of developing the disorder. Schizophrenia is a complex disorder with incomplete penetrance, as evidenced by the fact that monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of approximately 50%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate of 17%. This indicates a significant genetic contribution to the disorder, with an estimated heritability of 80%. Segregation analysis suggests that schizophrenia follows a multifactorial model.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A patient with no significant psychiatric history develops an unexpected episode of mania at the age of 50. When you are admitting her it comes to your attention that she has recently been started on a number of new medications. Which of the following would be most likely to precipitate an episode of mania?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs
There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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What type of speech disorder is commonly associated with spasticity and would be most likely to be observed in a patient?
Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Correct Answer: Pseudobulbar palsy
Explanation:Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.
Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.
Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.
Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.
Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.
Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A teenage girl is asked why it is wrong to cheat on a test. She answers, Because I could get in trouble with the school and my parents.
According to Kohlberg's model of moral development, which stage is she at?Your Answer: Maintaining the social order
Correct Answer: Punishment and obedience orientation
Explanation:The first two stages of moral development, punishment and obedience orientation and individuation and exchange, are collectively referred to as preconventional morality. At this stage, children understand right and wrong based on the consequences of their actions, with punishment being a deterrent in the first stage and risk avoidance in the second stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 87
Correct
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What is the average number of digits that individuals can remember in the digit span forwards test?
Your Answer: 7 +/- 2
Explanation:The Magical Number Seven, Plus of Minus Two: Some Limits on Our Capacity for Processing Information
Miller’s (1956) study focused on the limits of our short-term memory capacity, specifically in regards to our ability to recall sequences of numbers. The digit span test, which involves repeating back increasingly longer sequences of numbers both forwards and backwards, is used to measure this capacity. Miller found that the normal range for Digit Span forward was a maximum span of 7±2 digits. This study highlights the limitations of our short-term memory and the importance of understanding these limitations in various contexts, such as education and cognitive psychology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 88
Correct
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How would you rephrase the question to refer to an ethical approach that focuses on weighing potential positive and negative outcomes?
Your Answer: Utilitarian
Explanation:Deontological (duty-based) ethics prioritize the actions of individuals over the observable practical consequences of those actions.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 89
Correct
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Which of the following descriptions is most accurately categorized as a primary delusion?
Your Answer: A patient reports that suddenly the world has changed, that people are looking at them oddly, and that something must have happened although they do not know what
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a delusional atmosphere and mood, which is a primary delusion. This means that they are in an emotional state where they are making connections and attributing significance to things that have no relevance to a healthy person. The patient’s belief that the world has changed and people are looking at them is an example of this. The other options, such as grandiose mood of auditory hallucinations, are secondary delusions that result from another underlying psychopathology.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 90
Incorrect
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What test can be used to detect constructional apraxia?
Your Answer: Thematic Apperception Test
Correct Answer: Clock drawing test
Explanation:Individuals with constructional apraxia are unable to replicate drawings of arrange objects to create patterns of designs.
Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction
The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.
The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.
The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 91
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about primary polydipsia?
Your Answer: Psychotic patients with psychogenic polydipsia usually complain about experiencing excessive thirst
Correct Answer: Polyuria throughout the night is uncommonly reported by patients with primary polydipsia
Explanation:Patients with polydipsia tend to have a slower onset of symptoms and are less likely to report waking up at night to drink of urinate, in comparison to patients with conditions like diabetes insipidus (Fenske, 2012). Fenske’s (2012) clinical review discusses the current and future approaches to diagnosing diabetes insipidus.
Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 92
Incorrect
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What information is necessary to determine the volume of distribution?
Your Answer: The lipid solubility of the dug
Correct Answer: The concentration of the drug in the plasma
Explanation:Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology
The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.
The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.
The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six basic emotions?
Your Answer: Anger
Correct Answer: Relief
Explanation:Primary Emotions
Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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The patient's complaint of being unable to identify objects in their hand without visual confirmation is an instance of what?
Your Answer: Anosognosia
Correct Answer: Astereognosia
Explanation:Agnosia is a condition where a person loses the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, of smells, despite having no significant memory loss of defective senses. There are different types of agnosia, such as prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own condition/illness), autotopagnosia (inability to orient parts of the body), phonagnosia (inability to recognize familiar voices), simultanagnosia (inability to appreciate two objects in the visual field at the same time), and astereoagnosia (inability to recognize objects by touch).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 95
Incorrect
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What is the most likely diagnosis when an MRI shows high signal in the medial aspects of both thalami that is bilateral and symmetrical?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Variant CJD
Explanation:The pulvinar sign seen on radiological imaging can indicate several possible conditions, including Alper’s Syndrome, cat-scratch disease, and post-infectious encephalitis. It may also be present in cases of M/V2 subtype of sporadic CJD, thalamic infarctions, and top-of-the-basilar ischemia. However, when considering vCJD, the pulvinar sign should be evaluated in the appropriate clinical context.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.
vCJD:
– Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
– Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
– MRI shows pulvinar sign
– EEG shows generalized slowing
– Originates from infected meat products
– Affects younger people (age 25-30)CJD:
– Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
– Presents with neurological symptoms
– MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
– EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
– Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
– Affects older people (age 55-65)Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 96
Incorrect
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What is the pathway for cerebrospinal fluid to flow from the third to the fourth ventricle?
Your Answer: Foramen of Lushka
Correct Answer: Aqueduct of Sylvius
Explanation:Cerebrospinal Fluid: Formation, Circulation, and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. It is constantly reabsorbed, so only a small amount is present at any given time. CSF occupies the space between the arachnoid and pia mater and passes through various foramina and aqueducts to reach the subarachnoid space and spinal cord. It is then reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi and enters the dural venous sinuses.
The normal intracerebral pressure (ICP) is 5 to 15 mmHg, and the rate of formation of CSF is constant. The composition of CSF is similar to that of brain extracellular fluid (ECF) but different from plasma. CSF has a higher pCO2, lower pH, lower protein content, lower glucose concentration, higher chloride and magnesium concentration, and very low cholesterol content. The concentration of calcium and potassium is lower, while the concentration of sodium is unchanged.
CSF fulfills the role of returning interstitial fluid and protein to the circulation since there are no lymphatic channels in the brain. The blood-brain barrier separates CSF from blood, and only lipid-soluble substances can easily cross this barrier, maintaining the compositional differences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 97
Incorrect
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If budget constraints were the only consideration in allocating healthcare resources, what ethical framework would guide the decision-making process?
Your Answer: Deontological
Correct Answer: Utilitarian
Explanation:While quality adjusted life years (QALY) are a utilitarian measure, it would be extreme to suggest that individuals with illnesses that require expensive treatments should not be treated solely based on the cost-benefit analysis. The general population does not strictly adhere to utilitarian principles, and therefore, The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) considers other factors such as justice and the availability of alternative treatments for a particular condition in addition to the cost per QALY when making recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What score on the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale indicates a high likelihood of depression?
Your Answer: 62
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)
The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a 10-item self-report questionnaire designed to screen for postnatal depression in primary care settings. It should only be used to assess a women’s mood over the past seven days and cannot be used to diagnose depression. The EPDS excludes some symptoms common in the perinatal period, such as tiredness and irritability, as they do not differentiate between depressed and non-depressed postnatal women. Women are asked to select one of four responses that most closely represents how they have felt over the past seven days. Scores for the 10 items are added together, with a score of 0-9 indicating a low likelihood of depression, 10-12 indicating a moderate likelihood, and 13 of more indicating a high likelihood. The statements include feelings of happiness, sadness, anxiety, and thoughts of self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 99
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism by which antipsychotic use leads to erectile dysfunction?
Your Answer: Α1 receptor agonism
Correct Answer: Cholinergic receptor antagonism
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management
Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donald Winnicott
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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