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Question 1
Correct
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Who is credited with creating the term 'neurasthenia'?
Your Answer: Beard
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately defines the concept of fundamental attribution error?
Your Answer: Attributing others mistakes to the context in which the mistakes occur
Correct Answer: Attributing others mistakes to their personal dispositions
Explanation:The fundamental attribution error pertains to our tendency to make biased judgments about the behavior of others, rather than our own.
Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events
Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.
However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.
Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 3
Correct
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What is a true statement about 'working memory'?
Your Answer: Its capacity increases with age during childhood
Explanation:Throughout childhood, there is an increase in working memory capacity. Additionally, research has demonstrated that working memory performance can be enhanced, particularly in individuals with ADHD.
Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following is not commonly linked to restless legs syndrome?
Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:RLS is not a risk factor for COPD, but COPD is a risk factor for sleep apnoea.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 5
Correct
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Who is credited with creating the term 'dementia praecox'?
Your Answer: Kraepelin
Explanation:The origin of the term dementia praecox is a topic of controversy. While some sources credit Kraepelin with popularizing the term, others argue that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was coined by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College has chosen to attribute the term to Kraepelin. Therefore, if the question refers to demence precoce, the answer should be Morel, and if it refers to dementia praecox, Kraepelin should be selected.
History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes Freud's topographical model?
Your Answer: The unconscious system has no concept of time
Explanation:Freud’s Topographical Model of the Mind
Freud’s topographical model of the mind, introduced in his book The Interpretation of Dreams, divides the mind into three regions: the conscious system, the preconscious system, and the unconscious system.
The conscious system refers to the part of the mind that is aware. The preconscious system is the information that is known and can potentially be brought into consciousness. Finally, the unconscious system is believed to be outside conscious awareness and operates on primary process thinking, which is aimed at wish fulfillment. It is governed by the pleasure principle, has no concept of time, denies the existence of negatives, and allows the existence of contradictions, making it irrational.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the approach to multiculturalism that the council member is advocating for when explaining the emergence of the Polish shops and restaurants in the local town?
Your Answer: Segregation
Correct Answer: Laissez-faire
Explanation:Cultural pluralism is present in situations where there is a notable amount of diversity, whether it is intentional or unintentional.
Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Who is the author of 'The Psychopathology of Everyday Life'?
Your Answer: Ronald Laing
Correct Answer: Sigmund Freud
Explanation:History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which one of these options is not a principle of Gestalt psychology?
Your Answer: Approximation
Explanation:Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization
Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy?
Your Answer: Automatic behaviour
Correct Answer: Anosognosia
Explanation:Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hallucinations during sleep onset of awakening. While hypnagogic hallucinations have been traditionally linked to narcolepsy, both hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations can occur.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 11
Correct
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A child who has experienced a head injury can no longer tie his shoelaces despite normal motor function. Which type of memory is affected?
Your Answer: Procedural
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 12
Correct
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Can you identify a personality test that measures traits using numerical values?
Your Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
Explanation:As long as you comprehend the distinction between quantitative (involving a specific measure) and qualitative (involving a description), you should be able to answer this question without difficulty.
Personality Testing
There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are sitting in class during a test. You realize you forgot to study and you feel anxious. Which emotional theory best explains this experience?
Your Answer: Cannon-Bard theory
Correct Answer: Lazarus theory
Explanation:The correct answer is the Lazarus theory, which proposes that emotions are the result of cognitive appraisal of a situation. According to this theory, the thought I’m being burgled triggers a cognitive appraisal of the situation, which in turn leads to the emotional response of fear. This is in contrast to the Singer-Schachter theory, which suggests that emotions are the result of a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal.
Theories of Emotion
In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.
According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.
The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.
The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.
Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.
In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following is not considered a stage of grief in Kubler-Ross' classification system?
Your Answer: Rejection
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 15
Correct
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At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage in symbolic play but struggle with understanding others' perspectives?
Your Answer: Preoperational
Explanation:The preoperational stage, according to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, is characterized by children engaging in symbolic play but not yet being able to comprehend logic. Piaget identified four main stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage occurs from birth to two years old, during which the child experiences the world through their senses. The concrete operational stage occurs from seven to eleven years old, during which the child can think logically and is no longer egocentric. The formal operational stage occurs from eleven to sixteen years old, during which the child develops abstract reasoning. It is important to note that the Freudian stage of psychosexual development known as latency is not relevant to Piaget’s theory and is therefore not included in his stages of cognitive development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the life event that Holmes and Rahe consider to be the most stressful?
Your Answer: Death of a spouse
Explanation:Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)
In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.
The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.
1. Death of spouse – 100
2. Divorce – 73
3. Marital separation – 65
4. Jail term – 63
5. Death of a close family member – 63
6. Personal illness – 53
7. Marriage – 50
8. Being fired from work – 47
9. Marital reconciliation – 45
10. Retirement – 45This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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From which group did Lorenz develop his theory of aggression?
Your Answer: Monkeys
Correct Answer: Birds
Explanation:Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the percentage of children who can be categorized into one of the three temperament groups created by Thomas and Chess?
Your Answer: 65%
Explanation:Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 19
Correct
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What term did Allport use to describe a personality trait that has a significant impact on almost all of a person's actions?
Your Answer: Cardinal
Explanation:Trait Theory: Understanding Personality Traits
Trait theory is a psychological approach that seeks to understand personality by identifying and categorizing specific traits. The theory was first introduced by Gordon Allport, who classified personality traits into three levels.
At the highest level, we have cardinal traits. These are traits that are so pervasive that they dominate a person’s behavior and activities. Only a few people possess cardinal traits, but for those who do, these traits are the ruling force of their personality. Cardinal traits are usually evident to most people who know the individual.
The second level of traits is central traits. These are easily detected characteristics within a person, traits that all people have a certain number of, usually around five to ten on average. Central traits are the building blocks of personality and help to define a person’s overall character.
Finally, we have secondary traits. These are less evident and only manifest in select circumstances. They are not as important as central of cardinal traits, but they still play a role in shaping a person’s behavior and personality.
Overall, trait theory provides a useful framework for understanding personality and how it develops over time. By identifying and categorizing specific traits, psychologists can gain insights into why people behave the way they do and how they can change their behavior to achieve their goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate definition of the term 'flashbulb memory'?
Your Answer: Memories of events occurring in illuminated conditions are recalled in greater accuracy
Correct Answer: Detailed recollections of the context in which people first heard about an important event
Explanation:Flashbulb Memory
Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed recollections of the circumstances surrounding a significant event. These memories are typically episodic, meaning they are focused on the specific details of the event rather than just the facts. One example of a flashbulb memory might be recalling where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the death of Princess Diana in 1997. What sets flashbulb memories apart from other types of memories is the high level of emotional arousal that accompanies them. This emotional intensity helps to cement the memory in the mind, making it more vivid and long-lasting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Correct
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Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to reinforce his social learning theory?
Your Answer: Bandura
Explanation:Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 22
Correct
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Identify the option that represents a secondary reinforcer.
Your Answer: Money
Explanation:Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 23
Correct
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What is true about global psychogenic amnesia?
Your Answer: It is often associated with fugue states
Explanation:The presence of repetitive questioning is not commonly seen in cases of global psychogenic amnesia and may indicate transient global amnesia instead.
Psychogenic Amnesia: A Non-Neurological Syndrome
Psychogenic amnesia is a rare condition where patients experience severe retrograde amnesia without any known brain injury of disorder. This syndrome is also known as hysterical amnesia, dissociative amnesia, and functional retrograde amnesia. It can be difficult to distinguish from malingered amnesia. There are two types of psychogenic amnesia: global and situation-specific. Global psychogenic amnesia can manifest as psychogenic fugue, psychogenic focal retrograde amnesia, of multiple personality disorder. Situation-specific amnesia refers to a gap in memory for a traumatic incident and can arise in various circumstances, such as PTSD of being the victim of an offense. The amnesia in global psychogenic amnesia often follows a reversed gradient, with earlier memories preferentially affected. Three factors have been identified as predisposing factors for global psychogenic amnesia: a severe precipitating stress, a history of depressed mood and suicidal ideas, and a previous history of a transient neurological amnesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 24
Correct
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How can primary process thinking be described?
Your Answer: Id
Explanation:Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 25
Incorrect
-
What type of group is most susceptible to groupthink?
Your Answer: Collaborative
Correct Answer: Homogeneous
Explanation:Groupthink, Groupshift, and Deindividuation are potential problems that can occur when working in groups. Groupthink is a phenomenon where the desire for harmony of conformity in the group results in an incorrect of deviant decision-making outcome. This occurs when group members try to minimise conflict and reach a consensus decision without critical evaluation of alternative ideas of viewpoints. Several conditions must take place for groupthink to occur, such as group isolation, loyalty, loss of individual creativity, and an illusion of invulnerability. Symptoms of groupthink include an illusion of invulnerability, belief in inherent morality of the group, collective rationalisation, stereotypes of ‘out-groups,’ self-censorship, illusion of unanimity, direct pressure on dissenters, and self-appointed mindguards. To reduce groupthink, leaders should allow each member to challenge ideas and present objections, talk about and solicit ideas with people outside the group, invite outside experts to attend meetings, avoid expressing opinions about the preferred outcome, and assign a ‘Devil’s Advocate’ at all meetings to challenge any and all ideas.
Groupshift is the phenomenon in which the initial positions of individual members of a group are exaggerated toward a more extreme position. For example, when people are in groups, they assess risk differently from when they are alone. In the group, they are likely to make riskier decisions as the shared risk makes the individual risk seem to be less.
Deindividuation is a concept in social psychology that is generally thought of as the loss of self-awareness in groups. Theories of deindividuation propose that it is a psychological state of decreased self-evaluation and a decreased evaluation of apprehension causing abnormal collective behaviour, such as violent crowds and lynch mobs. Conversely, it also explains people’s tendency to donate more readily to charity when in groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 26
Correct
-
A teenager who is a victim of a crime is more likely to receive assistance from a bystander if:
Your Answer: The bystander is male
Explanation:The Bystander Effect: Theory and Examples
The bystander effect, also known as the Genovese effect, suggests that the likelihood of someone helping in a situation is inversely related to the number of people present. This means that a person is more likely to help if there are fewer witnesses. The term Genovese effect comes from the case of Kitty Genovese, who was sexually assaulted and killed in front of a large apartment building. Despite 38 neighbors hearing her screams, no one called the police. However, the facts of this story have been largely shown to be inaccurate.
Bystanders are less likely to help if there are many other people present, if the perpetrator is present, if the costs of intervention are physical, and if the situation is perceived as dangerous. On the other hand, bystanders are more likely to help if they are male and if they know the person in need of help. Overall, the bystander effect has been shown to be a valid concept, as demonstrated by research studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 27
Correct
-
What are the components of behavioural activation in the treatment of depression?
Your Answer: Types and degree of avoidance
Explanation:Understanding Behavioural Activation Therapy for Depression
Behavioural activation therapy is a formal treatment for depression that emphasizes activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach activities they are avoiding. Unlike traditional cognitive therapy, it involves less cognitive therapy and is easier to train staff in its use. The therapy was introduced by Martell in 2001 and has two primary focuses: the use of avoided activities as a guide for activity scheduling and functional analysis of cognitive processes that involve avoidance.
Behavioural activation theory suggests that when people become depressed, many of their activities function as avoidance and escape from aversive thoughts, feelings, of external situations. As a result, someone with depression engages less frequently in pleasant of satisfying activities and obtains less positive reinforcement than someone without depression. To address this, the patient is encouraged to identify activities and problems that they avoid and to establish valued directions to be followed. These are set out on planned timetables (activity schedules).
In behavioural activation therapy, therapists do not engage in the content of the patient’s thinking. Instead, they use functional analysis to focus on the context and process of the individual’s response. The most common cognitive responses are rumination, fusion, and self-attack. A typical session has a structured agenda to review homework and progress towards goals, discuss feedback on the previous session, and focus on one of two specific issues. The number of sessions required to treat depression is typically between 12 and 24.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 28
Incorrect
-
Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'?
Your Answer: Prichard
Correct Answer: Koch
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 29
Incorrect
-
With which concept is the 'phonological similarity effect' commonly associated?
Your Answer: Semantic memory
Correct Answer: Working memory
Explanation:If you are familiar with the ‘phonological Loop’ component of the working memory, you may be able to deduce the meaning of the ‘phonological similarity effect’. This effect describes the difficulty in remembering words that sound alike. Additionally, the ‘word-length effect’ and ‘articulatory suppression’ are two other phenomena that involve the working memory.
Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality?
Your Answer: Id
Correct Answer: Ego
Explanation:Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 31
Correct
-
What is the term used in psychodynamic theory to describe the process of internalizing cultural norms and values primarily acquired from parents?
Your Answer: Superego
Explanation:Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 32
Correct
-
Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman?
Your Answer: Total Institutions
Explanation:D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.
Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.
Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.
Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.
Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.
Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.
Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.
Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 33
Correct
-
Which term is commonly associated with Goffman?
Your Answer: Total institution
Explanation:Goffman coined the term ‘total institution’ in relation to asylums, which were responsible for fulfilling all the patients’ requirements, thereby hindering their rehabilitation.
D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.
Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.
Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.
Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.
Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.
Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.
Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.
Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 34
Correct
-
What is the alternate name for the theory that is commonly referred to as the two factor theory?
Your Answer: Singer-Schachter theory
Explanation:Theories of Emotion
In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.
According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.
The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.
The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.
Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.
In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 35
Correct
-
What is the term used to describe the teaching method where a swimming instructor breaks down a stroke into its components and teaches them separately before combining them?
Your Answer: Chaining
Explanation:Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
Which neo-Freudian theorist believed that the primary motivator in personality is the pursuit of superiority?
Your Answer: Karen Horney
Correct Answer: Alfred Adler
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following?
Your Answer: That providing therapy to an angry patient can induce feelings of aggression in the therapist
Correct Answer: That participating in violent sports such as boxing can provide a means of discharging feelings of anger
Explanation:The Catharsis Hypothesis and Its Effectiveness in Reducing Aggressive Feelings
The catharsis hypothesis proposes that individuals can release their feelings of frustration and aggression through indirect means, such as engaging in aggressive activities like boxing of venting their emotions through talking. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of these methods in reducing aggressive feelings over the long term.
Some individuals believe that engaging in physical activities like boxing can help release pent-up aggression and reduce the likelihood of future aggressive behavior. Others argue that this approach may actually reinforce aggressive tendencies and lead to an increase in violent behavior.
Similarly, some individuals believe that venting one’s emotions through talking can be an effective way to reduce feelings of frustration and aggression. However, others argue that this approach may actually intensify negative emotions and lead to further aggression.
Overall, the effectiveness of the catharsis hypothesis in reducing aggressive feelings remains a topic of debate. While some individuals may find these methods helpful in managing their emotions, others may require alternative approaches to address their aggressive tendencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 38
Correct
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What psychological test is used to explore an individual's theory of mind?
Your Answer: Sally-Anne Test
Explanation:The assessment of theory of mind is conducted through the Sally Ann test, while executive function is evaluated through the tower of London test. Projective personality tests include the tell-me-a-story test and the Rorschach test. Ammons Quick Test is utilized to aid in the evaluation of premorbid intelligence.
The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind
The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.
The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 39
Correct
-
What is the definition of meaning of Ribot's law?
Your Answer: Retrograde amnesia
Explanation:Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting
Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.
Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A child called Jack has developed a fear of dogs after he was chased by a dog in the park. The parent addresses this by exposing Jack to a friendly dog. Initially Jack reacted nervously and cried at the sight of the dog but over a period of 15 minutes, he settled in the company of this dog.
What could be the reason for the improvement in Jack's fear of dogs?Your Answer: Counterconditioning
Correct Answer: Extinction
Explanation:In psychology, the spacing effect suggests that humans are more likely to remember of learn items in a list when they are studied a few times over a long period of time (spaced presentation) rather than repeatedly in a short period of time, which is known as massed practice.
Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 41
Correct
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Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice?
Your Answer: Principlism
Explanation:Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 42
Correct
-
Which theorist introduced the concept of the hierarchy of needs?
Your Answer: Maslow
Explanation:Maslow proposed a hierarchy of needs that must be met for an individual to achieve self-actualization, starting with basic physiological needs such as hunger and thirst. Allport and Odbert focused on studying individuals and their unique traits, rather than groups. Kelly developed the phenomenological approach and personal construct theory. Rogers believed in the inherent self-knowledge and rationality of all humans and is known for his work in client-centered therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 43
Correct
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The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar to the can opener is an example of:
Your Answer: Stimulus generalisation
Explanation:Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 44
Correct
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Can you provide an example of a personality test that is objective?
Your Answer: Esyenck personality test
Explanation:Personality Testing
There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the inclination of a person to believe that a behavior they witness is indicative of the actor's lasting and unchanging personality traits?
Your Answer: Actor-observer Bias
Correct Answer: Correspondence bias
Explanation:While the terms fundamental attribution error (FAE) and correspondence bias are often used interchangeably, they actually have distinct differences. FAE refers to the tendency to attribute others’ behavior to internal causes rather than external ones. On the other hand, correspondence bias takes this a step further by attributing the behavior to the person’s enduring characteristics of personality, assuming that this is always how they are.
Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events
Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.
However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.
Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A student's parent complains about a teacher who they claim was too honest with their child which caused them to become upset. The student had asked the teacher if they were doing well in the class to which the teacher replied that they were struggling and needed to improve their grades.
In supervision with the principal, the teacher explained that they chose to be honest as they believe honesty is the best policy. They said they base this decision on the fact that if they were to lie, the student would not improve and would continue to struggle. They confirmed that they were aware that the student's response would be to become upset.
Which of the following ethical approaches is most aligned to the teacher's decision making?Your Answer: Utilitarianism
Correct Answer: Deontological
Explanation:The doctor’s decision is grounded in the moral righteousness of the act, rather than its consequences, and is therefore based on the principles of deontology, specifically the ‘categorical imperative’.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What was the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's original experiments on classical conditioning with dogs?
Your Answer: Hearing a bell
Correct Answer: Seeing food
Explanation:Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 48
Correct
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Which aspect is often overlooked of not given enough importance in utilitarianism?
Your Answer: Individual rights
Explanation:According to utilitarianism, the morally right action is one that results in the most happiness for the largest number of people. This ethical theory was first introduced by Jeremy Bentham in the early 1800s and later refined by John Stuart Mill. The ultimate goal is to maximize utility, which is the overall amount of pleasure of happiness in the world. In order to achieve this, the consequences of an action on all those affected must be considered. However, a utilitarian may have to acknowledge that sometimes the greatest happiness for the greatest number can only be achieved by violating certain rights, such as the right to not be punished if innocent.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 49
Correct
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What is an example of an optical illusion that creates the perception of motion?
Your Answer: Phi phenomenon
Explanation:The Hering illusion is an optical illusion where straight and parallel lines appear to be curved of bowed outwards when presented in front of a radial background, such as the spokes of a bicycle wheel.
Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization
Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 50
Correct
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What type of personality test is projective in nature?
Your Answer: Thematic Apperception Test
Explanation:Personality Testing
There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 51
Correct
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The grandson of a man with Alzheimer's disease has observed that his grandfather has difficulty remembering recent events but can recall memories from his youth with clarity. Which law supports this observation?
Your Answer: Ribot's Law
Explanation:Ribot’s Law is the only law among the options provided, the others are non-existent.
Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting
Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.
Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which of the following is Stuart Mill primarily known for?
Your Answer: The categorical imperative
Correct Answer: Rule utilitarianism
Explanation:Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 53
Correct
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What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based on Thomas and Chess's research?
Your Answer: 15%
Explanation:Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 54
Correct
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An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving alcohol despite no longer enjoying its effects. What is this an example of?
Your Answer: Incentive salience
Explanation:Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief
Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.
Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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What did Freud believe about the Id?
Your Answer: It operates on secondary process thinking
Correct Answer: It has no sense of time
Explanation:Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?
Your Answer: Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test
Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test
Explanation:The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test
The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a tool used to evaluate a person’s ability to think abstractly and form concepts effectively. This test involves sorting objects based on their colour of material and copying block patterns using coloured cubes. The purpose of this test is to assess the patient’s cognitive abilities and determine their level of abstract thinking. By analyzing the patient’s performance on this test, healthcare professionals can gain insight into their cognitive functioning and develop appropriate treatment plans. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a valuable tool for assessing cognitive abilities and can be used in a variety of healthcare settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate?
