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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual diagnosed with bipolar disorder?
Your Answer: Fleeting hallucinations
Correct Answer: Disturbance of psychosocial function
Explanation:Hypomania is a milder form of mania (F30.1) that lacks hallucinations of delusions but still presents persistent and noticeable changes in mood and behavior that exceed those seen in cyclothymia (F34.0). To diagnose hypomania, these features must be present for several consecutive days and cause significant interference with work of social activity. However, if the disruption is severe of complete, mania (F30.1 of F30.2) should be considered instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of these is not a part of MELAS syndrome?
Your Answer: Recurrent stroke syndrome
Correct Answer: Asystole
Explanation:Non-Mendelian inheritance patterns include mitochondrial inheritance, trinucleotide expansion, mosaicism, and genomic imprinting. These patterns do not follow the typical Mendelian principles. Examples of non-Mendelian mitochondrial inheritance include Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and MELAS syndrome, which is characterized by mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and recurrent stroke.
On the other hand, Mendelian genetic inheritance patterns include autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and sex-linked disorders such as X-linked dominant and X-linked recessive.
Mitochondrial DNA abnormalities can lead to various diseases, including MELAS syndrome. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited solely from the mother’s ovum, and the embryo’s mitochondria are entirely maternally derived. Most mitochondrial diseases manifest as myopathies and neuropathies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the typical emotional response observed in children with 'secure attachment' when their primary caregiver exits the room during the strange situation procedure?
Your Answer: Ambivalence
Correct Answer: Distress
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 4
Incorrect
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How does varenicline work in the body?
Your Answer: Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptor partial agonist
Explanation:Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy
Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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What is a licensed treatment for PTSD?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:While NICE recommends mirtazapine for the treatment of PTSD, its license only permits its use for major depression.
Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)
The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.
– Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
– Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
– Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
– Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
– Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
– Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
– OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
– Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
– PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following symptoms is uncommon during the discontinuation of SSRIs?
Your Answer: Crying spells
Correct Answer: Palpitations
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What category of adverse drug reaction does insomnia and anxiety resulting from benzodiazepine withdrawal fall under?
Your Answer: Type A
Correct Answer: Type E
Explanation:The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s normal pharmacological actions are exaggerated at the usual therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected responses that do not align with the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for an extended period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after some time has passed since the medication was used. Finally, Type E reactions are linked to the discontinuation of a medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox. She has a history of memory lapses. Upon examination, there are no significant cognitive impairments. What nutritional supplement should be considered to decrease her chances of experiencing neuropsychiatric complications?
Your Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:For individuals undergoing treatment for alcohol dependence, it is recommended to administer prophylactic Vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent the development of neuropsychiatric complications such as Wernicke’s of Korsakoff’s syndrome. The administration of intravenous of intramuscular thiamine (Pabrinex) is effective in reducing the risk of such complications. However, a lower dosage is used for prophylactic purposes compared to the dosage used for individuals with established cognitive deficits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the definition of volitional passivity?
Your Answer: The patient experiences an urge which originates outside him, but the choice of whether to obey the urge remains his
Correct Answer: The patient is aware of someone controlling his actions as though he were a robot
Explanation:All of the options describe passivity phenomena, which are first rank symptoms. Passivity of volition involves feeling like one’s actions are controlled by someone else. Passivity of impulse is experiencing an urge that originates outside oneself. Thought insertion is the awareness of an alien presence inserting thoughts into one’s mind, which may be accompanied by visceral hallucinations. Somatic passivity is the feeling that someone is controlling things inside one’s body. Passivity of affect involves feeling emotions that originate outside oneself, which is different from incongruity of blunting of affect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which statement about neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is incorrect?
Your Answer: An important differential diagnosis is serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: It is usually caused by benzodiazepine use
Explanation:When apomorphine is withdrawn, it results in a decrease in dopamine activity in the brain, similar to the effect of starting an antipsychotic medication that blocks dopamine receptors.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 12 year old male is referred by his GP following concerns by his school regarding his academic ability. He is unable to read of write. Which of the following would be the most appropriate measure of his intellectual functioning?
