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Question 1
Correct
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I'm sorry, but the given question does not mention any age. Please provide the necessary information so I can assist you better.
Your Answer: Functional hallucinations
Explanation:It is important to understand and memorize the distinction between functional and reflex hallucinations. Functional hallucinations involve the same sensory modality, while reflex hallucinations involve a different sensory modality. It is crucial to differentiate between the two.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is accurate about the historical categorization of autism?
Your Answer: The term ‘autism’ was coined by Leo Kanner
Correct Answer: The diagnosis of Asperger disorder first appeared in the DSM-IV
Explanation:Autism: A Brief History
The term autism was first coined in 1911 by Eugen Bleuler to describe individuals with schizophrenia who had cut themselves off as much as possible from any contact with the external world. In 1926, Grunya Sukhareva attempted to delineate autism spectrum disorders as distinct diagnostic entities, referring to them as schizoid personality disorder. However, her work remained largely unknown until 1996.
The first widely publicized use of the term autism to describe a distinct condition was in 1943 by Leo Kanner, who referred to it as autistic disturbance of affective contact. Kanner suggested that autism may be a manifestation of childhood schizophrenia and that it was characterized by an inability to related to themselves in the ordinary way to people and situations from the beginning of life. In 1944, Hans Asperger published descriptions of four cases of a condition he termed der autistichen psychopathie, which he regarded as a limitation of social relationships.
In 1980, infantile autism was included in the DSM-III under a new category of pervasive developmental disorders. Lorna Wing redefined Asperger Syndrome in 1981, proposing a triad of impairments in social interaction, communication, and imaginative activities. In 2000, the DSM-IV utilized the umbrella category of pervasive developmental disorders, with five main subcategories. Finally, in 2013, the DSM-5 combined the subcategories into a single label of autism spectrum disorder, asserting that autism is a single disorder on a wide spectrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Correct
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A mother of a teenage girl recently diagnosed with Turner syndrome attends clinic with a number of questions. She is considering having another child. What should she know about Turner syndrome?
Your Answer: An increased risk of Turner syndrome in subsequent pregnancies has not been widely reported
Explanation:Most medical professionals recommend growth hormone therapy for girls diagnosed with Turner syndrome. Prenatal diagnosis can be achieved through chorionic villus sampling of amniocentesis, and while it has been traditionally believed that there is no increased risk in subsequent pregnancies, recent data suggests further studies are needed to confirm this.
Understanding Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.
The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Through which structure does the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exit the cranial cavity?
Your Answer: Jugular foramen
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:Cranial Fossae and Foramina
The cranium is divided into three regions known as fossae, each housing different cranial lobes. The anterior cranial fossa contains the frontal lobes and includes the frontal and ethmoid bones, as well as the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes and includes the greater wing of the sphenoid, sella turcica, and most of the temporal bones. The posterior cranial fossa contains the occipital lobes, cerebellum, and medulla and includes the occipital bone.
There are several foramina in the skull that allow for the passage of various structures. The most important foramina likely to appear in exams are listed below:
– Foramen spinosum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the middle meningeal artery.
– Foramen ovale: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
– Foramen lacerum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the small meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery and emissary veins from the cavernous sinus.
– Foramen magnum: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of the spinal cord.
– Jugular foramen: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI.Understanding the location and function of these foramina is essential for medical professionals, as they play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The correct order of the psychosexual stages described by Freud are:
Your Answer: Anal, latency, oral, phallic, genital
Correct Answer: Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
Explanation:Developmental Stages
There are four main developmental models that are important to understand: Freud’s theory of psychosexual development, Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, and Kohlberg’s theory of moral development.
Freud’s theory of psychosexual development includes five stages: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are characterized by different areas of focus and pleasure.
Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development includes eight stages, each with a specific crisis to be resolved. These stages occur from infancy to old age and are focused on developing a sense of self and relationships with others.
Piaget’s theory of cognitive development includes four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are focused on the development of cognitive abilities such as perception, memory, and problem-solving.
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. These stages occur from childhood to adulthood and are focused on the development of moral reasoning and decision-making.
Understanding these developmental models can help individuals better understand themselves and others, as well as provide insight into how to support healthy development at each stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 6
Correct
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You are asked to speak to a teenager about a medical procedure with a view to gaining their informed consent. Which ethical principle underlies the significance of informed consent?
