00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - What is the term for the genetic process that involves the creation of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term for the genetic process that involves the creation of proteins from mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA?

      Your Answer: Transcription

      Correct Answer: Translation

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      75.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis?

      Your Answer: Major depression is associated with hyposecretion of cortisol

      Correct Answer: Major depression is associated with increased levels of corticotropin-releasing factor in the CSF

      Explanation:

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation...

    Incorrect

    • What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with treatment-resistant depression?

      Your Answer: Inferior thalamic peduncle

      Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for treatment resistant depression targets specific brain regions based on their known involvement in pleasure, reward, and mood regulation. The nucleus accumbens is targeted due to its role in pleasure and reward processing. The inferior thalamic peduncle is targeted based on PET studies showing hyperactivity in depression. The lateral habenula is chosen due to observed hypermetabolism in depressed patients. The subgenual cingulate gyrus is targeted due to its hyperactivity in depression. The ventral capsule/ventral striatum is chosen based on its association with improved mood and reduced depressive symptoms following ablation treatments for OCD and depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A senior citizen is experiencing sedation during lurasidone dose titration. What is the...

    Correct

    • A senior citizen is experiencing sedation during lurasidone dose titration. What is the medication's minimum effective dose?

      Your Answer: 37 mg

      Explanation:

      Lurasidone may cause akathisia and sedation as common side effects, which can vary based on the dosage. Its metabolic profile is neutral. However, doses lower than 37 mg are unlikely to produce desired results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based...

    Correct

    • Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based on the LOD score?

      Your Answer: -3

      Explanation:

      Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics

      In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.

      To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      686
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A child chooses to touch a hot stove and gets burned. Their parent...

    Incorrect

    • A child chooses to touch a hot stove and gets burned. Their parent immediately takes them to the hospital and treats their burn. For many months after this incident, the child avoids touching any hot surfaces. Which of the following best describes the child's new behaviour regarding hot surfaces?

      Stimulus generalisation
      5%

      Stimulus preparedness
      10%

      Avoidance conditioning
      80%

      Escape conditioning
      3%

      Chaining
      2%

      Your Answer: Stimulus generalisation

      Correct Answer: Avoidance conditioning

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following conditions is not licensed for the use of duloxetine?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not licensed for the use of duloxetine?

      Your Answer: Diabetic neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Acne vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Duloxetine is also licensed for the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder.

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following drugs is mainly a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is mainly a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI)?

      Your Answer: Alprazolam

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      Medication Types:

      Atomoxetine (Strattera) is a medication used to treat ADHD by inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline. It has a similar structure to some antidepressants.

      Acamprosate is a medication that acts as an antagonist at NMDA receptors and is the only medication licensed for the relief of cravings in alcohol dependence.

      Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication.

      Amisulpride is an atypical (second generation) antipsychotic medication that works as a serotonin and dopamine antagonist.

      Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic medication that acts as a partial agonist at dopamine receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is a true statement about clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about clozapine?

      Your Answer: It produces significant prolactin elevation

      Correct Answer: It affects adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      114.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification? ...

    Incorrect

    • What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine and Mianserin are significant NaSSA’s (Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants) that function by blocking adrenergic and serotonergic receptors. In contrast to the majority of antidepressants, they do not impact the reuptake of serotonin.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the accurate statement about the pathology of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the pathology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Pallor of the substantia nigra is a characteristic finding

      Correct Answer: Brain volume of affected individuals is often reduced

      Explanation:

      While ventricular enlargement is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia, it is not a definitive indicator of the condition as it can also be present in other disorders.

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old boy is facing bullying at school due to his mother's diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is facing bullying at school due to his mother's diagnosis of bipolar disorder. What is the term for this type of stigma?

      Your Answer: Public stigma

      Correct Answer: Courtesy stigma

      Explanation:

      Courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that friends and family members of a person with a mental illness may experience due to their association with the affected individual. This can lead to secrecy about the diagnosis. Enacted stigma is the actual experience of discrimination, while felt stigma is the fear of discrimination that can prevent people from seeking help. Public stigma is the negative attitudes and reactions of the general population towards those with mental illness. Self-stigma is the internalized prejudice and reduced sense of self-worth that individuals with mental illness may experience. These terms were first introduced by Goffman in 1963.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most prevalent type of attachment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent type of attachment?

      Your Answer: Avoidant

      Correct Answer: Secure

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old female who has a past of opioid addiction has successfully maintained...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female who has a past of opioid addiction has successfully maintained sobriety and is seeking support in controlling her urges.
      What would be the most suitable medication intervention for managing her cravings?

      Your Answer: Bupropion hydrochloride

      Correct Answer: Acamprosate calcium

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Treatments for Alcohol Dependence

      Acamprosate, when used in conjunction with counselling, has been found to be effective in helping alcohol-dependent patients with strong cravings maintain abstinence. Bupropion hydrochloride, which is primarily used as an antidepressant, has also been shown to be effective in maintaining smoking cessation. Disulfiram, on the other hand, causes an unpleasant systemic reaction when alcohol is consumed due to the buildup of acetaldehyde. Nalmefene has recently been licensed for the reduction of alcohol consumption in alcohol-dependent patients with a high drinking risk level who do not have physical withdrawal symptoms and do not require immediate detoxification. Finally, naltrexone, an opioid-receptor antagonist, may be used in the treatment of alcohol dependence after successful withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way...

    Correct

    • Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way a drug works in the body?

      Your Answer: Competition at a receptor

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      253.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A child comes to the clinic, they say hello and take a seat....

    Incorrect

    • A child comes to the clinic, they say hello and take a seat. You ask them how their day was to which they answer 'good'. They are then asked to name their favorite animal to which they answer dog. They are then asked what sound a cat makes and they answer woof. They are then asked what color the sky is and they answer green. What sign do they exhibit?

      Your Answer: Thought block

      Correct Answer: Perseveration

      Explanation:

      Perseveration: The Clinical Symptoms in Chronic Schizophrenia and Organic Dementia

      Perseveration is a common behavior observed in patients with organic brain involvement. It is characterized by the conscious continuation of an act of an idea. This behavior is frequently seen in patients with delirium, epilepsy, dementia, schizophrenia, and normal individuals under extreme fatigue of drug-induced states.

      In chronic schizophrenia and organic dementia, perseveration is a prominent symptom. Patients with these conditions tend to repeat the same words, phrases, of actions over and over again, even when it is no longer appropriate of relevant to the situation. This behavior can be frustrating for caregivers and family members, and it can also interfere with the patient’s ability to communicate effectively.

      In schizophrenia, perseveration is often associated with disorganized thinking and speech. Patients may jump from one topic to another without any logical connection, and they may repeat the same words of phrases in an attempt to express their thoughts. In organic dementia, perseveration is a sign of cognitive decline and memory impairment. Patients may repeat the same stories of questions, forgetting that they have already asked of answered them.

      Overall, perseveration is a common symptom in patients with organic brain involvement, and it can have a significant impact on their daily functioning and quality of life. Understanding this behavior is essential for effective management and treatment of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A pediatrician who sees a child with asthma prescribes them the treatment which...

    Correct

    • A pediatrician who sees a child with asthma prescribes them the treatment which they believe is best based on their knowledge of the likely effectiveness of the medication. They fail to take into account the individual circumstances of the child. Which approach to doctor-patient relationships does the pediatrician adopt?

      Your Answer: Paternalistic

      Explanation:

      Models of Doctor-Patient Relationship

      There are four distinct models of doctor-patient relationship that have been identified. The first is the paternalistic of autocratic model, which assumes that the doctor knows best and makes all decisions regarding treatment. The patient is expected to simply comply with the doctor’s orders. The second model is the informative model, where the doctor provides information to the patient and leaves the decision-making process entirely up to them. The third model is the interpretive model, where the doctor takes the time to understand the patient’s circumstances and helps them make a decision based on their unique situation. This model involves shared decision-making and active participation from the patient. Finally, the deliberative model involves the doctor acting as a friend to the patient and attempting to steer them in a particular course of action that they believe is in the patient’s best interest. However, ultimately, the choice is left up to the patient. Understanding these different models can help doctors and patients work together more effectively to achieve the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a factor that is known to protect against the development of...

    Correct

    • What is a factor that is known to protect against the development of mental illness?

      Your Answer: Autonomy

      Explanation:

      Autonomy is the ability of an individual to make their own decisions, which is considered a protective factor for mental health disorders. Risk factors for mental disorders include medical illness, communication deviance, elder abuse, and caring for dementia patients. The World Health Organization (WHO) emphasizes the importance of targeting determinants that have a causal influence on the onset of mental disorders for prevention. Risk factors increase the probability, severity, and duration of major health problems, while protective factors improve people’s resistance to these risk factors and disorders. Protective factors are defined as factors that modify, ameliorate, of alter a person’s response to environmental hazards that predispose to maladaptive outcomes. Individual protective factors are often associated with positive mental health, such as self-esteem, emotional resilience, positive thinking, problem-solving and social skills, stress management skills, and feelings of mastery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is believed to be an effective method for treating ADHD by selectively...

    Correct

    • What is believed to be an effective method for treating ADHD by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements about the developmental stage of adolescence is accurate?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about the developmental stage of adolescence is accurate?

      Your Answer: States that the child realises the world is not perfect

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein introduced the concepts of object relations, the depressive position, and the paranoid schizoid position. The initial stage is the paranoid schizoid position, where the infant divides their ego and perception of the mother into two opposing parts, one positive and one negative. As the child grows, they come to understand that the same person can possess both positive and negative qualities, leading to the achievement of the depressive position. Splitting is a defense mechanism that prevents the integration of positive and negative object images. Isolation is another defense mechanism that involves separating the memory of an unacceptable impulse of action from the associated emotion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing auditory hallucinations upon waking up. She also reports instances of feeling paralyzed even after awakening. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: REM behavioural disorder

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario are indicative of narcolepsy, specifically hypnopompic hallucinations and sleep paralysis. Narcolepsy is characterized by a set of symptoms including sleep attacks, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations. Primary hypersomnia is excessive daytime sleepiness without the associated features of other sleep disorders of narcolepsy. REM sleep behavioral disorder (RBD) is characterized by complex behaviors during sleep, typically occurring during the longest periods of REM sleep and accompanied by vivid dream recall. Sleep terror disorder, also known as night terror, occurs during partial arousal from delta sleep and is typically amnestic. In contrast, the patient in the scenario was able to recall the episode of sleep paralysis. Schizophrenia cannot be diagnosed based on the symptoms described, as the criteria for hallucinations and an additional symptom from criterion A must be present for a significant portion of the time, and the symptoms can be attributed to narcolepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      624.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the lifetime prevalence rate of specific phobia in females across their...

    Correct

    • What is the lifetime prevalence rate of specific phobia in females across their lifespan?

      Your Answer: 13%

      Explanation:

      The percentage of women who experience specific phobia at some point in their lives is 13%. The percentage of people who experience obsessive compulsive disorder within a year is 2.1%. The percentage of women who experience agoraphobia without panic disorder within a year is 3.8%. The percentage of men who experience specific phobia at some point in their lives is 4%. The percentage of people in the US National Comorbidity study who experience social phobia within a year is 7.4%. All of these statistics are based on the diagnostic criteria outlined in DSM-III R.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which drug is desipramine the active metabolite of? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug is desipramine the active metabolite of?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants with Active Metabolites

      Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethylclomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.

      These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the origin of the concept of first rank symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the origin of the concept of first rank symptoms?

      Your Answer: Carl Schneider

      Correct Answer: Kurt Schneider

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that Carl Schneider should not be mistaken for Kurt Schneider. While Carl Schneider was a psychiatrist who had ties to the Nazi party and played a significant role in the Action T4 Euthanasia program, Kurt Schneider was a different individual altogether.

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What type of chromosome is most vulnerable to Robertsonian translocations? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of chromosome is most vulnerable to Robertsonian translocations?

      Your Answer: Telocentric

      Correct Answer: Acrocentric

      Explanation:

      Robertsonian translocations can involve chromosomes with very small p arms, which are known as acrocentric chromosomes.

      Understanding Centromeres

      A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which messenger...

    Correct

    • What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which messenger RNA (mRNA) is synthesized?

      Your Answer: Transcription

      Explanation:

      Transcription is the process of converting DNA into messenger RNA (mRNA) and takes place in the nucleus of a cell. RNA is similar to DNA, but with a ribose sugar backbone instead of deoxyribose, and uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).

      After transcription, the mRNA is transported out of the nucleus and undergoes translation in the cytoplasm to form a protein. Ribosomes bind to the mRNA, and transfer RNA (tRNA) reads the genetic code to create the protein.

      Recombination is the process of DNA detaching from one chromosome and attaching to another, resulting in new variations of chromosomes. In eukaryotes, this typically occurs during meiosis between homologous chromosome pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A teacher is concerned that one of their students is delirious. Which of...

    Correct

    • A teacher is concerned that one of their students is delirious. Which of the following would indicate that the student is oriented?

      Your Answer: Patient correctly states the date and time

      Explanation:

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A caregiver at a residential home asks if it's okay to secretly give...

    Incorrect

    • A caregiver at a residential home asks if it's okay to secretly give medication to an elderly resident with moderate dementia who has been refusing their medication for the past two days. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: She can covertly administer only those medications which are necessary for the patient's physical well-being

      Correct Answer: She should arrange a full team discussion to consider the patient's best interests

      Explanation:

      While there are situations where covert administration of medication may be necessary, it is important to approach this practice with caution due to its controversial nature. In cases where covert medication is deemed necessary to improve a patient’s mental health, it is recommended to convene a ‘best interests meeting’ involving the multidisciplinary team and family. The patient’s capacity should be taken into account, regardless of whether they are detained of not. While the views of the patient’s next of kin should be considered, they should not be the sole determining factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      332.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam?

      Your Answer: It does not assess frontal lobe function

      Correct Answer: It is a useful tool for detecting dementia

      Explanation:

      The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia

      The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.

      The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the...

    Correct

    • In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the highest?

      Your Answer: Young men

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (2/4) 50%
Neurosciences (1/5) 20%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Psychopharmacology (4/9) 44%
Stigma And Culture (0/1) 0%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Classification And Assessment (2/4) 50%
Prevention Of Psychological Disorder (1/1) 100%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed