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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder for several years reports experiencing fatigue, increased weight, and feeling cold. Which psychotropic medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is well-known for causing various thyroid disorders, including hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A concerned couple brings their 45-year-old daughter to her primary care physician due to her unusual behavior. What symptoms would indicate a diagnosis other than schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations
Correct Answer: Early morning waking
Explanation:Severe depression is often characterized by early morning awakening, while schizophrenia is typically marked by primary delusions, thought withdrawal, ideas of reference, and auditory hallucinations (usually in the third person).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an instance of tertiary intervention?
Your Answer: Smoking cessation
Correct Answer: Rehabilitation
Explanation:The prevention of a disease can be divided into three levels: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Tertiary prevention focuses on minimizing the effects of an existing disease and helping individuals achieve their optimal level of functioning. Primary prevention involves implementing broad changes to decrease the overall risk of a disease in a population, such as promoting healthy nutrition, positive parenting, and smoking cessation. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention through screening programs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A client is referred with depression and is eager to begin medication. You find out that they have hypertension. What would be the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Antidepressants and Diabetes
Depression is a prevalent condition among patients with diabetes. It is crucial to select the appropriate antidepressant as some may have negative effects on weight and glucose levels. The first-line treatment for depression in diabetic patients is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), with fluoxetine having the most supporting data. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are also likely to be safe, but there is less evidence to support their use. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should be avoided. These recommendations are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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At what Tanner stage does menarche typically occur?
Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:Puberty
Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the term used to describe learning that occurs as a result of the consequences of behaviours?
Your Answer: Operant conditioning
Explanation:Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic is least likely to result in orthostatic hypotension?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Asenapine
Explanation:According to the 13th edition of Maudsley, asenapine and lurasidone are associated with the lowest risk.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the human subject's voluntary consent in research?
Your Answer: The code of the World Health Organisation
Correct Answer: The Nuremberg code
Explanation:The Nuremberg Code and its Significance in Medical Ethics
The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical guidelines that resulted from the trial of German physicians accused of war crimes and crimes against humanity in 1946. The physicians were charged with conducting medical experiments on concentration camp prisoners without their consent. This led to the creation of the Nuremberg Code, which was the first international document to advocate for voluntary participation and informed consent in medical experimentation.
The Nuremberg Code has since become a cornerstone of medical ethics and has been adopted by many countries and organizations around the world. It emphasizes the importance of protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in medical research and requires that any experimentation be conducted with the voluntary and informed consent of the participants.
The significance of the Nuremberg Code cannot be overstated, as it has helped to shape the way medical research is conducted and has led to greater awareness and respect for the rights of human subjects. It serves as a reminder of the atrocities committed during the Holocaust and the importance of ethical considerations in medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient prescribed quetiapine (500mg once daily) at the age of 65 had a recent ECG which showed a QTc interval of 510 ms. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?:
Your Answer: Cross-taper in order to start risperidone and repeat ECG in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Stop quetiapine completely and then switch to aripiprazole and refer to cardiology
Explanation:Aripiprazole and olanzapine are preferred over haloperidol due to its high impact on the QTc interval. Risperidone can also be considered as a viable option in cases where the QTc interval is elevated.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the most effective way to assess one's ability to think abstractly?
Your Answer: Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test
Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Test
Explanation:The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting Test for Assessing Abstract Thinking
The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate abstract thinking and the ability to form concepts. This test requires patients to sort objects based on their colour of material, as well as copy block patterns using coloured cubes. The test is primarily used to diagnose neurological problems. By assessing a patient’s ability to sort objects and form concepts, doctors can gain insight into their cognitive abilities and identify any potential neurological issues. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is an effective tool for evaluating abstract thinking and cognitive function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the most common cause of SIADH?
Your Answer: Stroke
Explanation:It is crucial to recognize that SIADH can have various physical origins that could be the primary cause in a patient who has been given psychotropic medication and develops the condition. The hypothalamus can be affected by brain-related conditions such as stroke, leading to the development of SIADH. Additionally, it is important to remain vigilant for any underlying cancer.
Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is experiencing memory difficulties and has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Which anatomical structure is most likely to exhibit atrophy in this scenario?
Your Answer: Thalamus
Correct Answer: Hippocampus
Explanation:The frontal lobe is located at the front of the cerebrum and is responsible for managing executive functions and working memory. The hippocampus plays a role in spatial navigation and the consolidation of short term memory to long term memory, but is often the first region of the brain to suffer damage in Alzheimer’s disease. The corpus callosum is a bundle of nerve fibers that connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres, facilitating communication between them. The thalamus is a symmetrical midline structure that relays sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex, while also regulating consciousness, alertness, and sleep. Broca’s area, which is typically located in the inferior frontal gyrus, is a key region involved in language production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most commonly associated condition with Velo-cardio-facial syndrome?
Your Answer: Depression
Correct Answer: Psychosis
Explanation:Psychosis is linked to Velo-cardio-facial syndrome.
Velo-Cardio-Facial Syndrome and Psychiatric Disorders
Velo-cardio-facial syndrome (VCFS) is a genetic disorder that is characterized by distinct physical features, congenital heart disease, and learning disabilities. It is caused by small deletions in chromosome 22q11. There have been numerous studies that suggest a link between VCFS and psychiatric disorders.
One of the strongest associations is with psychotic illnesses, such as schizophrenia. This has led researchers to use VCFS as a model for understanding the genetics and pathogenesis of schizophrenia. VCFS provides a unique opportunity to study the genetic and environmental factors that contribute to the development of psychiatric disorders.
Overall, the link between VCFS and psychiatric disorders highlights the importance of understanding the genetic and environmental factors that contribute to mental illness. By studying VCFS, researchers can gain insight into the underlying mechanisms of psychiatric disorders and develop new treatments and interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not considered a fundamental element of language?
Your Answer: Syntax
Correct Answer: Subversion
Explanation:The Four Core Components of Language
Language is a complex system of communication that involves various components. The four core components of language are semantics, syntax, pragmatics, and phonology. Each of these components plays a crucial role in the way we use language to convey meaning and interact with others.
Semantics refers to the meaning of words and how they are used in context. It involves understanding the relationships between words and their meanings, as well as the nuances of language. For example, the word run can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used.
Syntax refers to the rules that govern the structure of sentences and how words are arranged to convey meaning. It involves understanding the order of words, phrases, and clauses in a sentence, as well as the use of punctuation and other grammatical structures.
Pragmatics refers to the social and cultural aspects of language use. It involves understanding the context in which language is used, as well as the social norms and expectations that govern communication. For example, the way we speak to our friends may be different from the way we speak to our boss.
Phonology refers to the sounds of language and how they are used to convey meaning. It involves understanding the different sounds of language, as well as the rules that govern their use. For example, the sound p in pat is different from the sound b in bat, and these differences can change the meaning of a word.
In summary, the four core components of language are essential for effective communication. By understanding these components, we can better understand how language works and use it more effectively in our interactions with others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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How can one differentiate between a dissociative seizure and an epileptic seizure?
Your Answer: The event occurs during sleep
Correct Answer: A gradual onset
Explanation:Distinguishing between dissociative seizures and other types of seizures can be aided by observing the gradual onset often seen in dissociative seizures. It is important to note that seizure activity during sleep is not the same as seizure activity at night, as the latter may be indicative of dissociative seizures.
Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a licensed treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)
The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.
– Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
– Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
– Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
– Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
– Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
– Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
– OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
– Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
– PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is linked to losing weight?
Your Answer: Valproate
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination.
