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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?
Your Answer: Patient-oriented Eczema Measure
Correct Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire
Explanation:Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be able to do, considering normal development?
Your Answer: Smile
Explanation:Among the options provided, an 8-week-old full-term infant with normal developmental milestones will smile in response to appropriate stimuli.Rationale:Smiles in response to appropriate stimuli are seen from around 6 weeks of age. A social smile, where the infant has an awareness that a smile attracts attention, is not observed until around 3 months of age.Other options:- At 6 weeks an infant is able to follow objects in the horizontal plane through 90 deg; fixing and following an object through 180 deg in the horizontal plane is a milestone achieved at 3 months, as is pushing up onto forearms. – Pushing up onto hands occurs by around 5 months.- Infants of 3 months should startle to a 60 dB sound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their son might have delayed puberty. On examination, he has very little pubic hair and the testicular volume is 3ml. Bilateral gynaecomastia is also observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Constitutional delay
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:The most overt phenotypic features of Klinefelter syndrome are caused by testosterone deficiency and, directly or indirectly, by unsuppressed follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones. Affected men typically have (in decreasing order of frequency): infertility, small testes, decreased facial hair, gynecomastia, decreased pubic hair, and a small penis. Because of their long legs, men with Klinefelter syndrome often are taller than predicted based on parental height. Body habitus may be feminized. In childhood, when there is a relative quiescence in the hormonal milieu, ascertainment of the syndrome may be difficult because the effects of hypogonadism (i.e., small external genitalia and firm testes) may be subtle or not present at all.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling and soft stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Explanation:Epiglottitis is characterized by the abrupt onset of severe symptoms. Without airway control and medical management, symptoms may rapidly progress to respiratory obstruction and death in a matter of hours.Usually, no prodromal symptoms occur in children. Fever is usually the first symptom, and temperatures often reach 40°C. Acute epiglottitis may result in sudden, complete upper airway obstruction. Classic signs in children are four D’s: drooling, dyspnoea, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
Correct
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A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?
Your Answer: Surgical ligation
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration
Explanation:Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing and creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Correct
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A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemophilia
Explanation:From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with a day's history of urticarial rash.While addressing the parents' query on the cause of the rash, what would be the most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: Individual lesions tend to last for > 24 hours and then resolve
Correct Answer: The rash may be due to a viral infection
Explanation:The most common cause of acute urticaria is a viral infection. Individual lesions typically are short-lived and last less than 24 hours. Urticaria can be due to or can be made worse by cold temperatures. One of the other causes of urticaria is salicylic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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The parents of a 5 year old child with cystic fibrosis present at the clinic with concerns over having another child. Neither of them have cystic fibrosis, and they would like to know what the chances are of their next child being a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene. What is the probability of this occurring?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that affects the lungs or the pancreas. In the case of an affected child whose parents do not have the disorder but carry one copy of the mutated gene, each sibling has a 50% chance of being a carrier of the disease. They can inherit one copy of the gene from each parent. There is a 25 % chance that the child may inherit both mutated genes and be homozygous for the trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2 days. She is lethargic and persistently crying. Urine dipstick showed leucocytes. What is the single most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: CSF analysis
Correct Answer: Urine for C&S
Explanation:The clinical presentation and leucocytes on the urine dipstick is suggestive of a urinary tract infection. To confirm the diagnosis, urine should be sent for culture and sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 11
Correct
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An 8 year old male child presents with an injury to his right brachial plexus in a motor vehicle accident. Clinical examination reveals a right shoulder weakness when it comes to abduction and flexion of the forearm. His lateral aspect of the right upper arm seems to have some sensory loss as well. All reflexes are present except for the right biceps and brachioradial ones. What is the level of brachial plexus injury?
Your Answer: C5,6 root
Explanation:Upper brachial plexus roots innervate the proximal muscles of the shoulder and the upper arm. In this particular case, only these areas are affected, suggesting that the levels of brachial plexus injury are at roots C5-C6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: Nasogastric decompression, broad spectrum antibiotics and immediate surgery for suspected intra-abdominal adhesions
Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery
Explanation:Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 13
Correct
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A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?
Your Answer: Right mainstem bronchus
Explanation:Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1-3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi; approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 15 year old girl is taken to the A&E after complaining of right iliac fossa pain which started suddenly. She is well other than having some right iliac fossa tenderness but no guarding. She has no fever and the urinary dipstick result is normal. Her last menstrual cycle was 14 days ago which was also normal and the pregnancy test done is negative. What is the most likely underlying condition?
Your Answer: Mittelschmerz
Explanation:Mittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered. Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?
Your Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years
Explanation:Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?
Your Answer: Rubella
Correct Answer: Scarlet fever
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a childhood infectious disease caused by group A Streptococcus. It produces a papular rash, which is classically described as a sand-paper rash. The rash initially appears on the trunk, groin, and underarms and then spreads to extremities, usually sparing the palms and soles. Circumoral area is also spared, giving it pallor-like appearance. Diseases like erythema multiforme, contact dermatitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, and rubella produce a rash that classically affects the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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An 8 year old male child of Afro-Caribbean descent complains of acute abdominal pain. Clinical examination reveals a soft abdomen. The boy is tachycardic and has an Hb of 6 g/dl. His mother says she noticed fresh rectal bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meckel's Diverticulum
Explanation:Compared to the rest of the options, Meckel’s diverticulum with ectopic gastric mucosa seems to be the most probable diagnosis, as it can lead to fresh bleeding.Fresh red bleeding can be caused by haemorrhoids, polyps or a massive GI bleed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?
Your Answer: Parental unemployment
Explanation:Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 9-year-old male presented in the emergency room with sudden nosebleed that started 15 minutes ago. Which management step should be taken in such a case?
Your Answer: Press soft parts of the nose
Explanation:With children nosebleeds often occur after nose picking and are benign in nature. For active bleeding, pressing of soft parts of the nose is required to stop the bleeding before doing anything else.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 22
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn't passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy was discharged from hospital after an episode of acute testicular pain.Considering he had an anatomical anomaly involving the processus vaginalis, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Incarcerated inguinal hernia
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Based on the presented clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for the patient would be testicular torsion.Rationale:The gubernaculum is the structure responsible for aiding the descent of the testicles from the abdomen into the scrotum. The processus vaginalis precedes the descent of the testes and then undergoes closure. Abnormalities such as the persistence of a patent processus vaginalis, known as bell clapper deformity, predispose to testicular torsion.Other options:- Varicocele: Nutcracker syndrome occurs where the left renal vein becomes compressed in between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. Since the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein, this results in a varicocele. – Epididymitis and mumps orchitis are differentials for acute testicular pain but are not due to a defect in the processus vaginalis. – An incarcerated inguinal hernia presents mainly with signs of bowel obstruction which are not mentioned in the clinical scenario.The descent of testes:- Until the end of foetal life, the testicles are located within the abdominal cavity. – They are initially located on the posterior abdominal wall on a level with the upper lumbar vertebrae (L2). – Attached to the inferior aspect of the testis is the gubernaculum testis which extends caudally to the inguinal region, through the canal and down to the superficial skin. – It is interesting to note that both the testis and the gubernaculum are extra-peritoneal.- As the foetus grows, the gubernaculum becomes progressively shorter. It carries the peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall (the processus vaginalis). As the processus vaginalis descends the testis is guided by the gubernaculum down the posterior abdominal wall and the back of the processus vaginalis into the scrotum.- By the third month of foetal life the testes are located in the iliac fossae, by the seventh they lie at the level of the deep inguinal ring.Usually, the processus vaginalis closes after birth but may persist predisposing to indirect hernias. On the other hand, a partial closure may result in the development of cysts on the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The mother of 6 months old girl tests positive for HIV. Doctors test her daughter as well and the results turn out to be positive for HIV, both by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and serology. The girl is clinically healthy and seems to attain normal developmental milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy immediately and await the CD4 count and percentage to decide on the need for co-trimoxazole prophylaxis
Correct Answer: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete
Explanation:Infants exposed to maternal HIV and with positive results require immediate management with co-trimoxazole prophylaxis, regardless of their CD4 levels. Antiretroviral treatment is necessary as well but it could wait until further work-up is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 25
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?
Your Answer: Jaundice
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Liddle syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 28
Correct
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What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?
Your Answer: <20
Explanation:Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years ˘ Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years ˘ Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years ˘ Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years ˘ Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 29
Correct
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A 6 month old baby presents with a sausage-shaped abdominal mass and a history of green vomit a few hours earlier. The baby was born at 38 weeks of gestation and immigrated recently form the Philippines with his parents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is the invagination of one segment of the intestine within a more distal segment. It presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and a palpable abdominal mass.Intussusception usually affects infants between 6-18 months old. Boys are affected twice as often as girls
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?
Your Answer: No repetitive babble by 8 months of age
Correct Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness
Explanation:In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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