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Question 1
Correct
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Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine. Most digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas and enter the small intestine through the pancreatic duct.Which of these digestive enzymes is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into monosaccharides?
Your Answer: Glucoamylase
Explanation:Majority of carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides (glucose, fructose galactose) and are absorbed by the small intestine. Enzymes released from the brush border break down carbohydrate. Some carbohydrates, such as cellulose, are not digested at all, despite being made of multiple glucose units. This is because the cellulose is made out of beta-glucose that makes the inter-monosaccharide bindings different from the ones present in starch, which consists of alpha-glucose. Humans lack the enzyme for splitting the beta-glucose-bond.The principal brush border enzymes are dextranase and glucoamylase. Other brush border enzymes are maltase, sucrase, and lactase.Pancreatic amylase breaks down some carbohydrates (notably starch) into oligosaccharides. Dextranase and glucoamylase, then further break down oligosaccharides.Trypsin aids in digestion of protein.Chymotrypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that digests proteinCarboxypeptidase hydrolyses the first peptide or amide bond at the carboxyl or C-terminal end of proteins and peptides
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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The resting membrane potential of a neurone is usually about:
Your Answer: -90 mV
Correct Answer: -70 mV
Explanation:In most neurones the resting potential has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response; because the size of the action potential is constant, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. Repolarisation occurs primarily due to K+efflux.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the main mechanism of action of flecainide:
Your Answer: Blocks Na+ channels
Explanation:Flecainide inhibits the transmembrane influx of extracellular Na+ ions via fast channels on cardiac tissues resulting in a decrease in rate of depolarisation of the action potential, prolonging the PR and QRS intervals. At high concentrations, it exerts inhibitory effects on slow Ca2+ channels, accompanied by moderate negative inotropic effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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In the foetus at 4 months gestation, where does haematopoiesis mainly occur?
Your Answer: Liver and spleen
Explanation:The first place that haematopoiesis occurs in the foetus is in the yolk sac. Later on, it occurs in the liver and spleen, which are the major hematopoietic organs from about 6 weeks until 6 – 7 months gestation. At this point, the bone marrow becomes the most important site. Haemopoiesis is restricted to the bone marrow in normal childhood and adult life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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The following structures all lie anteriorly to the oesophagus EXCEPT for the:
Your Answer: Thoracic duct
Explanation:Posterior to the oesophagus, the thoracic duct is on the right side inferiorly but crosses to the left more superiorly (at T5).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 6
Correct
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In relation to ketamine, which of the following statements is TRUE:
Your Answer: It is usually associated with tachycardia, increased blood pressure and increased cardiac output.
Explanation:Ketamine has hypnotic, analgesic and local anaesthetic properties. Major adverse effects include Hypertension, Increased cardiac output, Increased ICP, Tachycardia, Tonic-clonic movements, Visual hallucinations and Vivid dreams.Ketamine is mostly utilized in paediatric anaesthesia, especially when repeated dosing is necessary (such as for serial burns dressings). Ketamine has little effect on respiratory drive, and protective airway reflexes are unaffected. Ketamine is also a bronchial smooth muscle relaxant, hence it plays a unique function in the treatment of severe asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following best characterizes the correct administration of amiodarone for a shockable rhythm in adults on advanced life support:
Your Answer: Give 300 mg IV amiodarone after 3 shocks, and then every 3 - 5 minutes thereafter
Correct Answer: Give 300 mg IV amiodarone after 3 shocks
Explanation:After three shocks, 300 mg IV amiodarone should be administered. After five defibrillation attempts, a further dose of 150 mg IV amiodarone may be considered. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine may be used as a substitute, but it should not be given if amiodarone has previously been administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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You examine a patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart failure. You discuss his care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who recommends switching him from furosemide to bumetanide at an equivalent dose. He's on 80 mg of furosemide once a day right now.What is the recommended dose of bumetanide?