Your Answer: Respect for autonomy
Explanation:Beauchamp and Childress have identified four fundamental moral principles that form the basis of clinical ethics: respect for autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence, and justice. Respecting a patient’s autonomy involves acknowledging their right to make decisions, even if those decisions may not seem wise. To obtain informed consent, patients must be fully informed about the treatment and its potential outcomes, and they must have the capacity to understand and weigh the information before making a decision. Non-maleficence requires healthcare providers to avoid causing harm, while beneficence involves balancing the potential benefits of a treatment against its risks. Finally, justice requires that healthcare providers act fairly and equitably. When a patient lacks the capacity to make decisions about their care, healthcare providers must act in the patient’s best interests, taking into account their previous views and consulting with relevant parties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?
Your Answer: Agreeableness
Correct Answer: Generosity
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Correct
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A teenager who needs to start an antipsychotic tells you that they are very concerned about the risk of weight gain. You anticipate that they may discontinue the medication if they experience weight gain. What would be the most suitable initial approach to address this concern?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness, euphoria, and blurred vision upon sudden standing. What would be the most suitable replacement medication?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Amisulpride
Explanation:The patient’s reported symptoms are indicative of postural hypotension, which is likely a side effect of the olanzapine medication they were given.
Maudsley Guidelines: Antipsychotics for Postural Hypotension
When postural hypotension is a concern, it may be necessary to switch to an antipsychotic that is less likely to cause this side effect. The following antipsychotics are recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines:
– Amisulpride
– Aripiprazole
– Haloperidol
– Sulpiride
– TrifluoperazineThese medications have a lower risk of causing postural hypotension compared to other antipsychotics such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone. It is important to discuss any concerns about side effects with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What defense mechanism is being demonstrated when an athlete initially dislikes a hockey teammate and eventually begins to believe that the teammate hates them?
Your Answer: Projective identification
Correct Answer: Projection
Explanation:This scenario illustrates the concept of projection, where the athlete is projecting their own feelings of hatred onto their team mate. However, it does not involve projective identification as there is no indication of how the team mate is internalizing of reacting to the projection.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the options below does not act as a blocker for the serotonin transporter (SERT), also known as the monoamine transporter?
Your Answer: Amphetamine
Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Explanation:Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown
Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.
The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.
Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The shift towards a more typical existence for individuals with developmental disabilities, away from institutionalized care, is known as what?
Your Answer: The reduced stigma model
Correct Answer: Normalisation
Explanation:Normalisation in Learning Disability Care
Normalisation is a concept that is widely used in the field of learning disability care. It refers to the principles of providing individuals with a life experience that is as normal as possible. This approach is a departure from the traditional model of institutionalised care, which often isolates individuals from the wider community. Normalisation aims to create an environment that is inclusive and supportive, where individuals can participate in everyday activities and have access to the same opportunities as everyone else. By promoting independence and social integration, normalisation helps to improve the quality of life for people with learning disabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 13
Incorrect
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In the next decade, where is depression expected to rank among the top causes of global disease burden?
Your Answer: Second leading cause
Correct Answer: Leading cause
Explanation:The World Health Organization reports that depression has risen from being the third leading cause of disease burden globally in 2004 to the second leading cause in 2013. It is projected to become the primary cause by 2030.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the most frequent side effect of methylphenidate in children?
Your Answer: Decreased appetite
Explanation:Methylphenidate commonly causes a decrease in appetite, while the other listed side-effects are considered rare of uncommon.
ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Is the following estimate of heritability accurate?
Your Answer: Anorexia = 50%
Correct Answer: Major depression = 30%
Explanation:Heritability: Understanding the Concept
Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.
The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:
Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
ADHD 85%
Autism 70%
Schizophrenia 55%
Bipolar 55%
Anorexia 35%
Alcohol dependence 35%
Major depression 30%
OCD 25%It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the options below is not a symptom commonly associated with antidepressant withdrawal syndrome?
Your Answer: Agomelatine
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved to the United States from Japan presents to the local Emergency department in a state of extreme anxiety. The attending physician refers her to you as the psychiatrist on call and reports no evidence of an organic illness based on her physical examination.
Upon meeting the patient, she expresses intense distress and reports a belief that her vagina is shrinking and that she will die as a result. She attributes this to a loss of balance in her sexual energy after engaging in sexual activity with a partner who did not align with her astrological sign.
What would be your preferred diagnosis?Your Answer: Koro
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by the patient are consistent with Koro, a culture-specific disorder observed primarily in males (and occasionally in females) in China and Thailand. For more information, please refer to Edwards JW’s article Indigenous Koro, a genital retraction syndrome of insular Southeast Asia: a critical review published in Cult Med Psychiatry in 1984.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the incidence of metabolic syndrome among individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia, as reported by the Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) study?
Your Answer: 52-54%
Correct Answer: 41-43%
Explanation:The CATIE trial conducted in the USA in 2005 revealed that the prevalence of metabolic syndrome in patients with schizophrenia was between 40.9-42.7%. The study also found that the prevalence was higher in females, ranging from 51.6-54.2%, compared to males, which ranged from 36.0-36.6%. Therefore, if the question had specified the gender of the patients, the correct answer would have been either 36-37% for males of 52-54% for females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 19
Correct
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What hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone
Explanation:The hormone ADH (also known as vasopressin) is released from the posterior pituitary gland and promotes water retention and increased blood pressure by constricting arterioles. Conversely, the hormones ACTH, growth hormone, luteinizing hormone, and thyroid stimulating hormone are all released from the anterior pituitary gland and have various effects on the body, such as stimulating hormone production in the adrenal glands, promoting bone and muscle growth, regulating sex gland function, and stimulating the release of thyroxine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse?
Your Answer: May be stopped after first question depending on the answer
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following exerts its effect by stabilizing sodium channels?
Your Answer: Temazepam
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine stabilize Na channels, while valproate, benzodiazepines, and z-drugs act on GABA receptors. Topiramate has a dual action by combining both mechanisms. The exact way in which GABA receptors are affected is not fully understood, as gabapentin does not bind to them of affect GABA synthesis of uptake. Instead, gabapentin binds to various sites in the brain associated with voltage-gated calcium channels, particularly alpha-2-delta-1, which appears to inhibit the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the presynaptic area.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A college student experiencing heightened anxiety, difficulty sleeping, and trouble focusing has been using self-prescribed medication to cope with academic stress. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cannabis misuse
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepine dependence
Explanation:It is less common for individuals to use amphetamine abuse as a form of self-medication compared to benzodiazepines. Cannabis use is also less likely to result in the symptoms associated with benzodiazepine dependence. Codeine dependence is not as likely to cause significant anxiety and sleep disturbance as benzodiazepine misuse. Practicing doctors are unlikely to use GHB, an illegal drug, as a means of self-medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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What factors contribute to an increased likelihood of developing pseudo-parkinsonism when taking typical antipsychotics?
Your Answer: Previous stroke
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which one of the options below does not pertain to pharmacokinetic principles?
Your Answer: Elimination
Correct Answer: Ingestion
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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What is a true statement about the symptoms that occur when discontinuing SSRI medication?
Your Answer: They are more common with antidepressants with shorter half-lives
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old smoker successfully quit smoking by acknowledging the harm it was causing to their health, considering the benefits of quitting, setting a quit date, and gradually reducing their nicotine intake until they were able to quit completely. This behaviour change is an example of which of the following theories?
Your Answer: Protection motivation theory
Correct Answer: Stage model
Explanation:Behaviour change theories can be categorized into two main groups: social cognition models and stage models. Stage models involve progression through specific stages, while social cognition models focus on beliefs and attitudes as drivers of behaviour change. Examples of social cognition models include the health belief model, protection motivation theory, and self-efficacy theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding clozapine, which class of receptors does not experience any impact?
Your Answer: Serotonergic
Correct Answer: Glutamatergic
Explanation:Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What are the things that a person prescribed an MAOI should avoid?
Your Answer: Ricotta cheese
Correct Answer: Soy sauce
Explanation:MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions
First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).
MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.
Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.
Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
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What antihistamine medication is prescribed to treat extrapyramidal side effects?
Your Answer: Diphenhydramine
Explanation:Diphenhydramine is a type of antihistamine that belongs to the first generation. It is commonly used to alleviate extrapyramidal side effects (EPSE). Unlike second generation antihistamines, first generation antihistamines have anticholinergic properties and can penetrate the blood-brain barrier, resulting in sedative effects. The anticholinergic effects of first generation antihistamines are beneficial for treating EPSE, which is believed to be caused by excessive acetylcholine due to reduced dopamine activity. Dopamine normally inhibits acetylcholine, but when dopamine activity is reduced, acetylcholine levels increase, leading to EPSE.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
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What is believed to be an effective method for treating ADHD by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline?
Your Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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