Your Answer: Broadbent suggested a process of attenuation of received stimuli
Correct Answer: Late selection models argue that information is selected after processing for meaning
Explanation:Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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What is one of the main skills proposed by Thurstone?
Your Answer: Working memory
Correct Answer: Word fluency
Explanation:All the other choices are components of the WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale).
Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence
Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the working memory?
Your Answer: The 'phonological store' holds information in speech-based form for 10-20 seconds
Correct Answer: The central executive enables the performance of verbal and visual tasks concurrently
Explanation:The working memory is overseen by the central executive, which manages all its functions. Although the exact location of the central executive is not fully comprehended, it is believed to involve various regions of the brain.
Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 60
Correct
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Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the human subject's voluntary consent in research?
Your Answer: The Nuremberg code
Explanation:The Nuremberg Code and its Significance in Medical Ethics
The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical guidelines that resulted from the trial of German physicians accused of war crimes and crimes against humanity in 1946. The physicians were charged with conducting medical experiments on concentration camp prisoners without their consent. This led to the creation of the Nuremberg Code, which was the first international document to advocate for voluntary participation and informed consent in medical experimentation.
The Nuremberg Code has since become a cornerstone of medical ethics and has been adopted by many countries and organizations around the world. It emphasizes the importance of protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in medical research and requires that any experimentation be conducted with the voluntary and informed consent of the participants.
The significance of the Nuremberg Code cannot be overstated, as it has helped to shape the way medical research is conducted and has led to greater awareness and respect for the rights of human subjects. It serves as a reminder of the atrocities committed during the Holocaust and the importance of ethical considerations in medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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How can the principle of Premack be described?
Your Answer: Anxiety about a situation is directly linked to perceived lack of ability to control it
Correct Answer: High frequency behaviours can be used to reinforce low frequency behaviour
Explanation:Premack’s Principle
Premack’s principle is a concept that suggests that preferred behaviors can be utilized to reinforce unpreferred behaviors. This principle is based on the observation that high-probability behaviors, which are frequently performed under conditions of free choice, can be used to reinforce low-probability behaviors. For instance, parents can tell their children that they can have pudding only after they finish their main course. Similarly, children can be allowed to go out and play only after they have completed their homework. By using this principle, individuals can increase the likelihood of performing less preferred behaviors by linking them to more preferred behaviors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 62
Correct
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Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but were still not provided with it?
Your Answer: Tuskegee experiment
Explanation:Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than the behaviors leading up to it?
Your Answer: Deontology
Correct Answer: Teleology
Explanation:Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included in the list.
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Dynamic shift
Explanation:Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'?
Your Answer: Kahlbaum
Correct Answer: Hecker
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 66
Correct
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What is the term used by Freud to describe the process through which people release their aggressive impulses?
Your Answer: Catharsis
Explanation:Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 67
Correct
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What is a true statement about failures in memory?
Your Answer: Blocking can occur with both semantic and episodic memory
Explanation:Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure
Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.
However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.
Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.
Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 68
Correct
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As per Sigmund Freud's structural model of the mind, which component is responsible for developing and upholding a person's ethical principles?
Your Answer: The superego
Explanation:According to Freud, the mind can be divided into three parts: the id, the ego, and the superego. The id is a collection of instinctual drives that are not organized and are controlled by the primary process. The id lacks the ability to delay of modify these instinctual drives that an infant is born with. The ego operates in all three dimensions of the mind: conscious, preconscious, and unconscious. The ego is responsible for logical and abstract thinking, as well as verbal expression in the conscious and preconscious parts of the mind. The superego is responsible for creating and maintaining an individual’s moral conscience based on a complex system of values and ideals that are internalized from parents. The terms unconscious and preconscious refer to Freud’s model of the mind, which includes the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious parts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders
Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 70
Correct
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What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite their potential danger?
Your Answer: Stimulus preparedness
Explanation:Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Which of the options below does not require the utilization of a conditioned stimulus?
Your Answer: Counterconditioning
Correct Answer: Temporal conditioning
Explanation:Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 72
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the process of reinforcing progressively more accurate attempts towards a desired behavior?
Your Answer: Shaping
Explanation:Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 73
Correct
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Whilst assessing a woman with schizophrenia you notice she is vague and cannot recall basic details such as what she ate for breakfast of how she traveled to the appointment. She is accompanied by a carer who explains that the patient has not been the same since she had a head injury 8 months ago. The woman has a relatively good memory for aspects of her childhood such as where she was born and what school she attended. Which of the following is suggested?
Your Answer: Anterograde amnesia
Explanation:The head injury resulted in anterograde amnesia, which is characterized by memory loss for events that occurred after the injury.
Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes
Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 74
Correct
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Classical conditioning is associated with the term?
Your Answer: Stimulus
Explanation:Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A teenager has stopped smoking and instead started using an e-cigarette. They are initially pleased about this change but then are told that e-cigarettes also pose a risk to their health. They continue to smoke e-cigarettes but feel upset about the possible health risks. They then decide to stop smoking and immediately feel better.
Which of the following is illustrated by this teenager's experience?Your Answer: Chunking
Correct Answer: Cognitive dissonance
Explanation:Chunking is a strategy that involves dividing complex tasks into smaller, more manageable chunks of subtasks. This approach can help alleviate unpleasant feelings that arise when faced with a task that seems overwhelming of difficult to complete.
Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 76
Correct
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How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated?
Your Answer: Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence and Justice
Explanation:Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 77
Correct
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What accurately describes Maslow's initial hierarchy of needs consisting of 5 levels?
Your Answer: Self actualisation involves the most complex form of needs
Explanation:Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 78
Correct
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What is the most effective way to assess one's ability to think abstractly?
Your Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Test
Explanation:The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting Test for Assessing Abstract Thinking
The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate abstract thinking and the ability to form concepts. This test requires patients to sort objects based on their colour of material, as well as copy block patterns using coloured cubes. The test is primarily used to diagnose neurological problems. By assessing a patient’s ability to sort objects and form concepts, doctors can gain insight into their cognitive abilities and identify any potential neurological issues. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is an effective tool for evaluating abstract thinking and cognitive function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 79
Correct
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A consultant pediatrician attends the clinic for an interview with a young patient. The child had been very restless until she arrived but settled down immediately in fear that the doctor might decide to give her a shot. This is an example of which of the following?
Your Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:The Hawthorne effect is a type of bias that occurs when individuals alter their behavior because they believe they are being observed. The halo effect is a cognitive bias where one’s perception of a trait is influenced by their perception of another trait, such as assuming someone with glasses is intelligent. The Forer effect explains why people give high accuracy ratings to personality descriptions that are actually vague and general enough to apply to many people, as seen in practices like astrology. The interloper effect is the tendency to view third-party consultation as objective. The practice effect refers to the impact of past experience on taking a test again, resulting in higher scores, especially when the interval between tests is short.
The Hawthorne Effect and Its Impact on Research
The Hawthorne effect is a type of observer bias that occurs when individuals modify their behavior because they believe they are being observed. This phenomenon can have a significant impact on research outcomes, as subjects may alter their actions of responses in an attempt to please the observer of researcher. For instance, if a person knows they are being watched while performing a task, they may complete it more quickly of with greater accuracy than they would otherwise. As a result, researchers must be aware of the Hawthorne effect and take steps to minimize its influence on their studies. Failure to do so can lead to inaccurate of misleading results, which can have serious consequences for the validity of the research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 80
Correct
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With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated?
Your Answer: Attachment theory
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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Under which category of memory is priming classified?
Your Answer: Episodic memory
Correct Answer: Nondeclarative memory
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 82
Correct
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Which psychological concept is primarily characterized by the defence mechanism of splitting?
Your Answer: Paranoid-schizoid position
Explanation:Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.
On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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In which type of storage is factual information and general knowledge about the world kept?
Your Answer: Episodic memory
Correct Answer: Semantic memory
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A teenager is prescribed an antidepressant by their psychiatrist. 6 weeks later they feel better and conclude that depression must have a biological cause. Which of the following is illustrated by this scenario?
Your Answer: Confirmation bias
Correct Answer: Intervention-causation fallacy
Explanation:Intervention-Causation Fallacy
The intervention-causation fallacy is a common mistake where people assume that a cure proves a cause. For instance, if antidepressants alleviate symptoms of depression, it does not necessarily mean that depression has a biological cause. It is important to note that just because a treatment works, it does not necessarily mean that it is addressing the root cause of the problem. Therefore, it is crucial to be cautious when making assumptions about causation based on interventions. By avoiding this fallacy, we can ensure that we are accurately identifying the underlying causes of problems and developing effective solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 85
Correct
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Can you identify a personality test that assesses qualities rather than quantities?
Your Answer: Thematic Apperception Test
Explanation:The Thematic Apperception Test is a personality test that falls under the category of projective tests, which involve describing rather than measuring a specific aspect.
Personality Testing
There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for?
Your Answer: Autobiographical events
Correct Answer: Language and knowledge
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma?
Your Answer: Moniz
Correct Answer: Goffman
Explanation:Goffman’s work focused extensively on stigma, while Cerletti is known for his contributions to the development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and Moniz is associated with the development of frontal lobotomy.
History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 88
Correct
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What is an example of declarative memory?
Your Answer: Episodic
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 89
Correct
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Which of the options below does not belong to the group of neo-Freudians?
Your Answer: Burrhus Skinner
Explanation:B.F. Skinner, a prominent figure in the field of psychology, is renowned for his contributions to the theory of reinforcement within the behaviourist perspective.
Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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To encourage their children to do their chores, a family offers a reward system. Each child receives a reward after completing a certain number of chores. The number of chores they need to complete varies, but each child knows that the more chores they complete, the more likely they are to receive the reward. The family sets the number of chores needed for a reward between 3 to 8 chores, and this changes every week. What type of reinforcement schedule does the family use?
Your Answer: Fixed interval
Correct Answer: Variable ratio
Explanation:The appropriate reinforcement schedule for the given scenario is variable ratio. This is because there is a certain pattern to the reinforcement, which is dependent on the number of sales made by the staff. It cannot be a random schedule as there is a specific criterion for receiving the bonus. Additionally, it cannot be an interval schedule as the staff must make a certain number of sales to receive the bonus. If the number of sales required was fixed, it would be a fixed ratio schedule.
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 91
Correct
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Who is credited with creating the term 'schizoaffective disorder'?
Your Answer: Kasanin
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 92
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is part of a group trying to decide on a restaurant for dinner. When the group suggests a popular Italian restaurant, the other 4 members all say they want to go there. The woman is hesitant, but ultimately agrees with the group's choice.
Which group process is at play here?Your Answer: Conformity
Explanation:Social Influence Phenomena
Conformity is a social influence phenomenon where individuals tend to adopt the attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors of a group, aligning themselves with group norms. The bystander effect is another social influence phenomenon where individuals fail to offer help to a victim when others are present. The likelihood of help decreases as the number of bystanders increases. Groupthink occurs when a group makes poor decisions due to group pressures that lead to a decline in mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment. Polarization is the tendency for a group to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclinations of its members. Deindividuation is the loss of self-awareness in groups, often leading to violent acts in situations such as football hooliganism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts?
Your Answer: Transient global amnesia
Correct Answer: Anterograde amnesia
Explanation:Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes
Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 94
Correct
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What is the accurate statement about the concept of the 'sick role'?
Your Answer: Sick persons are not considered responsible for their illnesses
Explanation:The concept of the sick role pertains to an implicit agreement between an individual who falls ill and the community they belong to.
The Sick Role and Illness Behavior
Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.
According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.
Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.
In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A high school student passes their final exams having based their revision solely on past exam papers. On the other hand, another student who has studied extensively from textbooks fails the same exams despite having gained vast knowledge. What does this scenario illustrate?
Your Answer: Halo effect
Correct Answer: Practice effect
Explanation:When preparing for the MRCPsych exam, it is not advisable to solely rely on textbooks. One question that has been appearing on the exam is about the Hawthorne effect, which describes how individuals alter their behavior when they are aware of being observed. Another cognitive bias is the halo effect, where the perception of one trait is influenced by the perception of another trait, such as assuming intelligence based on the presence of glasses. It is worth noting that this question was originally written here.
The Practice Effect and Its Impact on Test Scores
The practice effect is a phenomenon that occurs when individuals take a test multiple times, resulting in higher scores due to their previous experience. This effect is most noticeable when the time between the two tests is short. The practice effect can have a significant impact on test scores, as individuals who have taken a test before are likely to perform better than those who have not. This effect is particularly relevant in educational settings, where students may take multiple tests throughout a semester of academic year. Understanding the practice effect can help educators and researchers better interpret test scores and make more informed decisions about student performance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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An adolescent boy attends a counseling session for an assessment. His school counselor believes him to be struggling with identity issues and in need of support.
He is accompanied by his mother who shares that they recently moved to the United States from Mexico. From his mother, you learn that he has been struggling to fit in with his peers and feels disconnected from his Mexican heritage. He has been trying to adopt American customs and has been avoiding speaking Spanish.
Which approach to acculturation is implied?Your Answer: Marginalization
Correct Answer: Separation
Explanation:She has maintained her home culture and not assimilated into the dominant culture, which is known as separation.
Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
Which schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish?
Your Answer: Fixed ratio
Correct Answer: Variable ratio
Explanation:Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
How can the behavior of a rat in pressing a lever for food pellets be described when it stops pressing the lever after several attempts without receiving any pellets?
Your Answer: Unconditioned response
Correct Answer: Extinction
Explanation:The term ‘extinction’ has distinct connotations in classical conditioning and operant conditioning. In operant conditioning, it denotes the waning of an operant response due to the absence of reinforcement. In classical conditioning, it signifies a decrease in a conditioned response (such as salivation) when a conditioned stimulus (such as a bell ringing) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (such as food) that it was previously associated with.
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 99
Correct
-
What is a characteristic of typical grief?
Your Answer: Anger towards the deceased
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
What study intentionally gave hepatitis to children with learning disabilities?
Your Answer: Stanford prison experiment
Correct Answer: Willowbrook Study
Explanation:The Willowbrook School Study was conducted in a state-supported institution for children with learning difficulties in New York during the 1960s. The study involved inoculating healthy children with hepatitis and administering gamma globulin to assess its potential to treat the disorder.
The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was a controversial follow-up study of people with syphilis. Many participants were not informed of their illness and did not receive available treatment, even though it became available halfway through the study. The Belmont report introduced changes to US law on research ethics as a result of this study.
The Stanford prison experiment involved creating a simulated prison environment at Stanford University. Participants were assigned as either a prison of a guard and were given no guidelines for how to behave. Within two days, the participants began to act out their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and sometimes cruel to the prisoners. The study was terminated after only six days due to extreme emotional reactions from some of the prisoners.
The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys hanging around public toilets where men meet to have sex in order to study the population and learn more about the types of men that did it. The method was controversial as he never disclosed his motives when he interviewed the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watch queen’, raising issues of informed consent in research.
Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience. Participants were assigned the role of teacher and administered fake shocks to a confederate playing the learner. Despite expressing concern, 30% of participants continued to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The study raised concerns for the wellbeing of participants, but Milgram decided not to terminate it as prior participants seemed to recover relatively well.
Beecher’s Study
Beecher’s study revealed more than 20 instances where individuals were subjected to experimentation without being fully informed of their participation in research and the potential risks involved. One of the cases cited was the Willowbrook State School study, where children with mental disabilities were intentionally infected with hepatitis under the guise of a vaccination program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led to their suspension, they argue that it was due to external factors and that they were not entirely responsible for their actions. However, the disciplinary panel disagrees and places more emphasis on the student's personal traits, such as their lack of self-control and tendency towards defiance.
What is suggested by the perspective of the disciplinary panel?Your Answer: Self-serving bias
Correct Answer: Fundamental attribution error
Explanation:The most appropriate explanation for this scenario is the fundamental attribution error. It is important to note that this is distinct from the actor-observer bias, which requires evidence of a difference in how situational factors are considered for others versus ourselves. The actor-observer bias typically involves overemphasizing personality traits for others’ behaviors and situational factors for our own behaviors.
Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events
Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.
However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.
Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement about the structural model of the mind?
Your Answer: The superego is fully formed at birth
Correct Answer: The superego contains the ego ideal
Explanation:The superego encompasses the ‘ego ideal’, which embodies exemplary attitudes and conduct. One can liken the Superego to a moral compass of conscience.
Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
In Freud's topographical model of the mind, which term was not included in his description?
Your Answer: Preconscious system
Correct Answer: Subconscious system
Explanation:Freud’s Topographical Model of the Mind
Freud’s topographical model of the mind, introduced in his book The Interpretation of Dreams, divides the mind into three regions: the conscious system, the preconscious system, and the unconscious system.
The conscious system refers to the part of the mind that is aware. The preconscious system is the information that is known and can potentially be brought into consciousness. Finally, the unconscious system is believed to be outside conscious awareness and operates on primary process thinking, which is aimed at wish fulfillment. It is governed by the pleasure principle, has no concept of time, denies the existence of negatives, and allows the existence of contradictions, making it irrational.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
For what is Carl Jung most well-known?
Your Answer: Furthering Freud's work on the defence mechanisms
Correct Answer: Differentiating between the personal and collective unconscious
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs.
Your Answer: Vital to survival
Correct Answer: Contradictory to an individual's beliefs
Explanation:Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'?
Your Answer: William Chambliss
Correct Answer: Erving Goffman
Explanation:Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about temperament?
Your Answer: 90% of children can be classified as one of the three types outlined by Thomas and Chess
Correct Answer: Temperament is stable throughout childhood
Explanation:Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the mistake made by the medical director during his speech on the proposed merger of two hospitals, where he accidentally said 'murder of two hospitals' instead of 'merger of two hospitals'?
Your Answer: Echolalia
Correct Answer: Parapraxis
Explanation:Parapraxis: A Freudian Slip of the Tongue
A parapraxis, commonly known as a ‘slip of the tongue’, is a Freudian concept that suggests that these slips reveal important information about the repressed content of the unconscious mind. According to Freud, these mistakes are not accidental but rather a manifestation of the unconscious mind’s desires and thoughts. For instance, a person may accidentally call their boss by their partner’s name, revealing an underlying attraction of resentment towards their boss. Freud believed that these parapraxes could provide valuable insights into a person’s psyche and help uncover repressed memories of emotions. Therefore, he considered them an essential tool in psychoanalysis. Today, parapraxes are still studied and analyzed by psychologists and therapists to gain a better understanding of their patients’ unconscious thoughts and feelings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
According to Holmes and Rahe, which stressful life event is considered the most stressful?
Your Answer: Retirement
Correct Answer: Divorce
Explanation:While it’s not necessary to memorize the precise sequence of all the stressful life events, it’s advisable to have knowledge of the order of the most significant three.
Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)
In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.
The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.
1. Death of spouse – 100
2. Divorce – 73
3. Marital separation – 65
4. Jail term – 63
5. Death of a close family member – 63
6. Personal illness – 53
7. Marriage – 50
8. Being fired from work – 47
9. Marital reconciliation – 45
10. Retirement – 45This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
In what field did Thomas and Chess have the greatest impact?
Your Answer: Memory
Correct Answer: Temperament
Explanation:Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about one's own group and applying those beliefs to oneself?
Your Answer: Courtesy stigma
Correct Answer: Self-stigma
Explanation:Self stigma is when an individual adopts negative societal beliefs about their condition. On the other hand, courtesy stigma (also known as stigma by association) is a form of stigma directed towards individuals such as family members and healthcare professionals who are associated with those who have mental health issues.
Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively?
Your Answer: Cerebellum
Correct Answer: Prefrontal cortex
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 113
Correct
-
Which of the following is not considered a fundamental element of language?
Your Answer: Subversion
Explanation:The Four Core Components of Language
Language is a complex system of communication that involves various components. The four core components of language are semantics, syntax, pragmatics, and phonology. Each of these components plays a crucial role in the way we use language to convey meaning and interact with others.
Semantics refers to the meaning of words and how they are used in context. It involves understanding the relationships between words and their meanings, as well as the nuances of language. For example, the word run can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used.
Syntax refers to the rules that govern the structure of sentences and how words are arranged to convey meaning. It involves understanding the order of words, phrases, and clauses in a sentence, as well as the use of punctuation and other grammatical structures.
Pragmatics refers to the social and cultural aspects of language use. It involves understanding the context in which language is used, as well as the social norms and expectations that govern communication. For example, the way we speak to our friends may be different from the way we speak to our boss.
Phonology refers to the sounds of language and how they are used to convey meaning. It involves understanding the different sounds of language, as well as the rules that govern their use. For example, the sound p in pat is different from the sound b in bat, and these differences can change the meaning of a word.
In summary, the four core components of language are essential for effective communication. By understanding these components, we can better understand how language works and use it more effectively in our interactions with others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
When symptoms of grief persist for an extended period after a loss, it is considered chronic grief.
Your Answer: 2 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 115
Correct
-
Who is credited with creating the term 'bipolar'?
Your Answer: Kleist
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
What is the main focus of behavioural activation therapy?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Understanding Behavioural Activation Therapy for Depression
Behavioural activation therapy is a formal treatment for depression that emphasizes activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach activities they are avoiding. Unlike traditional cognitive therapy, it involves less cognitive therapy and is easier to train staff in its use. The therapy was introduced by Martell in 2001 and has two primary focuses: the use of avoided activities as a guide for activity scheduling and functional analysis of cognitive processes that involve avoidance.
Behavioural activation theory suggests that when people become depressed, many of their activities function as avoidance and escape from aversive thoughts, feelings, of external situations. As a result, someone with depression engages less frequently in pleasant of satisfying activities and obtains less positive reinforcement than someone without depression. To address this, the patient is encouraged to identify activities and problems that they avoid and to establish valued directions to be followed. These are set out on planned timetables (activity schedules).
In behavioural activation therapy, therapists do not engage in the content of the patient’s thinking. Instead, they use functional analysis to focus on the context and process of the individual’s response. The most common cognitive responses are rumination, fusion, and self-attack. A typical session has a structured agenda to review homework and progress towards goals, discuss feedback on the previous session, and focus on one of two specific issues. The number of sessions required to treat depression is typically between 12 and 24.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 117
Correct
-
A teenager who is texting while driving almost hits a group of pedestrians. When he stops the car, one of the pedestrians approaches him and yells. The teenager feels ashamed of his behavior and is reminded to be more cautious when driving. What type of operant conditioning is this an example of?
Your Answer: Positive punishment
Explanation:The women’s shouting, which is an unpleasant stimulus, serves as a positive punisher that reduces the likelihood of the behavior (speeding) occurring again. This is distinct from reinforcement, which involves the introduction of a positive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated.
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about amnesia?
Your Answer: Fugue states are common in situation specific amnesia
Correct Answer: Situation specific amnesia is seen in cases of child sexual abuse
Explanation:Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by a disruption of personal identity, which is not observed in transient global amnesia. In individuals with psychogenic amnesia, there is typically a loss of past memories (retrograde amnesia) while the ability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia) is relatively preserved.
Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes
Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
How is clinical research currently guided worldwide in terms of ethical recommendations?
Your Answer: Mt Sinai declaration
Correct Answer: Helsinki declaration
Explanation:The Significance of the Declaration of Helsinki in Biomedical Research Ethics
The Declaration of Helsinki, created by the World Medical Association in 1964, outlines the fundamental ethical principles that govern biomedical research involving human subjects. Over the years, it has undergone several revisions and continues to serve as a cornerstone of good medical practice. Its importance lies in its ability to provide a framework for ethical decision-making in research, ensuring that the rights, safety, and well-being of human subjects are protected. The Declaration of Helsinki is a crucial document that guides researchers, clinicians, and policymakers in their efforts to conduct ethical and responsible research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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Which type of stigma is referred to as discrimination?
Your Answer: Internal stigma
Correct Answer: Enacted stigma
Explanation:Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position?
Your Answer: Splitting
Correct Answer: Ambivalence
Explanation:Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.
On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe a reduction in a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus with which it has been previously paired in classical conditioning?
Your Answer: Negative reinforcement
Correct Answer: Extinction
Explanation:The term ‘extinction’ has different meanings in classical and operant conditioning. In classical conditioning, it refers to a decrease in a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus. In operant conditioning, it refers to the decrease in an operant response when it is no longer reinforced. The options of negative reinforcement, negative punishment, and positive punishment are not relevant to classical conditioning.
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 123
Correct
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What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test?
Your Answer: Personality
Explanation:The TAT is a psychological test that uses ambiguous pictures of people to elicit narratives from subjects. These narratives provide insight into the subjects’ underlying motives, concerns, and social perspectives.
Neuropsychological Tests
Neuropsychological tests are used to assess cognitive function and behavior in individuals with neurological of psychiatric conditions. These tests are designed to evaluate specific domains of cognitive function, such as attention, language, memory, visuospatial skills, executive function, and intelligence. They can also be used to assess personality traits and emotional functioning.
Attention: The digit span test measures an individual’s ability to remember and repeat a series of numbers. The Trails A test assesses visual attention and processing speed.
Language: The Boston Naming Test evaluates an individual’s ability to name objects. Verbal fluency tests assess an individual’s ability to generate words within a specific category.
Memory: The Wechsler Memory Scale assesses different aspects of memory, including immediate and delayed recall. The Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test measures an individual’s ability to remember a list of words.
Visuospatial skills: The Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure test assesses an individual’s ability to copy and recall a complex figure.
Executive function: The Wisconsin Card Sort Test measures an individual’s ability to shift cognitive strategies. The Stroop test assesses an individual’s ability to inhibit automatic responses. The Trails B test evaluates an individual’s ability to switch between tasks.
Intelligence: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test assesses an individual’s overall intellectual functioning. The National Adult Reading Test measures an individual’s premorbid intelligence. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale assesses intellectual functioning in children and adults.
Personality (Projective Tests): The Rorschach Inkblot test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of inkblots. The Thematic Apperception Test evaluates an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of ambiguous pictures. The Draw-A-Person test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their drawing of a person. Sentence completion tests assess an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to incomplete sentences.
Personality (Objective Tests): The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to a standardized questionnaire. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) evaluates an individual’s personality based on 16 different traits. The NEO Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality based on five different dimensions. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ) measures an individual’s personality based on three different dimensions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 124
Correct
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What is a D need according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
Your Answer: Esteem
Explanation:Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a medication that provides relief. She keeps the medication on hand and takes it as soon as the pain starts. What does this behavior demonstrate?
Your Answer: Reciprocal inhibition
Correct Answer: Escape conditioning
Explanation:Escape conditioning involves ending an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior, while avoidance conditioning involves avoiding the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior.
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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Which study focused on men who participated in sexual activities in public restrooms?
Your Answer: Beecher's Study
Correct Answer: Tearoom study
Explanation:Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 127
Correct
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Regarding what topic is the Declaration of Tokyo?
Your Answer: The torture of prisoners
Explanation:Declarations
The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:
Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.
Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.
Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.
Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.
Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.
Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.
Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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What accurately describes John Bowlby's depiction of the grief process?
Your Answer: Stage 2 is characterised by denial
Correct Answer: Stage 3 is characterised by disorganisation and typically lasts several months
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate way to describe someone's ethnicity?
Your Answer: Social activities
Correct Answer: Group identification
Explanation:Understanding Ethnicity
Ethnicity is a term used to describe a person’s affiliation with a specific group that they identify with based on shared heritage, language, culture, religion, of ideology. It is a way for individuals to connect with others who share similar experiences and traditions. Ethnicity can be a significant aspect of a person’s identity and can influence their beliefs, values, and behaviors. Understanding ethnicity is essential for promoting diversity and inclusivity in society. By recognizing and respecting different ethnicities, we can create a more tolerant and accepting world.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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What is proposed by the theory of the bystander effect?
Your Answer: A person is most likely to help in a crisis situation if there are a large number of people present to provide support
Correct Answer: A small number of witnesses predicts a higher chance of intervention
Explanation:The Bystander Effect: Theory and Examples
The bystander effect, also known as the Genovese effect, suggests that the likelihood of someone helping in a situation is inversely related to the number of people present. This means that a person is more likely to help if there are fewer witnesses. The term Genovese effect comes from the case of Kitty Genovese, who was sexually assaulted and killed in front of a large apartment building. Despite 38 neighbors hearing her screams, no one called the police. However, the facts of this story have been largely shown to be inaccurate.
Bystanders are less likely to help if there are many other people present, if the perpetrator is present, if the costs of intervention are physical, and if the situation is perceived as dangerous. On the other hand, bystanders are more likely to help if they are male and if they know the person in need of help. Overall, the bystander effect has been shown to be a valid concept, as demonstrated by research studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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Which cognitive heuristic best explains why Drug B captured a higher market share than Drug A, despite both drugs having similar efficacy and mechanisms of action, with Drug A marketed as having a 50% failure rate and Drug B marketed as having a 50% success rate?
Your Answer: Representation
Correct Answer: Framing
Explanation:Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors
In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.
Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.
The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.
Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.
Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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What type of memory failure is typically associated with the inability to remember where one has placed their car keys?
Your Answer: Transience
Correct Answer: Absent-mindedness
Explanation:The reason behind absent-mindedness is typically due to insufficient activation of the left inferior prefrontal and parahippocampal regions during the initial encoding process, resulting in shallow processing.
Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure
Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.
However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.
Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.
Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A change can occur as a result of cognitive dissonance in which of the following?
Your Answer: Group behaviour
Correct Answer: Attitude
Explanation:Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into the behavior of individuals in Nazi Germany?
Your Answer: Stanford prison experiments
Correct Answer: Milgram's' experiment
Explanation:Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend that broke up with her. Every time it is played she feels a deep sense of sadness. A classmate in her school often sings the song and the woman eventually finds herself feeling sad when she sees this classmate even when he no longer sings the song. This is an example of which of the following?
Your Answer: Negative punishment
Correct Answer: Higher order conditioning
Explanation:The original response is elicited by the song, which serves as the conditioned stimulus. Through higher order conditioning, the colleague becomes associated with the song and also elicits the original response.
When a response conditioned to a specific stimulus occurs in response to other stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus, this is known as stimulus generalisation. For instance, if someone experiences fear after being stung by a bee (CS), they may also feel fearful towards other small flying insects due to their similarity to the conditioned stimulus.
In the given scenario, the colleague is dissimilar to the song and therefore cannot be considered as a similar stimulus. Hence, higher order conditioning is the appropriate term to describe the process.Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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What is the description provided by Atkinson and Shiffrin's 1968 model?
Your Answer: Personality
Correct Answer: Memory
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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What is the process of partially assimilating into a new culture while still maintaining aspects of one's own culture called?
Your Answer: Assimilation
Correct Answer: Acculturation
Explanation:The Importance of Culture and its Impact on Individuals
Culture plays a vital role in society by providing consistency and organization to its patterns and components over generations. It helps to manage diversity and balance the forces of stability and conformity with those of change and innovation. By classifying phenomena into categories such as good and bad, right and wrong, healthy and sick, and desirable and undesirable, culture provides individuals with behavioral guidelines and an interpretation of life events.
When adults, such as migrants of refugees, fully adopt the culture of a host society and lose their own cultural identity, they are said to be assimilated. However, in acculturation, individuals take on some aspects of the host culture while retaining their own cultural identity.
Culture is learned through various means, including contact with family, friends, classmates, teachers, significant persons, and the media. This process is known as enculturation.
Accommodation refers to the reconciliation of differences, while sojourning involves staying as a temporary resident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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Which option below is not considered a theory of emotion?
Your Answer: Singer-Schachter theory
Correct Answer: Maslow's theory
Explanation:The concept proposed by Maslow is centered around a pyramid of needs.
Theories of Emotion
In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.
According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.
The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.
The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.
Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.
In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 139
Correct
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Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?
Your Answer: George Brown
Explanation:The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.
History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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Which one of these individuals did not belong to the Gestalt psychology movement?
Your Answer: Kurt Koffka
Correct Answer: Wilhelm Wundt
Explanation:Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization
Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A teacher in a school district instructs a young student to cheat on a test to maintain high grades. The student initially resists but eventually complies when the teacher threatens to give them a failing grade. What type of power has the teacher exerted in this situation?
Your Answer: Expert
Correct Answer: Coercive
Explanation:Power Theory
French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 142
Correct
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How can a form of cultural assimilation be described?
Your Answer: Melting pot
Explanation:Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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Who is credited with creating the term 'psychiatry'?
Your Answer: Binet
Correct Answer: Reil
Explanation:Johann Reil is credited with coining the term ‘psychiatry’ in 1808.
History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?
Your Answer: Acting out
Correct Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.
On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 70 year old man presents at the memory clinic with his wife, reporting an inability to form new memories for the past 8 months following a head injury sustained in a fall. Which brain structure do you suspect has been affected?
Your Answer: Prefrontal gyrus
Correct Answer: Hippocampus
Explanation:The frontal lobe contains the prefrontal gyrus and gyrus rectus, while the midbrain floor is composed of the tegmentum. Additionally, the hippocampus, which is crucial for memory, is located within the medial temporal lobe.
Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes
Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 146
Correct
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Who is credited with the Law of forgetting?
Your Answer: Jost
Explanation:Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting
Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.
Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A child with a fear of dogs is encouraged to pet a friendly one. At first, the child is very scared but eventually becomes comfortable and enjoys playing with the dog. What type of therapeutic approach does this demonstrate?
Your Answer: Systematic desensitization
Correct Answer: Flooding
Explanation:Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias
Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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What was the term used by Freud to refer to the instinct of death?
Your Answer: Erebos
Correct Answer: Thanatos
Explanation:Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thanatos and eros
Explanation:Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donald Winnicott
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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