Your Answer: 2 mg
Explanation:Bumetanide is 40 times more powerful than furosemide, and one milligram is roughly equivalent to 40 milligrams of furosemide. This patient is currently taking 80 mg of furosemide and should be switched to a 2 mg bumetanide once daily.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE:
Your Answer: Aplastic crisis is classically precipitated by cytomegalovirus.
Correct Answer: Hand-foot syndrome is frequently a first presentation of the disease.
Explanation:Hand-foot syndrome in children is typically the first symptom of the disease, produced by infarction of the metaphysis of small bones. The disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. By adulthood, the spleen has usually infarcted. Infection with the B19 parvovirus is usually followed by an aplastic crisis. Thrombocytopenia is caused by splenic sequestration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 82 year old man has fever, left sided abdominal and back pain and presents to the emergency room. Imaging reveals a large perinephric abscess. Which of the following most likely describes the fluid location:
Your Answer: Between the renal cortex and the renal capsule
Correct Answer: Between the renal capsule and the renal fascia
Explanation:The perinephric fat is immediately external to the renal capsule and completely surrounds the kidney. The renal fascia surrounds the perinephric fat and the paranephric fat is external to the renal fascia. The location of a perinephric abscess is in the perinephric fat between the renal capsule and the renal fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms, the results are shown below:TSH = 5.2Free T4 is normalFree T3 is normalThe most likely diagnosis in this patient is?
Your Answer: Tertiary hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism
Explanation:Hypothyroidism is diagnosed using the results of thyroid function tests (TFTs). In the early stages of the disease, the earliest biochemical change noticed is a rise in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. Free triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are usually normal.In primary hypothyroidism, the serum TSH level is usually greater than 10 mU/L, and free T4 levels are below the reference range.Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when the serum TSH level is above the reference range, and the free T4 levels are within the reference range. The test should, however, be repeated after 3-6 months to exclude transient causes of raised TSH.In summary, how to interpret TFTs in cases of suspected hypothyroidism is shown below:Subclinical hypothyroidismTSH is raisedFree T4 is normalFree T3 is normalPrimary hypothyroidismTSH is raisedFree T4 is loweredFree T3 is lowered or normalSecondary hypothyroidismTSH is lowered or normalFree T4 is loweredFree T3 is lowered or normal
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical lymph nodes are discovered during your examination. You arrange for some blood tests, and the results reveal that he has lymphocytosis with a count of 16 x 10 9 /l.In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of relatively mature lymphocytes clonally proliferating. The B-cell lineage accounts for approximately 95% of cases. CLL is primarily a disease of adult men, with men over the age of 50 accounting for more than 75% of CLL patients.It is the most indolent form of chronic leukaemia, and it is frequently discovered by chance when blood counts are taken for other reasons, such as ‘well man’ screening tests. The patient may develop lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, and infections as the disease progresses.The following are examples of CLL laboratory findings:Clonal B cell lymphocytosis (diagnosed at greater than 5 x 109/l, but can reach 300 x 109/l)In advanced disease, normocytic, normochromic anaemia is present.Patients with autoimmune-related haemolytic anaemias have a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT).Although bone marrow aspiration is not always required, it can aid in the diagnosis of CLL. If there has been rapid lymph node enlargement, a lymph node biopsy is required to rule out Richter’s syndrome. This is the transition from low-grade lymphoma to high-grade lymphoma, which is characterised by fever, weight loss, and pain.Although there is no cure for CLL, it can be managed with chemotherapy regimens that help patients live longer. Early treatment has no benefit, and the standard treatment for early disease is to watch and wait, with examinations and blood counts every 3 to 12 months. Chemotherapy is usually reserved for patients who have a disease that is active and causing symptoms.The following is the overall prognosis for CLL:1/3 will not require treatment and will live a long time.1/3 will go through an indolent phase before the disease progresses.1/3 of patients will have an aggressive disease that requires immediate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following data types does a pain-scoring system represent?
Your Answer: Ordinal
Explanation:Pain scoring systems are processes for assessing pain and the severity of illnesses that have been scientifically designed and tested. An example of ordinal categorical data is a pain scoring system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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After an accidental fall, a 75-year-old patient complains of neck pain and weakness in his upper limbs. Select the condition that most likely caused the neck pain and weakness of the upper limbs of the patient.
Your Answer: Anterior cord syndrome
Correct Answer: Central cord syndrome
Explanation:The cervical spinal cord is the section of the spinal cord that goes through the bones of the neck. It is injured incompletely in the central cord syndrome (CCS). This will result in arm weakness more than leg weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 33 year old female patient presents to emergency room with some symptoms that she thinks might be due to a drug that she has recently started. She was started on hyoscine butyl bromide for symptomatic relief of irritable bowel syndrome. The least likely expected side effect of this drug in this patient is:
Your Answer: Dry mouth
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:One of the commonest antispasmodic medications that is used is hyoscine butylbromide. It is an antimuscarinic and typical side effects of this class of drugs include:- dilation of pupils with loss of accommodation (cycloplegia) -photophobia resulting in blurred vision (Blind as a bat) -dry mouth, eyes and skin (Dry as a bone), -elevated temperature (Hot as a hare)-skin flushing (Red as a beet)-confusion or agitation particularly in the elderly (Mad as a hatter)-reduced bronchial secretions-transient bradycardia followed by tachycardia, palpitation and arrhythmias-urinary retention and/or constipation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 26 year old male presents to emergency room with a 2 day history of burning pain when passing urine, accompanied by a green urethral discharge. Gonorrhoea is suspected. The first line antibiotic for this condition is which of the following?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:When there is a high suspicion of gonorrhoea from clinical features, empiric treatment should be commenced whilst waiting for laboratory confirmation. The first line treatment for uncomplicated anogenital and pharyngeal disease includes ceftriaxone 500 mg IM (single dose) + azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose. This covers concomitant chlamydia infection. For all people who have been treated for gonorrhoea, a test of cure is recommended
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a cohort study used to investigate the relationship between exposure to a risk factor and a future outcome:
Your Answer: Can measure absolute and relative risk directly
Correct Answer: Particularly suitable for rare diseases
Explanation:Advantages: ideal for studying associations between an exposure and an outcome when the exposure is uncommon, the time sequence of events can be assessed, they can provide information on a wide range of disease outcomes, the absolute and relative risk of disease can be measured directly, they can give a direct estimation of disease incidence ratesDisadvantages: costly and can take long periods of time if the outcome is delayed, subject to subject-selection and loss to follow-up bias, large sample size required for rare outcome of interest so it is not useful for rare diseases, prone to confounding
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Study Methodology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due to facial oedema. Her lab workup shows proteinuria of 7 g/24 hours and serum albumin levels of 15 g/L. A diagnosis of Nephrotic Syndrome is made, and corticosteroid therapy is initiated. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in this patient?
Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in the paediatric population. It may be caused by NSAID use. Electron microscopy shows the fusion of foot processes while light microscopy will appear normal.Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis causes Nephrotic Syndrome in adults. It is associated with Heroin use and HIV infection. There is a limited response to steroids, and the disease progresses to end-stage renal failure in 5-10 years.Diabetic nephropathy occurs after a long period of diabetes due to the deposition of amyloid protein leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration. There is no history of Hepatitis B in this patient and no symptoms of liver disease such as jaundice. Membranous glomerulonephritis would present with features of Nephritic Syndrome. These would be oedema, haematuria; red blood cell casts in the urine and hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man presents with an acute episode of gout. He has a history of chronic heart failure and hypertension. His current medications include ramipril and furosemide.Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of gout is true? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Febuxostat is an effective treatment for acute gout
Correct Answer: Colchicine has a role in prophylactic treatment
Explanation:In the absence of any contra-indications, high-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is a commonly used and effective regime.Aspirin should not be used in gout as it reduces the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, Diclofenac or Indomethacin are more appropriate choices.Allopurinol is used prophylactically, preventing future attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. It should not be started in the acute phase as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms.Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks. It also has a role in prophylactic treatment if Allopurinol is not tolerated.NSAIDs are contra-indicated in heart failure as they can cause fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. Colchicine is the preferred treatment in patients with heart failure or those who are intolerant of NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent:
Your Answer: V
Explanation:Fat-soluble vitamin K is obtained from green vegetables and bacterial synthesis in the gut. Deficiency may present in the newborn (haemorrhagic disease of the newborn) or in later life. Deficiency may be caused by an inadequate diet, malabsorption or inhibition of vitamin K by drugs such as warfarin. The activity of factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K dependent as well as that of protein C and protein S. Both PT and APTT are prolonged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 25-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a traffic accident. Upon examination, there was tenderness and erythema on the right acromioclavicular joint, with notable step deformity. On radiographic imaging, there is a superior elevation of the clavicle, a twice than normal coracoclavicular distance, and absence of fracture.Which of the following structure/s is/are likely to have ruptured?
Your Answer: Acromioclavicular ligament, coracoclavicular ligament and joint capsule
Explanation:Acromioclavicular joint injuries account for more than forty percent of all shoulder injuries. Mild injuries are not associated with any significant morbidity, but severe injuries can lead to significant loss of strength and function of the shoulder. Acromioclavicular injuries may be associated with a fractured clavicle, impingement syndromes, and more rarely neurovascular insults.The AC joint is a diarthrodial joint defined by the lateral process of the clavicle articulating with the acromion process as it projects anteriorly off the scapula. The joint is primarily stabilized by the acromioclavicular ligament, which is composed of an anterior, posterior, inferior, and superior component. Of note, the superior portion of the AC ligament is the most important component for the stability of the AC joint. Supporting structures include two coracoclavicular ligaments (trapezoid and conoid ligaments), which provide vertical stability, as well as the coracoacromial ligament.Patients with an AC joint injury typically present with anterosuperior shoulder pain and will describe a mechanism of injury of blunt trauma to the abducted shoulder or landing on an outstretched arm, suggestive of this type of injury. They may describe pain radiating to the neck or shoulder, which is often worse with movement or when they try to sleep on the affected shoulder. On examination, the clinician may observe swelling, bruising, or a deformity of the AC joint, depending on the degree of injury. The patient will be tender at that location. They may have a restriction in the active and passive range of motion secondary to pain. Piano key sign may be seen, with an elevation of the clavicle that rebounds after inferior compression.Standard X-rays are adequate to make a diagnosis of acromioclavicular joint injury and should be used to evaluate for other causes of traumatic shoulder pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 22
Correct
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A 30-year-old man present to the ED with abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. It has been present for the past two days.Which of the following statements regarding diarrhoea and vomiting is true?
Your Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure
Explanation:Escherichia coli strain 0157 causes enterohaemorrhagic diarrhoea and can lead to renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia.Norwalk virus is an RNA virus.Although transmission of rotavirus is primarily through the faeco-oral route, airborne spread has been seen in some cases.Cryptosporidium are protozoa with acid fast walls and are resistant to both chlorine treatment and conventional filtering methods. There is no therapy effective in treating cryptosporidium diarrhoea as the protozoa is not susceptible to antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the partial pressure of oxygen if it makes up 20.9 percent of the ambient air composition and the atmospheric pressure of ambient air is 760 mmHg?
Your Answer: 300 mmHg
Correct Answer: 159 mmHg
Explanation:Ambient air is atmospheric air in its natural state. Ambient air is typically 78.6% nitrogen and 20.9% oxygen. The extra 1% is made up of carbon, helium, methane, argon and hydrogen. The partial pressure of any gas can be calculated using this formula: P = atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) x percent content in the mixture. Atmospheric pressure is the sum of all of the partial pressures of the atmospheric gases added together: The formula for atmospheric pressure is: Patm = PN2 + PO2 + PH2O + PCO2. The atmospheric pressure is known to be 760 mmHg. The partial pressures of the various gases can be estimated to have partial pressures of approximately 597.4 mmHg for nitrogen, 158.8 mm Hg for oxygen, and 7.6 mmHg for argon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections:
Your Answer: Toxin A
Correct Answer: Pili
Explanation:Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection. Uropathic strains are characterised by pili with adhesion proteins that bind to specific receptors on the urinary tract epithelium. The motility of E. coli aids its ability to ascend the urethra into the bladder or ascend the ureter into the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Aldin is a 24-year-old male patient who arrives at the emergency department diagnosed with psittacosis based on his symptoms and history of being a pigeon enthusiast. Which of the following is the causative bacteria of psittacosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia psittaci
Explanation:Chlamydia psittaci is a microorganism that is commonly found in birds. These bacteria can infect people and cause psittacosis. Psittacosis is an infectious disease that may cause high fever and pneumonia associated with headaches, altered mental state, and hepatosplenomegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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All of the following are indications for beta-blockers EXCEPT for:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raynaud's disease
Explanation:Beta-blockers are contraindicated in Raynaud’s syndrome. Beta-blockers may be indicated in:HypertensionPheochromocytoma (only with an alpha-blocker)AnginaSecondary prevention after ACSArrhythmias including atrial fibrillationHeart failureThyrotoxicosisAnxietyProphylaxis of migraineEssential tremorGlaucoma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy to get medication to help with mild dyspepsia symptoms. The pharmacist on duty suggests she uses an over-the-counter antacid. She purchases an antacid that contains magnesium carbonate, which relieves her symptoms, but she unfortunately also develops a side effect.Out of the following, which side effect is she MOST likely to develop after using the antacid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Magnesium carbonate is an over the counter antacid commonly used to relieve symptoms in ulcer dyspepsia and non-erosive gastro-oesophageal reflux.Antacids containing magnesium also tend to work as a laxative, while the antacids with aluminium may cause constipation. There is no significant increased risk of anaphylaxis, hepatotoxicity or renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A p value < 0.05 obtained from a study with a significance level (α) of 0.05, means all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: the result is clinically significant.
Explanation:A p value < 0.05:is statistically significantmeans that the probability of obtaining a given result by chance is less than 1 in 20means the null hypothesis is rejectedmeans there is evidence of an association between a variable and an outcomeNote that this does not tell us whether the result is clinically significant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding Gaussian sample distribution, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be skewed left or right
Explanation:Gaussian distribution, also known as normal distribution, is the most important probability distribution in statistics because it fits many natural phenomena. The normal distribution is a probability function that describes how the values of a variable are distributed. Below are its characteristics:(1) Bell-shaped and symmetrical about the mean(2) The mean, median, mode are all equal(3) The total area under the curve and above the x-axis is equal to 1(4) It has long tapering tails extending infinitely but never touching the x-axis(5) It is determined by its parameters: its mean and standard deviation(6) The standard deviation becomes a more meaningful quality than merely being a measure of dispersionThe mean is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation, and is also known as the ‘average’.The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers.The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is commonly used in public health statistics, such as the top 10 causes of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with chronic breathlessness is sent for a lung function test.Which statement concerning lung function testing is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In restrictive lung disease, the FEV 1 /FVC ratio is usually >0.7
Explanation:In restrictive lung disease, the FEV1/FVC ratio is usually >0.7%.In obstructive lung disease, FEV1 is reduced to <80% of normal and FVC is usually reduced. The FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced to 80% in the presence of symptomsModerate airflow obstruction = FEV 1 of 50-79%Severe airflow obstruction = FEV 1 of 30-49%Very severe airflow obstruction = FEV1<30%.Spirometry is a poor predictor of quality of life in COPD. However, it can be used as part of the assessment of severity of COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