Your Answer: WISC
Explanation:The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Who proposed a categorical model for schizophrenia that categorized patients into types I and II?
Your Answer: Schneider
Correct Answer: Crow
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Correct
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A middle-aged woman with early onset dementia believes that she is living in a flat identical to her own which has been built in another city. She is very worried that she will have to pay two sets of rent and that her other flat will be robbed. What symptom is she exhibiting?
Your Answer: Reduplicative paramnesia
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In which areas are the Hayling and Brixton tests utilized to identify deficiencies?
Your Answer: Spatial orientation
Correct Answer: Executive function
Explanation:Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests
The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.
The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which substance has the greatest amount of time required for half of its atoms to decay?
Your Answer: Clonazepam
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is part of a group trying to decide on a restaurant for dinner. When the group suggests a popular Italian restaurant, the other 4 members all say they want to go there. The woman is hesitant, but ultimately agrees with the group's choice.
Which group process is at play here?Your Answer: Conformity
Explanation:Social Influence Phenomena
Conformity is a social influence phenomenon where individuals tend to adopt the attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors of a group, aligning themselves with group norms. The bystander effect is another social influence phenomenon where individuals fail to offer help to a victim when others are present. The likelihood of help decreases as the number of bystanders increases. Groupthink occurs when a group makes poor decisions due to group pressures that lead to a decline in mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment. Polarization is the tendency for a group to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclinations of its members. Deindividuation is the loss of self-awareness in groups, often leading to violent acts in situations such as football hooliganism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Correct
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What is a true statement about Capgras syndrome?
Your Answer: It results from delusional misidentification
Explanation:Capgras syndrome is caused by a delusional belief rather than a hallucinatory perception.
Delusional Misidentification Syndrome
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the pathway for cerebrospinal fluid to flow from the third to the fourth ventricle?
Your Answer: Intraventricular foramen
Correct Answer: Aqueduct of Sylvius
Explanation:Cerebrospinal Fluid: Formation, Circulation, and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. It is constantly reabsorbed, so only a small amount is present at any given time. CSF occupies the space between the arachnoid and pia mater and passes through various foramina and aqueducts to reach the subarachnoid space and spinal cord. It is then reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi and enters the dural venous sinuses.
The normal intracerebral pressure (ICP) is 5 to 15 mmHg, and the rate of formation of CSF is constant. The composition of CSF is similar to that of brain extracellular fluid (ECF) but different from plasma. CSF has a higher pCO2, lower pH, lower protein content, lower glucose concentration, higher chloride and magnesium concentration, and very low cholesterol content. The concentration of calcium and potassium is lower, while the concentration of sodium is unchanged.
CSF fulfills the role of returning interstitial fluid and protein to the circulation since there are no lymphatic channels in the brain. The blood-brain barrier separates CSF from blood, and only lipid-soluble substances can easily cross this barrier, maintaining the compositional differences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is a personality disorder that falls under the cluster C category?
Your Answer: Histrionic
Correct Answer: Dependent
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Correct
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The initial stage of moral development, as per Lawrence Kohlberg, is:
Your Answer: Obedience and punishment orientation
Explanation:Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.
The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.
The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.
It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which drug is most likely to increase the likelihood of serious cardiac events?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Thioridazine
Explanation:Which two medications have been associated with sudden death and subsequently removed from the UK market due to their effect on the QTc interval?
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the truth about polyuria and polydipsia caused by lithium?
Your Answer: It typically resolves spontaneously after 1-2 weeks
Correct Answer: It is improved by once daily versus twice daily dosing of lithium
Explanation:Daily administration results in increased maximum concentration but more importantly decreased minimum concentration, which is believed to facilitate renal restoration.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The patient, a 25-year-old male who was recently started on risperidone, presents to the clinic with complaints of decreased libido and gynecomastia. These symptoms may be attributed to the blockade of D-2 receptors in which of the following pathways?
Your Answer: Nigrostriatal
Correct Answer: Tuberoinfundibular
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases is not considered a prion disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dhat
Explanation:Dhat is a syndrome that is specific to Indian culture and affects men. Those who suffer from it experience anxiety about the presence of semen in their urine, which they believe leads to a loss of energy.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.
vCJD:
– Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
– Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
– MRI shows pulvinar sign
– EEG shows generalized slowing
– Originates from infected meat products
– Affects younger people (age 25-30)CJD:
– Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
– Presents with neurological symptoms
– MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
– EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
– Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
– Affects older people (age 55-65)Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is an example of a non-verbal intelligence test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raven's progressive matrices
Explanation:Out of the given options, the Raven’s progressive matrices test is the sole test that does not involve verbal elements.
Intelligence Test: Raven’s Progressive Matrices
The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) test is designed to measure general intelligence without the use of verbal language. The test consists of a series of items where the participant is required to identify the missing pattern in a sequence. The difficulty level of the items increases progressively, which demands greater cognitive capacity to encode and analyze the patterns.
There are three versions of the RPM test, each designed for different age groups and abilities. The Coloured Progressive Matrices is intended for younger children and special groups, while the Stanford Progressive Matrices is suitable for individuals aged 6 to 80 years old with average intelligence. The Advanced Progressive Matrices is designed for above-average adolescents and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which drug has a very small margin of safety between its therapeutic and toxic doses?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Due to its low therapeutic index, lithium necessitates monitoring.
Narrow Therapeutic Index Drugs
Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are medications that have a small difference between the amount that causes a therapeutic effect and the amount that causes toxicity. In other words, the therapeutic index (TI) of these drugs is narrow. The TI is a ratio that compares the blood concentration at which a drug causes a therapeutic effect to the amount that causes death of toxicity.
In clinical practice, the TI is the range of doses at which a medication appeared to be effective in clinical trials for a median of participants without unacceptable adverse effects. For most drugs, this range is wide enough, and the maximum plasma concentration of the drug achieved when the recommended doses of a drug are prescribed lie sufficiently above the minimum therapeutic concentration and sufficiently below the toxic concentration.
However, some drugs have a narrow therapeutic index, which means that even small changes in dose of blood concentration can lead to serious adverse effects. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) defines a drug product as having an NTI when there is less than a twofold difference in the minimum toxic concentrations and minimum effective concentrations in the blood and safe and effective use of the drug requires careful titration and patient monitoring.
Examples of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index include carbamazepine, lithium, phenytoin, warfarin, digoxin, and gentamicin. These drugs require close monitoring to ensure that the blood concentration remains within the therapeutic range and does not reach toxic levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In child psychology, what is the term used to describe the symptom where a child's speech is reduced to meaningless repetition of sounds, words, of phrases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verbigeration
Explanation:When a patient exhibits verbigeration, it can be a sign of loosening of association, which can also be seen in severe expressive aphasia and sometimes in schizophrenia. Knight’s move thinking is another example of loosening of associations, where the patient transitions from one topic to another without any logical connection. Neologisms are words of phrases created by the patient to describe their experiences, often related to their illness. Overinclusion is when the patient expands the boundaries of concepts, grouping things together that are not normally associated. Talking past the point, of vorbeireden, is when the patient seems to be approaching the end of a topic but never actually reaches it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about sigma waves in relation to EEG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are absent in familial fatal insomnia
Explanation:Sigma waves are typically observed during stage 2 sleep and are considered a normal occurrence during sleep. They usually follow muscle twitches and are believed to help maintain a peaceful state during sleep. These waves are produced in the reticular nucleus of the thalamus and arise from the interplay between the thalamus and the cortex. However, in familial fatal insomnia (a prion disease), the absence of sigma waves is a characteristic feature.
Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.
Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.
Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.
Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.
Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.
Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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In the basal ganglia, what structures make up the lenticular nucleus, including the globus pallidus and which other component?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Putamen
Explanation:Located in the epithalamus at the center of the brain, the pineal gland is an endocrine gland. The basal ganglia, also known as basal nuclei, consist of four primary components: the caudate, nucleus accumbens, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, and substantia nigra. The lenticular (of lentiform) nucleus is formed by the globus pallidus and putamen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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When symptoms of grief persist for an extended period after a loss, it is considered chronic grief.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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