He has been taking lithium for his bipolar disorder for more than a decade without any notable adverse effects. His eGFR is 38 mls/min and his serum creatinine is slightly elevated.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Water intoxication
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Nocturia is often the first indication of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can occur in 20-40% of patients who take lithium for an extended period. This condition can cause a gradual decrease in the GFR, which may be reversible in the early stages. If muscle mass is reduced of the diet is low in protein, the serum creatinine level may be normal of near-normal.
Hyperparathyroidism is not a likely cause because although 15-20% of long-term lithium users may have elevated calcium levels, only a few will experience hyperparathyroidism symptoms.
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is not associated with lithium therapy and would not present with polyuria of renal impairment.
Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a rare complication of lithium therapy.
Water intoxication would cause polyuria of dilutional hyponatremia, but not renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes puberty?
Your Answer: Precocious puberty is more common in boys than in girls
Correct Answer: On average, puberty last 3-4 years
Explanation:Puberty
Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which medication is impacted by moisture and therefore cannot be included in a medication compliance aid?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Drug Stability
The stability of drugs can vary greatly, with some medications being unable to be included in compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors. Certain drugs have a tendency to absorb moisture from the air, rendering them ineffective, with light known to accelerate this process. Examples of drugs that are unsuitable for compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors include Sodium valproate, Zopiclone, Venlafaxine, Topiramate, Methylphenidate, Mirtazapine, Olanzapine, Amisulpride, and Aripiprazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of development?
Your Answer: The original theory was based on a study of Chinese college students
Correct Answer: Development is considered to always move through stages in a defined order
Explanation:Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A mental health nurse evaluates a client in the ER and documents in her evaluation that the client is experiencing 'anhedonia' as a symptom. What does anhedonia mean?
Your Answer: It is the experience of an increase in pleasure
Correct Answer: It was coined by Ribot
Explanation:Anhedonia, a term coined by Théodule-Armand Ribot in 1896, refers to the lack of interest in experiencing pleasure. This condition is commonly linked to depression and is also observed in schizophrenia as a component of the negative symptoms of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Before being utilized for mood disorders, what medical conditions was lithium employed to treat?
Your Answer: Stroke
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:During the latter half of the 19th century, the concept of uric acid imbalances causing various diseases extended beyond bladder stones and gout to encompass a wide range of ailments, such as depression and mania. This expansion was fueled by the discovery of lithium’s ability to dissolve uric acid deposits in vitro by Alexander Ure in 1843 and Sir Alfred Garrod’s subsequent finding that lithium solutions could dissolve gout uric acid deposits in finger joints in the early 1860s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into the behavior of individuals in Nazi Germany?
Your Answer: Milgram's' experiment
Explanation:Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the post-injection syndrome linked with olanzapine embonate?
Your Answer: The majority of cases occur between 2-4 hours following the injection
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Although the occurrence of the post-injection syndrome is rare, patients must still be observed for three hours after receiving the depot injection.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the codon that initiates polypeptide synthesis?
Your Answer: UGA
Correct Answer: AUG
Explanation:The initiation codon for polypeptide synthesis is AUG, which also codes for the amino acid methionine. Therefore, all newly synthesized polypeptides begin with methionine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An EEG analysis indicates the presence of a mass in the brain. What were the observed wave patterns?
Your Answer: Beta activity (β)
Correct Answer: Delta activity (δ)
Explanation:While alpha (α) and beta (β) activity are typical in adults who are awake and at rest, delta activity (δ) may suggest the presence of a brain tumor. Mu (μ) activity is linked to movement, and theta activity (θ) is uncommon in the waking adult population, occurring briefly in only 15% of individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which option is the least appropriate for nighttime sedation?
Your Answer: Zopiclone
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:It is advisable to avoid agents with longer half lives as they have a tendency to induce drowsiness in patients.
Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the most prevalent type of attachment?
Your Answer: Resistant
Correct Answer: Secure
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which tricyclic antidepressant has been demonstrated to have higher toxicity compared to others?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dothiepin
Explanation:Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.
Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.
Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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