00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening back pain and stiffness over the past 5 months. He denies experiencing leg pain, loss of bladder or bowel control, or weakness in his lower extremities. The patient reports that the stiffness in his back tends to improve throughout the day. Upon examination, the physician notes mild tenderness directly over the lumbar spine and decreased range of motion with hip flexion. The patient has normal muscle strength in his lower extremities and intact sensation. X-ray results reveal sacroiliitis, vertebral squaring, and a ‘bamboo spine’. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Positive human leukocyte antigen HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Ankylosing Spondylitis, SLE, and Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms. However, certain laboratory tests can help differentiate between them.

      One such test is the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, which is associated with ankylosing spondylitis. This autoimmune disorder primarily affects men and is characterized by back stiffness that improves throughout the day, sacroiliitis, and a bamboo spine on radiography.

      On the other hand, positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Patients with SLE may experience joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.

      Lastly, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, and can lead to joint deformities if left untreated.

      In summary, understanding the specific laboratory tests associated with different autoimmune disorders can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing a red rash on her face for 6-12 months and is now having joint pain in multiple areas. She also reports having chest pain that feels like it's coming from the lining of her lungs. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg, and she has a butterfly-shaped rash on her face.

      The following tests were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin: 119 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 4.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
      - Platelets: 192 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine: 160 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr (normal range: 0-10mm in the 1st hour)
      - Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): positive
      - Urine: blood and protein present

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Systemic Lupus Erythematosus from Other Connective Tissue Diseases

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can present with a variety of symptoms. Patients may experience pleuritic chest pain, arthralgia, and a typical rash, which are all indicative of SLE. Anti-nuclear antibodies are typically positive, although they are not specific to lupus. Treatment for SLE involves glucocorticoids as the mainstay, with second-line agents including cyclophosphamide, hydroxychloroquine, and azathioprine. BLyS inhibitors are also showing promise in clinical trials.

      Other connective tissue diseases, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease, have distinct features that differentiate them from SLE. GPA is a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs, with palpable purpura on the extremities. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with joint pain and swelling, but without a butterfly rash or hypertension. Systemic sclerosis affects the skin on the face, forearms, and lower legs, with Raynaud’s, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Mixed connective tissue disease has features of SLE, but without any other connective tissue disease symptoms.

      It is important to differentiate between these diseases to provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with a ‘flare’. She is a familiar patient to the ward and has previously been prescribed methotrexate, gold and sulphasalazine. The last two medications were effective for the first two years but then became less helpful even at higher doses. She is currently taking oral steroids.
      On examination: there is active synovitis in eight small joints of the hands and the left wrist.
      What is the most appropriate next course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Use methotrexate/leflunomide combination

      Correct Answer: Enrol in biological therapy programme

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Severe Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Severe rheumatoid arthritis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief. In such cases, biological therapies may be recommended. Here are some treatment options for severe rheumatoid arthritis:

      Enrol in Biological Therapy Programme
      Patients with highly active disease despite trying three previous agents for a therapeutic treatment duration may be candidates for biological treatments. TNF-alpha inhibitors and anti-CD20 are examples of biological treatments that are routinely used in the UK.

      Maintain on Steroids and Add a Bisphosphonate
      Short-term treatment with glucocorticoids may be offered to manage flares in people with recent-onset or established disease. However, long-term treatment with glucocorticoids should only be continued when the long-term complications of glucocorticoid therapy have been fully discussed and all other treatment options have been offered.

      Commence Leflunomide
      Severe disease that has not responded to intensive therapy with a combination of conventional DMARDs should be treated with biological agents. Leflunomide is one of the DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.

      Use Methotrexate/Leflunomide Combination
      Patients who have not responded to intensive DMARD therapy may be prescribed a biological agent, as per NICE guidelines. Methotrexate and leflunomide are two DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.

      Avoid Commencing Penicillamine
      DMARD monotherapy is only recommended if combination DMARD therapy is not appropriate. Patients without contraindications to combination therapy should not be prescribed penicillamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a swollen and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a swollen and painful first metatarsophalangeal joint that has been bothering him for a week. He reports that the pain became unbearable last night. The patient denies any fever or toe injuries. Upon examination, the joint appears red, swollen, and warm to touch. The patient has a history of gout, peptic ulcer, and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg once a day for gout prophylaxis. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine

      Explanation:

      Managing Gout Attacks in Patients on Allopurinol: Options and Considerations

      When a patient on allopurinol develops a gout attack, it is important to manage the acute inflammation while continuing the prophylactic treatment. Here are some options and considerations:

      – Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine: Colchicine can be used for acute treatment, but allopurinol should not be stopped.
      – Increase allopurinol dose: The dose may need to be increased up to 600 mg for better prophylaxis, but not during an acute attack.
      – Stop allopurinol and recommence two weeks after acute inflammation settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. It should be continued at the same dose.
      – Stop allopurinol and start non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): NSAIDs can control acute pain, but not appropriate for patients with a history of peptic ulcer.
      – Stop allopurinol and recommence at a higher dose after acute inflammation has settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. The dose can be reviewed and increased after the attack has settled down.

      In summary, managing gout attacks in patients on allopurinol requires a careful balance between acute treatment and prophylaxis. Each option should be considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains, particularly in the shoulders and hands. She has been absent from work for the past 5 months due to her symptoms. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Despite a brief course of steroids and anti-inflammatory medication, she has not experienced any improvement. Physical examination reveals multiple tender points in different muscle groups, but no evidence of joint disease. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fibromyalgia and Differential Diagnosis

      Fibromyalgia is a functional condition that affects voluntary muscles, commonly presenting in females aged 20-40 years. It is characterized by multiple trigger points over soft tissues in the neck, intrascapular region, and spine, along with poor sleep patterns and fatigue. While there is no known cure, patients are encouraged to establish a regular sleep pattern and participate in a graded exercise program. Differential diagnosis is important to exclude other rheumatological conditions that may present similarly but have different treatment options. Polymyalgia rheumatica, polymyositis, hypothyroidism, and systemic lupus erythematosus are some of the conditions that need to be ruled out. Steroids are the mainstay of treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica, while hypothyroidism presents with different symptoms such as constipation, dry hair, and weight gain. Systemic lupus erythematosus typically presents with a butterfly rash over the face and other symptoms such as anaemia, pleuritic chest pain, and haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      109.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower back, calves and neck. He takes regular paracetamol but this has not helped his symptoms. For the past four weeks, he has become increasingly agitated and reports that he can no longer sleep for more than a few hours because the pain wakes him up. He feels increasingly lethargic and helpless. He also reports that as a result of his pain, he feels that his memory has worsened and he reports a low mood. A Kessler Psychological Distress Scale screening questionnaire is performed and he has a score of 30. His laboratory blood tests are unremarkable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Treatments for Fibromyalgia Pain: Choosing the Right Option

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that can be challenging to manage. Duloxetine, pregabalin, and tramadol are all appropriate pharmacological treatments for severe pain disturbance in fibromyalgia. However, the choice of which treatment to use depends on the patient’s co-morbidities, clinical presentation, and patient preference.

      In this case, the patient has comorbid low mood and possible depression, making duloxetine a reasonable choice. Venlafaxine, another serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be theoretically useful, but there is insufficient evidence for its use. Codeine and paracetamol have been shown to be ineffective in treating fibromyalgia pain.

      While psychotherapy may be considered for patients with pain-related depression and adverse coping mechanisms, it is not the correct answer for this patient. Overall, choosing the right pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Correct

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules

      Heberden’s nodules are bony growths that form around the joints at the end of the fingers. These nodules are most commonly found on the second and third fingers and are caused by calcification of the cartilage in the joint. This condition is often associated with osteoarthritis and is more common in women. Heberden’s nodules typically develop in middle age.

      Overall, Heberden’s nodules can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for those who experience them. However, the causes and symptoms of this condition can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms effectively. With proper care and attention, it is possible to minimize the impact of Heberden’s nodules on daily life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has noticed hair loss, a rash on her face, and mouth ulcers. Additionally, she has been experiencing joint pain and has been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen to manage it. This is her second visit to the clinic, and the registrar has already sent off some immunology tests. The results show a positive dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects young women. It is caused by the deposition of immune complexes and can have a wide range of clinical effects, including a butterfly-shaped rash on the cheeks and nose, joint pain, and involvement of multiple organ systems such as the kidneys, lungs, and heart. SLE is associated with the presence of ANA and dsDNA antibodies, as well as low levels of C3 and C4 in the blood.

      Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a syndrome that shares features with several other rheumatological conditions, including SLE, scleroderma, myositis, and rheumatoid arthritis. Common symptoms include fatigue, joint pain, pulmonary involvement, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. MCTD is strongly associated with anti-RNP antibodies.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory arthritis that typically affects middle-aged women and causes symmetrical joint pain and stiffness, particularly in the hands and feet. If left untreated, it can lead to deformities that affect function. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with the presence of autoantibodies such as rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP.

      Polymyositis is an autoimmune myositis that causes weakness and loss of muscle mass, particularly in the proximal muscles. Other symptoms may include malaise and difficulty swallowing. Polymyositis is associated with anti-Jo1 autoantibodies.

      Systemic sclerosis, also known as diffuse scleroderma, is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects women aged 30-50. It causes collagen accumulation, leading to thickening of the skin and vasculitis affecting small arteries. Systemic sclerosis can affect multiple organ systems, including the skin, lungs, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. It is associated with anti-Scl70 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is struggling to weight-bear. She completed therapy for acute myeloblastic leukaemia some six months earlier.
      On examination, she walks with a limp and there is limitation of hip flexion, internal and external rotation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 191 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 12 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      The left hip X-ray shows joint sclerosis with collapse of the femoral head.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avascular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritis Types: Avascular Necrosis, Gout, Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, and Septic Arthritis

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. However, there are different types of arthritis, each with its own causes, symptoms, and treatments. Here are some key points to differentiate between avascular necrosis, gout, osteoarthritis, pseudogout, and septic arthritis:

      Avascular necrosis is a condition where the bone tissue dies due to a lack of blood supply. It can be caused by corticosteroid use, malignancy, or trauma. Femoral head collapse is a classic radiographic change in avascular necrosis.

      Gout is a type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints, such as the big toe, ankle, or knee. It is caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint, leading to sudden attacks of pain, redness, and swelling.

      Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs when the cartilage that cushions the joints wears down over time. It is more common in older adults and can affect any joint, but femoral head collapse does not occur in osteoarthritis.

      Pseudogout is another type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints. It is caused by the buildup of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint, leading to similar symptoms as gout.

      Septic arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint that can cause severe pain, swelling, and fever. It is a medical emergency and requires prompt treatment with antibiotics. While septic arthritis should always be considered in a monoarthritis, it is less likely in cases where there are classic radiographic changes of avascular necrosis, risk factors, and a normal CRP without history of fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      46.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (7/10) 70%
Passmed