00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental...

    Correct

    • You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental state examination on one of the patients on the inpatient psychiatry ward, a 22-year-old man who was admitted 2 days ago.

      Whenever you ask him a question, you notice that he repeats the question back to you. You notice that he is also repeating some of the phrases you use.

      What form of thought disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the questions being asked. Clang association is when someone uses words that rhyme with each other or sound similar. Neologism is the formation of new words. Perseveration is when ideas or words are repeated several times.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A medical registrar is obtaining consent from a 42-year-old patient with longstanding ulcerative...

    Correct

    • A medical registrar is obtaining consent from a 42-year-old patient with longstanding ulcerative colitis who is listed for a surveillance colonoscopy that afternoon.
      Regarding consent, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic privilege can allow you to withhold information from a patient in certain, very specific situations

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic privilege allows doctors to withhold information from patients in certain situations where disclosure could cause serious harm or if the patient is not emotionally stable enough to handle the information. It is important to discuss these situations with senior colleagues and document the reasons for withholding information. Contrary to popular belief, patients should be informed of common and serious complications of treatment, regardless of the likelihood of occurrence. A signed consent form does not protect doctors from negligence claims, as they have a duty of care to inform patients. In emergency situations, such as an appendectomy for a child, consent may not be required, but it is still preferable to discuss the case with all parties involved. Patients who are heavily intoxicated may not have the capacity to refuse life-saving treatment, and it is necessary to wait until they are sober to discuss treatment options or proceed with urgent treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What are the potential side effects of thiazide diuretics that one should be...

    Correct

    • What are the potential side effects of thiazide diuretics that one should be aware of?

      Your Answer: All of the below

      Explanation:

      Thiazide Diuretics for Hypertension Treatment

      Thiazide diuretics are commonly used as the first line or additional agents in treating hypertension. They are effective in reducing the cardiovascular complications of hypertension and have been found to be as effective as newer antihypertensive agents in reversing target organ damage, such as left ventricular hypertrophy. However, thiazide diuretics may cause unwanted effects, including glucose intolerance, hypokalaemia, a 1% increase in cholesterol, gout, and impotence. These unwanted effects can be minimized by administering low doses of thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide at 2.5 mg per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are summoned to the ward by nursing staff to assess a 79-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the ward by nursing staff to assess a 79-year-old man who has been admitted with acute urinary retention. Despite a well-functioning catheter, he is experiencing pain in his penis. Upon examination, his abdomen appears normal, but his penis is swollen with a tight constricting band located just proximal to the glans penis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paraphimosis

      Explanation:

      Common Urological Conditions

      Paraphimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be pulled forward over the glans penis after it has been retracted. This can occur after urinary catheterisation and may require a dorsal slit procedure to reduce the paraphimosis. If left untreated, a circumcision may be necessary. Catheter trauma can cause haematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. Hypospadias is a congenital abnormality where the urethral meatus is abnormally placed. Peyronie’s disease is a condition where the penis has an abnormal curvature. Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these conditions are present to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists in the Emergency Department, but he is not short of breath. There is no past medical history of note. Observations are recorded:
      temperature 36.6 °C
      heart rate (HR) 90 bpm
      blood pressure (BP) 115/80 mmHg
      respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/minute
      oxygen saturation (SaO2) 99%.
      A chest X-ray reveals a 1.5 cm sliver of air in the pleural space of the right lung.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Consider prescribing analgesia and discharge home with information and advice

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Primary Pneumothorax

      Primary pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Here are some management options for primary pneumothorax:

      Prescribe analgesia and discharge home with information and advice: This option can be considered if the patient is not breathless and has only a small defect. The patient can be discharged with pain relief medication and given information and advice on how to manage the condition at home.

      Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation: This option is not indicated for a patient with primary pneumothorax, as a trial of salbutamol is not effective in treating this condition.

      Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe: This option should only be attempted if the patient has a rim of air of >2 cm on the chest X-ray or is breathless. Aspiration can be attempted twice at a maximum, after which a chest drain should be inserted.

      Insert a chest drain: This option should be done if the second attempt of aspiration is unsuccessful. Once air has stopped leaking, the drain should be left in for a further 24 hours prior to removal and discharge.

      Insert a 16G cannula into the second intercostal space: This option is used for tension pneumothoraces and is not indicated for primary pneumothorax.

      In conclusion, the management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. It is important to choose the appropriate management option to ensure the best outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of lower back pain, constipation, headaches, low...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of lower back pain, constipation, headaches, low mood, and difficulty concentrating. Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia, which is indicated by the presented signs and symptoms, can be a result of long-term use of lithium. The mnemonic ‘stones, bones, abdominal moans, and psychic groans’ can be used to identify the symptoms. The development of hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia is believed to be caused by lithium’s effect on calcium homeostasis, leading to parathyroid hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, a U&Es and PTH test can be conducted. Unlike lithium, other psychotropic medications are not associated with the development of hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcaemia.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct?

      Your Answer: Following delivery, the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage should be calculated on a blood sample from a D negative mother

      Explanation:

      Important Points to Remember about Fetomaternal Haemorrhage

      Following the delivery of a baby, it is crucial to determine the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) in a D negative mother. This is done by analyzing a blood sample to adjust the dose of anti-D in the mother if she has delivered a D positive child. It is important to note that D positive and D negative women have the same likelihood of developing antibodies to other red cell antigens. Therefore, all pregnant women should undergo a blood group and antibody screen in their first trimester or at the time of presentation, whichever comes first. The fetal Rh type is determined by the Rh typing of both the mother and father. Additionally, maternal antibody titres are indicative of the degree of haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). For more information on the management of women with red cell antibodies during pregnancy, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) Green-top Guideline No. 65.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP to extract a common bile duct stone discovered during an episode of biliary colic.
      What is the primary medical condition for which ERCP would be the most beneficial diagnostic procedure?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic duct strictures

      Explanation:

      ERCP and its Indications for Diagnosis and Management of Pancreatic Duct Strictures

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used for imaging the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts. It involves the injection of contrast to outline the ducts, allowing for visual inspection of the ampullary region of the pancreas and outlining of the pancreatic duct. ERCP is helpful in identifying stones, strictures, and tumors that cause obstruction, as well as for therapeutic interventions such as stone extraction or stent insertion.

      ERCP is indicated for patients with evidence or suspicion of obstructive jaundice, biliary/pancreatic duct disease, pancreatic cancer, pancreatitis of unknown origin, pancreatic pseudocysts, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and for therapeutic drainage. However, ERCP is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of alcoholic cirrhosis or hereditary hemochromatosis. Diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis can generally be based on clinical and laboratory findings, while liver biopsy can be used to confirm diagnosis if the cause is unclear. Gilbert syndrome, a mild self-limiting condition that causes pre-hepatic jaundice, does not require ERCP for diagnosis. Although ERCP may be used in the therapeutic management of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma with obstructive jaundice, it is not useful in the diagnosis of the condition itself.

      In conclusion, ERCP is a valuable tool for the diagnosis and management of pancreatic duct strictures, but its indications should be carefully considered in each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever, and sharp pain on the right side of her chest that worsens during inspiration. She also reports experiencing occasional joint pain in her hands for the past four months. During the physical examination, mild erythema is observed over her cheeks. What is the most sensitive investigation for this condition?

      Your Answer: ANA

      Explanation:

      Raised titre levels of Antistreptolysin O may indicate recent streptococcal infection or rheumatic fever.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old male with a history of agoraphobia for the past 3 months...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male with a history of agoraphobia for the past 3 months presents for a telemedicine consultation to discuss his current issues. He reports feeling unable to leave his home due to a fear of contamination and illness. He explains that he feels the outside world is too dirty and that he will become sick and die if he leaves his house. He also reports washing his hands six times with soap and water after touching anything, which has resulted in his hands becoming dry, cracked, and erythematosus. He has lost his job as a result of missing deadlines and not being able to complete his work due to his compulsive hand washing behavior. Despite his awareness of the negative impact of his behavior, he feels unable to stop himself from washing his hands exactly six times every time.

      During the telemedicine consultation, his mental state examination is unremarkable. However, upon requesting to see his hands over the video conversation, it is noted that they appear dry, cracked, and erythematosus.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Correct Answer: SSRI and CBT (including ERP)

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed