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  • Question 1 - A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend as he is concerned the patient has become drowsy after intermittent vomiting throughout the day. The boyfriend informs you that the patient is a type 1 diabetic. After evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and started on fluids and an insulin infusion. Due to a lack of available beds, the patient is transferred to the A&E observation ward. Several hours later, you are asked about discontinuing the insulin infusion. What criteria must be met before stopping the insulin infusion?

      Your Answer: Ketones less than 0.3 mmol/l and venous pH over 7.3

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to continue the infusion of insulin until certain criteria are met. These criteria include ketone levels being less than 0.3 mmol/L and the pH of the blood being above 7.3 or the bicarbonate levels being above 18 mmol/L. Additionally, the patient should feel comfortable enough to eat at this point. It is crucial not to stop the intravenous insulin infusion until at least 30 minutes after administering subcutaneous short-acting insulin.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are part of the team managing a conscious patient in the emergency...

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    • You are part of the team managing a conscious patient in the emergency room. You decide to insert a nasopharyngeal airway adjunct. How should you determine the appropriate size of the nasopharyngeal airway?

      Your Answer: Sized according to the distance between the nostril and the tragus of the ear

      Explanation:

      Nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts (NPAs) are selected based on their length, which should match the distance between the nostril and the tragus of the ear.

      Further Reading:

      Techniques to keep the airway open:

      1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.

      2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.

      3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.

      Airway adjuncts:

      1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.

      2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.

      Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):

      – Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
      – Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
      – Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
      – Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.

      Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous heart attack experiences urinary incontinence and a sudden decline in his cognitive function. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or discomfort while urinating.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) can be difficult to detect in elderly patients, especially those with dementia. Common signs like painful urination and abdominal discomfort may be absent. Instead, these patients often experience increased confusion, restlessness, and a decline in cognitive abilities. Therefore, if an elderly patient suddenly develops urinary incontinence and experiences a rapid deterioration in cognitive function, it is highly likely that they have a UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents with recent onset episodes of dizziness. He describes recurrent...

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    • A 35-year-old man presents with recent onset episodes of dizziness. He describes recurrent bouts of vertigo that last anywhere from a few minutes to half an hour. He reports that they are often followed by a severe one-sided headache and are frequently accompanied by flashing lights and difficulties in focusing his vision. He finds bright lights and loud sounds very uncomfortable during the episodes.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular migraine

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a common neurological complaint, affecting approximately 16% of individuals throughout their lifetime. Vestibular migraine is characterized by the presence of migrainous symptoms along with recurring episodes of vertigo and/or unsteadiness. It is a leading cause of vertigo and the most frequent cause of spontaneous episodic vertigo. The disturbance in the vestibular system can manifest as part of the aura phase or occur independently. The duration of these episodes can range from a few seconds to several days, typically lasting for minutes to hours. Interestingly, they often occur without accompanying headaches. Diagnosing vestibular migraine is primarily based on ruling out other potential causes. For prolonged individual attacks, antivertiginous and antiemetic medications are commonly used. However, specific antimigraine drugs may not provide significant relief in rescue situations. The cornerstone of managing vestibular migraine lies in the use of prophylactic medication. In some cases, referral to a neurologist may be necessary, especially if the patient is experiencing acute symptoms for the first time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a two...

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    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a two day history of nausea and vomiting. He has reduced GCS, is hypotensive and tachycardic. His wife tells you he has Addison's but frequently neglects to take his medication. Concerning Addison's, which electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to the condition?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      The electrolyte imbalances that are commonly observed in individuals with Addison’s disease are decreased sodium levels, increased potassium levels, increased calcium levels, and decreased glucose levels. In cases of Addisonian crisis, which is a severe form of Addison’s disease, patients may also experience hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), hypercalcemia (high calcium levels), and hypoglycemia (low glucose levels). Additionally, these patients may often develop acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the...

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    • You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the potential presence of an underlying organic factor contributing to this condition.

      Which ONE of the following could be a potential organic factor leading to depression?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is often linked to feelings of sadness and low mood, while hypocalcaemia does not typically have this association. Temporal arteritis is known to cause sudden episodes of psychosis, but it is not commonly associated with depression. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia does not have a connection to depression. Lastly, when someone experiences a deficiency in thiamine, they may exhibit symptoms of acute confusion, but depression is not typically one of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You...

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    • A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
      Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following symptoms is MOST indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Decreased level of consciousness

      Explanation:

      NICE has emphasized that there are particular symptoms and signs that may indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of a fever. For instance, bacterial meningitis may be suggested if the following symptoms and signs are present: neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle, decreased level of consciousness, and convulsive status epilepticus. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to...

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    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to her left shoulder and jaw. The pain has improved after receiving GTN spray under the tongue and intravenous morphine.
      What other medication should be recommended at this point?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      This particular patient has a high risk of experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. Therefore, it is recommended to administer aspirin at a dosage of 300 mg and clopidogrel at a dosage ranging from 300-600 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
    Where...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
      Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is situated just below the hypothalamus and is in close proximity to the pituitary gland. When the pituitary gland enlarges, it can impact the functioning of the optic nerve at this location. Specifically, the fibres from the nasal half of the retina cross over at the optic chiasm to form the optic tracts. Compression at the optic chiasm primarily affects these fibres, resulting in a visual defect that affects peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopia. There are several causes of optic chiasm lesions, with the most common being a pituitary tumor. Other causes include craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma, and internal carotid artery aneurysm. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects that can occur at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the baby is born prematurely with pale gray skin and cyanosis. The baby also has weak muscle tone, low blood pressure, and difficulty with feeding.

      Which of the following antibiotics is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur in neonates, especially premature babies, as a result of the build-up of the antibiotic chloramphenicol. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including ashen grey skin color, poor feeding, vomiting, cyanosis, hypotension, hypothermia, hypotonia, cardiovascular collapse, abdominal distension, and respiratory difficulties.

      During pregnancy, there are several drugs that can have adverse effects on the developing fetus. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, if given in the second and third trimesters, can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may lead to phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can result in fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol, as mentioned earlier, can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride, as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal pain over the past few weeks that has worsened in the last week. The patient reports that the pain is most severe at night and is relieved by eating, although the relief is only temporary. The patient provides a list of their current medications:

      Medication & dose
      Fluoxetine 40 mg once daily (long term)
      Oxybutynin 5 mg twice daily (long term)
      Ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily as needed (long term)
      Prednisolone 30mg for 7 days
      Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 7 days

      You suspect the patient may have a duodenal ulcer. Which medication is most commonly associated with the development of peptic ulcer disease?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer disease is most commonly caused by NSAIDs, making them the leading drug cause. However, h.pylori infection is the primary cause of peptic ulcers, with NSAIDs being the second most common cause.

      Further Reading:

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.

      The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.

      Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.

      The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.

      For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You evaluate a patient who has developed Nelson's syndrome after undergoing a bilateral...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a patient who has developed Nelson's syndrome after undergoing a bilateral adrenalectomy 15 years ago.
      Which ONE statement is NOT TRUE regarding this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ACTH levels will be low

      Explanation:

      Nelson’s syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.

      The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.

      ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.

      The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department after twisting his...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department after twisting his right ankle while playing basketball. He reports pain on the outer side of his ankle and foot, and experiences discomfort when putting weight on it.

      After conducting a physical examination, the healthcare provider decides to order ankle and foot X-rays based on the Ottawa foot & ankle rules. According to these guidelines, which of the following scenarios would warrant a foot X-ray?

      Your Answer: Tenderness over navicular

      Explanation:

      An X-ray of the foot is recommended when there is pain in the base of the fifth metatarsal or the navicular bone, as well as an inability to bear weight immediately after an injury or in the emergency department. The Ottawa ankle rules can also be used to determine if an X-ray is necessary for ankle injuries. These rules focus on two specific areas (the malleolar and midfoot zones) to determine if an X-ray of the ankle or foot is needed. More information on these rules can be found in the notes below.

      Further Reading:

      Ankle fractures are traumatic lower limb and joint injuries that involve the articulation between the tibia, fibula, and talus bones. The ankle joint allows for plantar and dorsiflexion of the foot. The key bony prominences of the ankle are called malleoli, with the medial and posterior malleolus being prominences of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus being a prominence of the distal fibula. The distal fibula and tibia are joined together by the distal tibiofibular joint or syndesmosis, which is comprised of three key ligaments. An ankle X-ray series is often used to guide clinical decision making in patients with ankle injuries, using the Ottawa ankle rules to determine if an X-ray is necessary. Ankle fractures are commonly described by the anatomical fracture pattern seen on X-ray relative to the malleoli involved, such as isolated malleolus fractures, bimalleolar fractures, and trimalleolar fractures. The Weber classification is a commonly used system for distal fibula fractures, categorizing them as Weber A, B, or C based on the level and extent of the fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old soccer player comes in with a pustular red rash on his...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old soccer player comes in with a pustular red rash on his thigh and groin region. There are vesicles present at the borders of the rash.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tinea cruris

      Explanation:

      Tinea cruris, commonly known as ‘jock itch’, is a fungal infection that affects the groin area. It is primarily caused by Trichophyton rubrum and is more prevalent in young men, particularly athletes. The typical symptoms include a reddish or brownish rash that is accompanied by intense itching. Pustules and vesicles may also develop, and there is often a raised border with a clear center. Notably, the infection usually does not affect the penis and scrotum.

      It is worth mentioning that patients with tinea cruris often have concurrent tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, which may have served as the source of the infection. The infection can be transmitted through sharing towels or by using towels that have come into contact with infected feet, leading to the spread of the fungus to the groin area.

      Fortunately, treatment for tinea cruris typically involves the use of topical imidazole creams, such as clotrimazole. This is usually sufficient to alleviate the symptoms and eradicate the infection. Alternatively, terbinafine cream can be used as an alternative treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar. She has been hit multiple times in the face and has a noticeable swelling on her right cheek. Her facial X-ray shows a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture but no other injuries.
      Which of the following will NOT be visible on her X-ray?

      Your Answer: Fracture of the superior orbital rim

      Explanation:

      Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures, also known as quadramalar or tripod fractures, make up around 40% of all midface fractures and are the second most common facial bone fractures after nasal bone fractures.

      These injuries typically occur when a direct blow is delivered to the malar eminence of the cheek. They consist of four components:

      1. Widening of the zygomaticofrontal suture
      2. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
      3. Fracture of the inferior orbital rim and the walls of the anterior and posterior maxillary sinuses
      4. Fracture of the lateral orbital rim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has arrived at the...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has arrived at the emergency department with a widespread maculopapular rash. The patient and his family have recently returned from a trip to Mexico. The mother is uncertain about the vaccinations the patient has received, and you have no access to medical records as the family relocated to the US from Mexico 8 months ago and have not yet registered with a primary care physician. You suspect Measles. What guidance should you provide to the patient's mother regarding school attendance?

      Your Answer: Exclude for 5 days from onset of rash

      Explanation:

      Children who have been diagnosed with Rubella, also known as German measles, should be advised to stay away from school for a period of 5 days from the onset of the rash. It is important to be familiar with the guidelines for excluding children from school due to infectious diseases that present with a rash.

      Further Reading:

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. It used to be more common before the introduction of the MMR vaccine, but now it is rare. Outbreaks of rubella are more common during the winter and spring seasons. The incubation period for rubella is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4-5 days after the onset of the rash.

      The features of rubella include a prodrome, which may include symptoms such as low-grade fever. The rash associated with rubella is maculopapular and initially appears on the face before spreading to the whole body. The rash usually fades by the 3-5 day. Lymphadenopathy, specifically suboccipital and postauricular, is also commonly seen in rubella cases.

      Complications of rubella can include arthritis, thrombocytopenia, encephalitis, and myocarditis. However, these complications are rare. Rubella can be particularly dangerous if contracted during pregnancy, as it can lead to congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of fetal damage is highest during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. Fetal damage is rare after 16 weeks. Congenital rubella syndrome can result in various complications such as sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      Diagnosis of rubella can be made by testing for raised IgM antibodies in women who have recently been exposed to the virus. Serological or PCR testing is the gold standard investigation for rubella. A testing kit can be obtained from the Local Health Protection Unit (HPU).

      There is no specific treatment for rubella. Antipyretics can be used to manage fever. It is advised to exclude individuals with rubella from school for 5 days from the onset of the rash. Infection during pregnancy should prompt referral to obstetrics. Rubella is a notifiable disease, meaning that it requires notification of the local authority or UKHSA health protection team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are summoned to assist with a 72-year-old patient who is in the...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to assist with a 72-year-old patient who is in the resuscitation bay and has experienced two defibrillation attempts following cardiac arrest. Unfortunately, there is no supply of amiodarone available, so your consultant instructs you to prepare lidocaine for administration after the next shock. What is the initial dosage of lidocaine to be given during cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      During cardiac arrest, Lidocaine is administered through a slow IV injection at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg when deemed suitable.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      8.4
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  • Question 18 - You assess a patient who has recently been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who has recently been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
      Which ONE statement about CML is accurate?

      Your Answer: The Philadelphia chromosome is present in over 80% of cases

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of blood disorder that arises from an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. The majority of CML cases, more than 80%, are caused by a cytogenetic abnormality called the Philadelphia chromosome. This abnormality occurs when there is a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22.

      CML typically develops slowly over a period of several years, known as the chronic stage. During this stage, patients usually do not experience any symptoms, and it is often discovered incidentally through routine blood tests. Around 90% of CML cases are diagnosed during this stage. In the bone marrow, less than 10% of the white cells are immature blasts.

      Symptoms start to appear when the CML cells begin to expand, which is known as the accelerated stage. Approximately 10% of cases are diagnosed during this stage. Between 10 and 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts at this point. Common clinical features during this stage include tiredness, fatigue, fever, night sweats, abdominal distension, left upper quadrant pain (splenic infarction), splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), easy bruising, gout (due to rapid cell turnover), and hyperviscosity (which can lead to complications like stroke, priapism, etc.).

      In some cases, a small number of patients may present with a blast crisis, also known as the blast stage. During this stage, more than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells. Patients in this stage are generally very ill, experiencing severe constitutional symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and bone pain, as well as infections and bleeding tendencies.

      Laboratory findings in CML include a significantly elevated white cell count (often greater than 100 x 109/l), a left shift with an increased number of immature leukocytes, mild to moderate normochromic, normocytic anaemia, variable platelet counts (low, normal, or elevated), presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 80% of cases, and elevated levels of serum uric acid and alkaline phosphatase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has a history of bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's syndrome 10 years ago. During the examination of her visual fields, a bitemporal hemianopia is discovered.

      What is the MOST LIKELY single biochemical finding in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Elevated ACTH levels

      Explanation:

      Nelson’s syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.

      The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.

      ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.

      The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall onto an outstretched hand. Following assessment you order an X-ray of the wrist which confirms a dorsally angulated extra-articular fracture of the right distal radius. You also observe cortical thinning and increased radiolucency of the bone and consider the possibility of underlying osteoporosis. What is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Menopause

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis and fragility fractures are more likely to occur in individuals with low levels of estrogen. Menopause, which causes a decrease in estrogen, can lead to estrogen deficiency. Estrogen plays a role in preventing bone breakdown by inhibiting osteoclast activity. After menopause, there is an increase in osteoclast activity, resulting in a rapid decline in bone mineral density. Osteoporosis is also associated with the long-term use of corticosteroids.

      Further Reading:

      Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.

      Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.

      The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.

      There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.

      Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.

      Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.

      Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      169.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. You are preparing to initiate...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. You are preparing to initiate antibiotic treatment.
      Which of the following antibiotic combinations would be the most suitable?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Ceftriaxone is currently one of the limited antibiotics that effectively treats gonorrhoea. It is typically administered alongside azithromycin or doxycycline to enhance its effectiveness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman with a previous history of salpingitis presents with excessive vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a previous history of salpingitis presents with excessive vaginal bleeding. Her pregnancy test is positive, and a preliminary diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy is made.

      What is the most frequent anatomical site for an ectopic pregnancy to occur?

      Your Answer: Ampulla of Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy happens when the fertilized egg attaches itself outside of the uterus. In over 95% of cases, ectopic pregnancies occur in the Fallopian tubes. Although rare, they can also occur in other locations such as the abdomen, cervix, and ovary.

      The most common location for an ectopic pregnancy in the Fallopian tube is the ampulla, accounting for approximately 70% of cases. The isthmus and infundibulum each account for 10-15% of cases, while the uterine part only accounts for 2-5%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. His diabetes is typically controlled with metformin 500 mg twice daily. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his primary care physician, and his family reports that he has been experiencing excessive thirst. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and 1+ ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas analysis are as follows:

      pH: 7.29
      pO2: 11.1 kPa
      pCO2: 4.6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 154 mmol/l
      K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      Cl-: 100 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Glucose: 32 mmol/l

      Which SINGLE statement is true regarding this case?

      Your Answer: Anticoagulation should be given

      Explanation:

      In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.

      To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.

      The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
      – Normalize the osmolality
      – Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
      – Normalize blood glucose levels

      If significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.

      Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who is currently using a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). What impact would you anticipate NSAID treatment to have on renal measurements?

      Your Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs have been found to have a relatively high occurrence of renal adverse drug reactions (ADRs). These ADRs primarily occur due to changes in renal haemodynamics caused by alterations in prostaglandin levels.

      Normally, prostaglandins play a role in dilating the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus. This dilation helps maintain normal glomerular perfusion and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

      However, NSAIDs work by reducing prostaglandin levels. This reduction leads to unopposed vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, resulting in decreased renal plasma flow. Consequently, this decrease in renal plasma flow leads to a decrease in GFR. It is important to note that NSAIDs do not have any impact on the filtration fraction itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They are worried because the child has had a high fever for the past 24 hours and has developed noisy breathing and a change in her voice in the past few hours. They inform you that the child has been refusing to drink fluids orally due to a sore throat for the past few hours as well. The parents mention that the child has never had a serious illness before. You observe that the child has not received any vaccinations as the parents have concerns about potential vaccine-related diseases later in life. During the assessment, the child is sitting upright, leaning forward on her arms, and drooling. You can hear audible stridor. The child's vital signs are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.9ºC
      Pulse: 155 bpm
      Respiration rate: 40 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retropharyngeal abscess

      Correct Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis symptoms typically appear suddenly, usually within a day. This patient’s symptoms align with those of epiglottitis and his vaccination status puts him at a higher risk. Common clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, a sore throat, a change in voice (often described as a muffled or hot potato voice), painful swallowing, a specific positioning called tripod positioning, excessive drooling, and stridor.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old left-handed history teacher presents with a sudden onset of difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old left-handed history teacher presents with a sudden onset of difficulty in recalling historical facts. A CT scan of her head reveals a right parietal lobe infarct.

      Which SINGLE clinical feature is most likely to also be present?

      Your Answer: Colour agnosia

      Correct Answer: Agraphia

      Explanation:

      The parietal lobes can be divided into two functional areas. One area is responsible for sensation and perception, while the other integrates sensory input primarily from the visual pathways. These lobes play a crucial role in cognition and spatial awareness.

      Typically, the left parietal lobe is dominant, and if there are lesions in this area, it can lead to a condition known as Gerstmann’s Syndrome. This syndrome encompasses several difficulties, including problems with writing (agraphia or dysgraphia), arithmetic (acalculia or dyscalculia), and identifying fingers (finger agnosia). Additionally, individuals may experience left-right disorientation and some form of aphasia or dysphasia, affecting their ability to express themselves or understand others.

      On the other hand, lesions in the right parietal lobe, which is the non-dominant side, can result in neglecting a part of the body. This can make tasks like dressing and washing challenging.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded when tilting his head upwards. The patient informs you that the symptoms began today upon getting out of bed. The patient describes a sensation of dizziness and a spinning room that lasts for approximately 20 seconds before subsiding. You suspect benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Based on his symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. The most suitable initial treatment option for this condition would be the Epley maneuver.

      Further Reading:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.

      The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

      Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman with no permanent address sustains a head injury after falling....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no permanent address sustains a head injury after falling. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which medication should be urgently administered to this patient?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Intravenous Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. The triage nurse requests an urgent review as she is concerned about the patient's blood pressure. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 226/120 mmHg
      Pulse: 122 bpm
      Respiration rate: 18
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      You consider secondary causes of hypertension, such as phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is most commonly associated with phaeochromocytoma?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypergylcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperglycemia is a common occurrence in patients with phaeochromocytoma. This is primarily due to the excessive release of catecholamines, which suppress insulin secretion from the pancreas and promote glycogenolysis. Calcium levels in phaeochromocytoma patients can vary, with hypercalcemia being most frequently observed in cases where hyperparathyroidism coexists, particularly in MEN II. However, some phaeochromocytomas may secrete calcitonin and/or adrenomedullin, which can lower plasma calcium levels and lead to hypocalcemia. While not typical, potassium disturbances may occur in patients experiencing severe vomiting or acute kidney injury. On the other hand, anemia is not commonly associated with phaeochromocytoma, although there are rare cases where the tumor secretes erythropoietin, resulting in elevated hemoglobin levels and hematocrit.

      Further Reading:

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.

      The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.

      Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.

      The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You evaluate a 28-year-old patient with burns. Your supervisor recommends referring the patient...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 28-year-old patient with burns. Your supervisor recommends referring the patient to the burns unit. What is a recognized criterion for referral to the burns unit?

      Your Answer: Any burn not healed in 7 days

      Correct Answer: Burn ≥ 3% TBSA (total body surface area) in an adult

      Explanation:

      A recognized criterion for referral to the burns unit is when a burn involves the upper limb, any burn that has not healed in 7 days, any burn with significant blistering, a burn with a pain score on presentation greater than 8 out of 10 on a visual analogue scale, or a burn that covers 3% or more of the total body surface area in an adult.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 68-year-old man presents with symptoms related to an electrolyte imbalance. It is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with symptoms related to an electrolyte imbalance. It is believed that the electrolyte imbalance has occurred as a result of a thiazide diuretic he has been prescribed by the nephrology team.

      Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to be caused by thiazide diuretics?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics, a commonly prescribed medication, can lead to two main electrolyte imbalances in patients. One of these is hyponatremia, which occurs in around 13.7% of individuals taking thiazide diuretics. The other is hypokalemia, which is observed in approximately 8.5% of patients on this medication. These electrolyte disturbances are frequently encountered in primary care settings. For more information on this topic, please refer to the article titled Thiazide diuretic prescription and electrolyte abnormalities in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 28 year old IV drug user comes to the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old IV drug user comes to the emergency department with complaints of feeling sick. Considering the history of IV drug abuse, there is concern for infective endocarditis. Which structure is most likely to be impacted in this individual?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve is the most commonly affected valve in cases of infective endocarditis among intravenous drug users. This means that when IV drug users develop infective endocarditis, it is most likely to affect the tricuspid valve. On the other hand, in cases of native valve endocarditis and prosthetic valve endocarditis, the mitral valve is the valve that is most commonly affected.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 3 year old is brought into the emergency department by his father...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old is brought into the emergency department by his father who is concerned as the child was bitten on the arm by his 6 year old sister whilst they were playing together. You examine the bite wound and measure the intercanine distance as 3.8cm. What is the significance of this?

      Your Answer: Patient has likely been bitten by a dog and requires antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Patient should be referred to child protection team

      Explanation:

      If the distance between the canines is less than 3 cm, it indicates that the bite was likely caused by a child. On the other hand, if the distance is greater than 3 cm, it suggests that the bite was likely caused by an adult. In this particular case, the intercanine distance does not support the mother’s explanation of the injury, indicating that a child is not responsible. Therefore, measures should be taken to ensure the safety of the child, as the story provided by the mother does not align with the injury. In most hospitals, the child protection team is typically led by paediatricians. It is usually possible to differentiate between dog bites and human bites based on the shape of the arch, as well as the morphology of the incisors and canines.

      Further Reading:

      Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.

      Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.

      When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.

      Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.

      The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.

      Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.

      Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 40-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of genital warts has observed a...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of genital warts has observed a significant escalation in the quantity and magnitude of her lesions.

      What is the PRIMARY factor most likely accountable for this deterioration?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, genital warts have the potential to grow larger in size and increase in number. This is because pregnancy causes a state of immunosuppression, which means that the patient’s immune system is unable to effectively suppress the latent HPV virus. Additionally, there are other factors that can contribute to the growth of genital warts. These include areas of moist skin, non-hair bearing skin, poor hygiene, and the presence of vaginal discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to near-fainting. Whilst in the department the patient loses consciousness and on examination there is no detectable pulse. You begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). What is the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths used during CPR?

      Your Answer: 60:1

      Correct Answer: 30:2

      Explanation:

      The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths during CPR is now 30:2. Prior to 2005, the ratio used was 15:2.

      Further Reading:

      In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.

      During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.

      There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.

      There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.

      When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.

      Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 32-year-old man with a history of severe asthma is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of severe asthma is brought to the Emergency Department by his girlfriend. He is experiencing extreme shortness of breath and wheezing, and his condition worsens rapidly. After receiving back-to-back nebulizer treatments, hydrocortisone, and IV magnesium sulfate, he is taken to resus, and the intensive care team is called for consultation. He is now severely hypoxic and has developed confusion. It is decided that the patient needs to be intubated.
      Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate choice for inducing anesthesia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Thiopental sodium

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Intubation is rarely necessary for asthmatic patients, with only about 2% of asthma attacks requiring it. Most severe cases can be managed using non-invasive ventilation techniques. However, intubation can be a life-saving measure for asthmatic patients in critical condition. The indications for intubation include severe hypoxia, altered mental state, failure to respond to medications or non-invasive ventilation, and respiratory or cardiac arrest.

      Before intubation, it is important to preoxygenate the patient and administer intravenous fluids. Nasal oxygen during intubation can provide additional time. Intravenous fluids are crucial because patients with acute asthma exacerbations can experience significant fluid loss, which can lead to severe hypotension during intubation and positive pressure ventilation.

      There is no perfect combination of drugs for rapid sequence induction (RSI), but ketamine is often the preferred choice. Ketamine has bronchodilatory properties and does not cause hypotension as a side effect. Propofol can also be used, but it carries a risk of hypotension. In some cases, a subdissociative dose of ketamine can be helpful to facilitate the use of non-invasive ventilation in a hypoxic or combative patient.

      Rocuronium and suxamethonium are commonly used as paralytic agents. Rocuronium has the advantage of providing a longer period of paralysis, which helps avoid ventilator asynchrony in the early stages of management.

      Proper mechanical ventilation is essential, and it involves allowing the patient enough time to fully exhale the delivered breath and prevent hyperinflation. Therefore, permissive hypercapnia is typically used, and the ventilator settings should be adjusted accordingly. The recommended settings are a respiratory rate of 6-8 breaths per minute and a tidal volume of 6 ml per kilogram of body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A patient with a past medical history of epigastric discomfort and diarrhea is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a past medical history of epigastric discomfort and diarrhea is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a beef dish that was contaminated with the parasite.

      Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for causing this infestation?

      Your Answer: Taenia solium

      Correct Answer: Taenia saginata

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.

      Which ONE statement about the ECG findings in Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer: The PR interval is usually prolonged

      Correct Answer: Type A WPW can resemble right bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

      In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.

      There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).

      Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
      Which of the following conditions is associated with ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis

      Explanation:

      Cholelithiasis is a common occurrence in individuals with Crohn’s disease. There are several other conditions that are known to be associated with Crohn’s disease. These include a higher prevalence in smokers, with approximately 50-60% of patients being smokers. Additionally, individuals with Crohn’s disease may experience aphthous ulcers, uveitis, episcleritis, seronegative spondyloarthropathies, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and osteoporosis. However, it is important to note that primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and chronic active hepatitis are associations commonly seen in ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn’s disease. Lastly, dermatitis herpetiformis is a condition that is associated with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has a history of bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's syndrome 10 years ago. During the examination of her visual fields, a bitemporal hemianopia is discovered.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sheehan’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Nelson’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nelson’s syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.

      The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.

      ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.

      The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 45 year old woman arrives at the emergency department, expressing discomfort and...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old woman arrives at the emergency department, expressing discomfort and experiencing intense aching in her shoulder joints. She reports feeling unwell shortly after completing SCUBA diving approximately 2-3 hours ago. Decompression illness is suspected. What would be the most suitable approach to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oxygen

      Explanation:

      Patients with decompression illness should avoid taking analgesics as they can potentially harm the patient. Instead, oxygen is the preferred method of analgesia and has been shown to improve prognosis. Symptoms of decompression illness can often be resolved by simply breathing oxygen from a cylinder. It is important to note that Entonox should never be administered to patients with suspected decompression illness as the additional inert gas load from the nitrous oxide can worsen symptoms. NSAIDs should also be avoided as they can exacerbate micro-hemorrhages caused by decompression illness. In cases of decompression illness, patients will typically be treated with recompression in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber. However, it is important to be cautious with the use of oxygen as it can cause pulmonary and neurological toxicity at certain pressures. Therefore, there is a risk of oxygen toxicity developing in patients undergoing recompression, and opioids should be avoided as they are believed to increase this risk.

      Further Reading:

      Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.

      Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.

      Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.

      Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.

      Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.

      Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      76.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and spreading to the groin. Her urine test shows blood. She has a history of kidney stones and says that the pain feels similar to previous episodes. She describes the pain as less intense this time, but still uncomfortable. She also feels nauseous but hasn't vomited. She has no known allergies or sensitivities to medications.
      According to NICE, which of the following pain relievers is recommended as the first choice for treating pain in kidney stone colic?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.

      The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the groin or genital area in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.

      People experiencing renal or ureteric colic are usually restless and unable to find relief by lying still, which helps to distinguish this condition from peritonitis. They may have a history of previous episodes and may also present with fever and sweating if there is an associated urinary infection. Some individuals may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.

      In terms of pain management, the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which can be administered through various routes. If NSAIDs are contraindicated or not providing sufficient pain relief, intravenous paracetamol can be offered as an alternative. Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are contraindicated or not effective in relieving pain. Antispasmodics should not be given to individuals with suspected renal colic.

      For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 35 minutes. So far, he has received two doses of IV lorazepam. His bowel movement is normal. He has a history of epilepsy and is on phenytoin as maintenance therapy.

      According to the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Perform rapid sequence induction with thiopental

      Correct Answer: Set up phenobarbitone infusion

      Explanation:

      The current algorithm for the treatment of a convulsing child, known as APLS, is as follows:

      Step 1 (5 minutes after the start of convulsion):
      If a child has been convulsing for 5 minutes or more, the initial dose of benzodiazepine should be administered. This can be done by giving Lorazepam at a dose of 0.1 mg/kg intravenously (IV) or intraosseously (IO) if vascular access is available. Alternatively, buccal midazolam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg can be given if vascular access is not available.

      Step 2 (10 minutes after the start of Step 1):
      If the convulsion continues for a further 10 minutes, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. It is also important to summon senior help at this point.

      Step 3 (10 minutes after the start of Step 2):
      At this stage, it is necessary to involve senior help to reassess the child and provide guidance on further management. The recommended approach is as follows:
      – If the child is not already on phenytoin, a phenytoin infusion should be initiated. This involves administering 20 mg/kg of phenytoin intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
      – If the child is already taking phenytoin, phenobarbitone can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose is 20 mg/kg administered intravenously over 20 minutes.
      – In the meantime, rectal paraldehyde can be considered at a dose of 0.8 ml/kg of the 50:50 mixture while preparing the infusion.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after the start of Step 3):
      If the child is still experiencing convulsions at this stage, it is crucial to have an anaesthetist present. A rapid sequence induction with thiopental is recommended for further management.

      Please note that this algorithm is subject to change based on individual patient circumstances and the guidance of medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 45 year old is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a head injury after falling from a staircase. The patient opens his eyes to voice and localises to pain. The patient's speech is slurred and he appears disoriented. What is this patient's Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 12

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient opens his eyes to voice, which corresponds to a score of 3 on the eye opening component. The patient localizes to pain, indicating a purposeful motor response, which corresponds to a score of 5 on the motor response component. However, the patient’s speech is slurred and he appears disoriented, suggesting an impaired verbal response. This would correspond to a score of 4 on the verbal response component.

      To calculate the GCS, we sum up the scores from each component. In this case, the patient’s GCS would be 3 + 4 + 5 = 12

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - You evaluate the pupillary light reflex in a patient with a cranial nerve...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the pupillary light reflex in a patient with a cranial nerve impairment. When the light is directed into the left eye, there is no alteration in pupil size in either the left or right eye. However, when the light is directed into the right eye, both the left and right pupils constrict.
      What is the location of the lesion in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Right oculomotor nerve

      Correct Answer: Left optic nerve

      Explanation:

      The pupillary light reflex is a reflex that regulates the size of the pupil in response to the intensity of light that reaches the retina. It consists of two separate pathways, the afferent pathway and the efferent pathway.

      The afferent pathway begins with light entering the pupil and stimulating the retinal ganglion cells in the retina. These cells then transmit the light signal to the optic nerve. At the optic chiasm, the nasal retinal fibers cross to the opposite optic tract, while the temporal retinal fibers remain in the same optic tract. The fibers from the optic tracts then project and synapse in the pretectal nuclei in the dorsal midbrain. From there, the pretectal nuclei send fibers to the ipsilateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus via the posterior commissure.

      On the other hand, the efferent pathway starts with the Edinger-Westphal nucleus projecting preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. These fibers exit the midbrain and travel along the oculomotor nerve. They then synapse on post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the ciliary ganglion. The post-ganglionic fibers, known as the short ciliary nerves, innervate the sphincter muscle of the pupils, causing them to constrict.

      The result of these pathways is that when light is shone in one eye, both the direct pupillary light reflex (ipsilateral eye) and the consensual pupillary light reflex (contralateral eye) occur.

      Lesions affecting the pupillary light reflex can be identified by comparing the direct and consensual reactions to light in both eyes. If the optic nerve of the first eye is damaged, both the direct and consensual reflexes in the second eye will be lost. However, when light is shone into the second eye, the pupil of the first eye will still constrict. If the optic nerve of the second eye is damaged, the second eye will constrict consensually when light is shone into the unaffected first eye. If the oculomotor nerve of the first eye is damaged, the first eye will have no direct light reflex, but the second eye will still constrict consensually. Finally, if the oculomotor nerve of the second eye is damaged, there will be no consensual constriction of the second eye when light is shone into the unaffected first eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The FAST scan shows cardiac tamponade. If left untreated, expanding cardiac tamponade can lead to which of the following arrhythmias?

      Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation

      Correct Answer: Pulseless electrical activity

      Explanation:

      If a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury has an expanding cardiac tamponade that is left untreated, it can potentially lead to pulseless electrical activity.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. She has been in a car accident and has sustained severe burns. You examine her airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. Your plan is to intubate the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
      As per the ATLS guidelines, what is the minimum internal diameter of the endotracheal tube that should be utilized?

      Your Answer: 7.0 mm

      Correct Answer: 7.5 mm

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 22-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department a few hours after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department a few hours after being discharged from the day surgery unit following a tonsillectomy. The patient is experiencing bleeding in the surgical area, and you are having trouble controlling it. You urgently page the on-call ENT team.
      Which of the following blood vessels is most likely causing the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Internal palatine vein

      Correct Answer: External palatine vein

      Explanation:

      Recurrent or chronic tonsillitis is a clear indication for tonsillectomy, which is the surgical removal of the palatine tonsils. One common complication of this procedure is bleeding, which occurs in approximately 0.5-2% of cases. The bleeding that occurs after tonsillectomy is typically venous in nature and most frequently originates from the external palatine vein. This vein drains the lateral tonsillar region and ultimately empties into the facial vein. Additionally, bleeding can also arise from the tonsillar branch of the facial artery, which supplies the inferior pole of the palatine tonsil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden shortness of breath. While being assessed by the nurse, the patient mentions that he is currently 28 weeks into his partner's pregnancy. Suddenly, the patient collapses and the nurse urgently calls for your assistance. Upon examination, you find that the patient has no detectable pulse and is not breathing. You make the decision to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). What is the most likely reversible cause of cardiac arrest that this patient is at a high risk for?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Pregnant or postpartum women have a significantly higher risk of developing a venous thrombosis compared to women who are not pregnant. In fact, their risk is 10 times greater. Specifically, pregnant or postpartum women have a 1 in 500 chance of developing a venous thrombosis, whereas non-pregnant women have a much lower risk of 1 in 5000. It is important to remember the reversible causes of cardiac arrest, which are categorized as the 4 T’s and the 4 H’s, as mentioned in the notes below the algorithm.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 52-year-old woman presents with high fevers and severe pain in the upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with high fevers and severe pain in the upper right quadrant that radiates to her back. She is experiencing mild confusion. During examination, she exhibits tenderness in the upper right quadrant, and Murphy's sign is negative. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature is 38°C, heart rate is 114 bpm, and blood pressure is 88/54 mmHg.

      Her blood test results are as follows:
      - CRP: 134 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
      - Hb: 11.6 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-16 g/dl)
      - WCC: 18.4 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
      - Neut: 14.0 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
      - Bilirubin: 108 mmol (normal range: 3-20)
      - ALT: 94 IU/L (normal range: 5-40)
      - ALP: 303 IU/L (normal range: 20-140)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Ascending cholangitis occurs when there is an infection in the common bile duct, often caused by a stone that has led to a buildup of bile. This condition is characterized by three main symptoms known as Charcot’s triad: jaundice, fever with rigors, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. It is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening, with some patients also experiencing altered mental status and low blood pressure due to septic shock, known as Reynold’s pentad. Urgent biliary drainage is the recommended treatment for ascending cholangitis.

      In acute cholecystitis, Murphy’s sign is typically positive, indicating inflammation of the gallbladder, while it is negative in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis. The white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated in ascending cholangitis, and jaundice is often present, along with significantly increased levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and bilirubin.

      Hepatocellular carcinoma, on the other hand, presents gradually with symptoms such as fatigue, loss of appetite, jaundice, and an enlarged liver. It often involves features of portal hypertension.

      Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare type of cancer that originates from the biliary epithelium. It typically manifests as painless jaundice and itching.

      To differentiate between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis, the following summarizes their key characteristics:

      Biliary colic:
      – Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
      – Fever: Absent
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Normal
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
      – Bilirubin: Normal

      Acute cholecystitis:
      – Pain duration: More than 12 hours
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Positive
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
      – Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevated

      Ascending cholangitis:
      – Pain duration: Variable
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated
      – Bilirubin: Elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (8/8) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (3/3) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (3/3) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/4) 50%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Trauma (3/4) 75%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (2/2) 100%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Surgical Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Resus (2/2) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed