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  • Question 1 - You are presented with a 63-year-old female patient who complains of a red...

    Incorrect

    • You are presented with a 63-year-old female patient who complains of a red eye that she noticed this morning. She reports no pain or discomfort and no changes to her vision. She has been experiencing a cough for the past week but is improving. She is generally healthy and doesn't take any regular medications. Upon examination, you observe a well-defined area of redness in her left eye. Her pupils and visual acuity are normal, and staining the eye reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be an appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Lubricating eye drops

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and blood pressure check

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with a Subconjunctival haemorrhage, which is characterised by a distinct area of bleeding in one eye, it is important to provide reassurance and check their blood pressure. This condition is often caused by coughing, constipation, or high blood pressure. Treatment may involve using lubricating eye drops for dry eyes, while infective conjunctivitis can be treated with options 3 and 4. Patients with conjunctivitis typically experience itchy eyes.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhages occur when blood vessels in the subconjunctival space bleed. These vessels typically supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. While subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything serious. They are more common in women than men, and the risk increases with age. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.

      Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhages include trauma, contact lens usage, idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvres, hypertension, bleeding disorders, certain drugs, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia. Symptoms include a red eye, usually unilateral, and mild irritation. Signs include a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. The patch’s size can vary depending on the size of the bleed and can involve the whole conjunctiva. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.

      The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is clinical. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. If you cannot see the whole border of the haemorrhage, it may be associated with an intracranial bleed or an orbital roof fracture. Further appropriate investigations should then be done, including a full cranial nerve exam looking for neurological signs as well as a CT head, after discussion with a senior. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.

      Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhages are a benign condition that will resolve on their own in 2 to 3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 2 - A 47-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP after...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP after her partner noticed a recent change in her eye appearance. Upon examination, the GP observes ptosis on the right side and a small right pupil. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while post-ganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man who had a stroke 2 years ago is being evaluated....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who had a stroke 2 years ago is being evaluated. He was prescribed simvastatin 40 mg for secondary prevention of further cardiovascular disease after his diagnosis. A fasting lipid profile was conducted last week and the results are as follows:

      Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l
      HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/l
      LDL cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l
      Triglyceride 1.6 mmol/l

      Based on the latest NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to atorvastatin 80 mg on

      Explanation:

      In 2014, the NICE guidelines were updated regarding the use of statins for primary and secondary prevention. Patients with established cardiovascular disease are now recommended to be treated with Atorvastatin 80 mg. If the LDL cholesterol levels remain high, it is suitable to consider switching the patient’s medication.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old patient presents to your GP clinic with a spider bite that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient presents to your GP clinic with a spider bite that occurred 7 days ago. The patient reports experiencing pruritus, urticarial rash, erythema, lip swelling, abdominal pain, and vomiting shortly after being bitten. The patient has been taking cetirizine daily from a home supply for the past week, which has resolved all symptoms.

      What is the recommended follow-up plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to an allergy specialist

      Explanation:

      If someone experiences a systemic reaction to an insect bite, it is important to refer them to an allergy specialist. In this case, the patient’s moderate reaction suggests the need for further evaluation by a specialist who can determine if an adrenaline auto-injector and medical identification bracelet are necessary. However, since the bite occurred 7 days ago and the patient is currently stable, there is no need to refer them to the emergency department or medical team at this time. Additionally, late-onset reactions typically occur within a few hours of the bite, so a follow-up appointment at the 2-week mark is not necessary.

      Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 5 - Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks...

    Incorrect

    • Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks a lot older than her age. You have to decide whether to prescribe or not.

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 considers children under what age as too young to give consent to sexual activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Under 13 years

      Explanation:

      Child Protection and Sexual Offences

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 states that children under the age of 13 are not capable of giving consent to sexual activity. Any sexual offence involving a child under 13 should be treated with utmost seriousness. Health professionals should consider referring such cases to social services under the Child Protection Procedures. It is advisable to seek advice from designated child protection professionals in the first instance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 6 - Liam is a 6-year-old boy who visits you with his father complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 6-year-old boy who visits you with his father complaining of dysuria, frequency, and fever. During the urine dip test, nitrites and leukocytes are detected. Liam has no known allergies and is in good health otherwise. You decide to prescribe trimethoprim (50 mg/5ml). His current weight is 20 kg. According to the BNF, the recommended dosage is 4 mg/kg trimethoprim twice daily. What volume will you instruct his father to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.5mls BD

      Explanation:

      Sam should be prescribed antibiotics for her lower UTI symptoms. According to the BNF, the recommended treatment dosage is 4 mg/kg twice a day. Since Sam weighs 18.8 kg, her dosage would be 75 mg twice a day. If the solution contains 50 mg of trimethoprim in 5mls, then Sam’s dosage would be 7.5mls of solution twice a day.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration. He wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration. He wants to know if he can do anything to prevent it from worsening.
      What is the most crucial preventive measure? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Preventing Age-Related Macular Degeneration: Strategies and Misconceptions

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a leading cause of vision loss in older adults. While some risk factors, such as age and genetics, cannot be modified, there are strategies that can help prevent or slow the progression of the disease. However, there are also misconceptions about certain interventions.

      Smoking cessation is the most important modifiable factor in preventing AMD. Current smokers have a two to three times higher risk of developing the disease compared to non-smokers. Quitting smoking can also reduce the risk of progression in those who already have AMD.

      Antioxidant supplements, specifically the AREDS2 formula containing vitamin C and E, lutein, zeaxanthin, zinc, and copper, may reduce the risk of progression by 25% in patients with intermediate AMD. However, there is no evidence to support their use in lesser disease or primary prevention.

      While some studies have suggested a benefit of eating oily fish, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends a diet rich in leafy green vegetables and fresh fruit to improve concentrations of macular pigment.

      There is no conclusive evidence that statins, medications used to lower cholesterol, have an effect on AMD progression. Similarly, treating hypertension, while a risk factor for AMD, doesn’t reduce the risk of developing the disease.

      In summary, smoking cessation and antioxidant supplements may be effective strategies for preventing or slowing the progression of AMD, while eating a healthy diet and managing other health conditions can also be beneficial. However, it is important to be aware of misconceptions about certain interventions and to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized recommendations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine experiences inadequate relief from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine experiences inadequate relief from the recommended dose of paracetamol during acute attacks. She consumes 10 units of alcohol per week and smokes 12 cigarettes per day.

      What could be a contributing factor to this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      During acute migraine attacks, patients often experience delayed gastric emptying. Therefore, prokinetic agents like metoclopramide are commonly added to analgesics. Changes in P450 enzyme activity, such as those caused by smoking or drinking, are unlikely to have a significant impact on the metabolism of paracetamol.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are...

    Incorrect

    • One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are NOT hormone responsive.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal cell

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Therapy for Metastatic Cancer: A Review of Treatment Options

      Hormonal therapy has been used in the treatment of various types of metastatic cancer, but its effectiveness varies depending on the cancer type. In renal cell cancer, hormonal therapy has not shown promising results. However, medroxyprogesterone acetate may be used to treat cancer-related anorexia or loss of appetite.

      For metastatic/locally advanced carcinoma of the prostate, testosterone ablation with orchidectomy or anti-androgens can produce a clinical remission in the majority of cases.

      In breast cancer, anti-oestrogen therapy with tamoxifen can be effective for oestrogen-receptor positive tumours, which make up 60% of breast tumours.

      In metastatic endometrial cancer, progestogens may be effective in 30% of cases.

      For high-risk thyroid cancer, thyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid-stimulating hormone.

      Overall, hormonal therapy can be a useful treatment option for certain types of metastatic cancer, but it is important to consider the specific cancer type and individual patient factors when determining the most appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 44-year-old woman has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and is now under...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and is now under the care of rheumatologists. She has been started on methotrexate and her dose has been titrated to a weekly dose of 15 mg. The rheumatologists have requested that you take over the prescribing and monitoring of the methotrexate as the patient is now on a stable dose that she is to continue.

      What would be the most suitable prescription to provide for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Split dose of one Ă— 10 mg tablet on one day and three Ă— 2.5 mg tablets three days later each week (for example, Monday and Thursday each week)

      Explanation:

      Safe Prescription of Methotrexate

      Methotrexate is a medication that should be taken once a week on the same day. It is crucial that patients are informed about the correct dose and frequency of use to avoid dosing errors. The Committee of Safety of Medicines has reported significant critical incidents in the past due to prescribing different strengths of tablets to patients. To prevent such errors, only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, and the recommended strength is 2.5 mg. If both 10 mg and 2.5 mg tablets are prescribed, there is a risk of accidentally mixing them up and taking an overdose. Accurate dosing and blood monitoring are essential as methotrexate can cause haematological, hepatic, and pulmonary toxicity.

      To ensure safe prescription of methotrexate, doctors should prescribe seven 2.5 mg tablets once a week, making up the total dose with tablets of the same strength. By following this protocol, patients can avoid dosing errors and reduce the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). He is feeling unwell and has had mild generalised abdominal pain for 2 days and a cloudy effluent.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send effluent fluid for cell count, microscopy and microbiological culture

      Explanation:

      Peritonitis in CAPD Patients: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a common complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), occurring once per patient-year on average. Symptoms include generalized abdominal pain and cloudy effluent. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a local process, while severe peritonitis may be due to a perforated organ. Fever is often absent.

      To diagnose peritonitis, a sample of the dialysate effluent should be obtained for laboratory evaluation, including a cell count with differential, Gram stain, and culture. An elevated dialysate count of white blood cells (WBC) of more than 100/mm3, of which at least 50% are neutrophils, supports the diagnosis of microbial-induced peritonitis and requires immediate antimicrobial therapy. In asymptomatic patients with only cloudy fluid, therapy may be delayed until test results are available.

      Empiric antibiotic treatment should cover both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus, which are common causes of peritonitis. Candida albicans may also be the cause in rare cases. Antibiotics can be administered intraperitoneally by adding them to the dialysis fluid. Hospital admission is not usually necessary for this complication.

      In summary, CAPD patients should be aware of the symptoms of peritonitis and seek prompt medical attention if they occur. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history of gestational diabetes during her previous pregnancy. Her midwife arranged an oral glucose tolerance test, but she missed the appointment to review the results.

      The following results were obtained:

      - Fasting glucose: 5.8 mmol/l
      - 2-hour plasma glucose: 7.5 mmol/l

      What is the interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes as fasting glucose >5.6 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of gestational diabetes is likely as the fasting glucose level exceeds 5.6 mmol/l.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of primary open-angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypermetropia

      Explanation:

      Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle closure glaucoma, while myopia is linked to primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.

      Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.

      The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 14 - A 9-year-old girl presents with her mother. She has an itchy scalp and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with her mother. She has an itchy scalp and you diagnose head lice. You recommend malathion - the mother inquires about potential side effects. What is a typical side effect of malathion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Malathion and Head Lice Treatment

      Malathion, a common treatment for head lice, can cause skin irritation, especially if alcoholic lotions are used instead of aqueous solutions in those with eczema. If the scalp itself is eczematous or secondarily infected, irritation is more likely, which may affect compliance with the treatment regimen. However, in the author’s experience as a seasoned GP, the main issue with lotions in the treatment of head lice is their ineffectiveness.

      Parents should be advised to regularly inspect their child’s hair for eggs and live lice, and regular wet combing can be effective. Keeping the hair short, where practical, can also help. Unfortunately, children are often at the mercy of their classmates’ diligence, as re-infection is common. Therefore, it is important for parents to be vigilant and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of head lice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are multiple comedones on his face and a handful of papules and pustules. There are no nodules or scarring. The treating doctor decides to start him on topical benzoyl peroxide combined with an antibiotic.
      Which of the following is the single most appropriate topical antibiotic to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild to Moderate Acne: Clindamycin, Lymecycline, Flucloxacillin, Minocycline, and Trimethoprim

      Acne is classified as mild to moderate if there are less than 35 inflammatory lesions and less than 2 nodules. For this type of acne, topical clindamycin is recommended as a first-line treatment, which can be combined with benzoyl peroxide, adapalene, or tretinoin. On the other hand, oral lymecycline is not recommended for mild to moderate acne but is effective for moderate to severe acne. Flucloxacillin is not used in acne treatment, while minocycline is effective but can cause liver problems and a lupus-like syndrome. Lastly, trimethoprim is used for people with moderate to severe acne who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to oral lymecycline or doxycycline. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment option for each individual case of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which...

    Incorrect

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which type of tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Small-Cell Carcinoma of the Lung and SIADH

      Small-cell carcinoma of the lung is a type of lung cancer that has been found to cause SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion) in 18.9% of cases. SIADH is a condition where there is an abnormal release of ADH, leading to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This condition can cause symptoms such as headaches, weakness, confusion, drowsiness, and seizures. While SIADH can also occur in other types of cancer, it is reported as a rare event in breast cancer and occurs in pancreatic cancer, duodenal cancer, and colon cancer. Patients with malignancy-associated SIADH have poor outcomes, making early detection and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor may be worsened by medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tremors: Causes and Treatment Options

      Tremors can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication such as lithium, tricyclic antidepressants, metoclopramide, and bronchodilators. However, the most common type of tremor seen in general practice is essential tremor, which is worsened by posture and movement but relieved by rest. This type of tremor can affect various parts of the body, including the head, neck, jaw, and voice.

      In contrast, Parkinsonian tremor is present at rest. When it comes to treating essential tremor, β blockers are typically the first-line option. If these are not suitable, primidone may be tried, although it can cause sedation. Unfortunately, up to half of patients do not respond to these treatments or cannot tolerate them. In such cases, topiramate may be a viable alternative for long-term management.

      Occasionally, short-term treatment with alprazolam or clonazepam may be used to alleviate tremors caused by tension or anxiety. However, these medications can cause sedation and may be habit-forming. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for tremors can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - What is the most accurate definition of informed consent? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate definition of informed consent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Putting the best interests of the patient first

      Explanation:

      Understanding Informed Consent

      Informed consent is a crucial process in healthcare that involves informing patients about the potential benefits and risks of a particular course of action. It is a way of ensuring that patients are fully aware of what they are agreeing to and that they have given their permission to proceed. This process is essential in upholding the principle of patient autonomy, which recognizes the right of patients to make decisions about their own healthcare.

      It is important to note that informed consent is not the same as putting the best interests of the patient first. While doctors are obligated to act in the best interests of their patients, informed consent is about ensuring that patients have the information they need to make their own decisions. This means that patients may choose a course of action that is not necessarily in their best interests, but that they have the right to make that choice.

      Obtaining a second opinion is not always necessary for informed consent, but it can be helpful in certain situations. For example, if a patient is considering a complex or risky procedure, they may want to seek a second opinion to ensure that they have all the information they need to make an informed decision. Ultimately, the goal of informed consent is to empower patients to make decisions about their own healthcare and to ensure that those decisions are respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 19 - A father brings his 3-year-old son to the after-hours clinic. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-year-old son to the after-hours clinic. He reports that his son has been unwell for the past 2 days with a fever and flushed cheeks. Today, he has developed a rash all over his body, starting from his chest and stomach. The child is eating less than usual but has had enough wet and soiled nappies. During examination, the child's temperature is 37.8°C, and all other observations are normal. The child has a widespread blanching, pink rash all over his body, feeling like sandpaper to touch. Additionally, his tongue appears red and bumpy. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group A streptococcus

      Explanation:

      The symptoms presented by this young lady are indicative of scarlet fever, which is caused by Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. These symptoms include a rash that feels like sandpaper and a tongue that looks like a strawberry.

      Fifth disease, also known as slapped cheek, is caused by Parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a fever, runny nose, and headache, followed by a rash on the face that looks like a slap mark.

      The common cold is primarily caused by Rhinovirus.

      Group B streptococcus is a significant cause of bacterial infections in newborns, which can result in septicaemia, pneumonia, meningitis, and potentially fatal or long-term consequences.

      The table summarizes the main characteristics of childhood infections including Chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, erythema infectiosum, scarlet fever, and hand, foot and mouth disease. Each infection has its own set of symptoms such as fever, rash, and lymphadenopathy. Some infections have specific identifying features such as Koplik spots in measles and a ‘slapped-cheek’ rash in erythema infectiosum. Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the coxsackie A16 virus and presents with vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old male presents with problems with constipation.

    He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents with problems with constipation.

      He has a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is receiving medication.

      Which of the following agents is most likely to be responsible for his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Verapamil and its Side Effects

      Verapamil is a medication that is commonly known to cause constipation. In addition to this, it is also associated with other side effects such as oedema and headaches. Oedema is the swelling of body tissues, usually in the legs and feet, while headaches can range from mild to severe. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking verapamil and to speak with a healthcare provider if they become bothersome or persistent. Proper monitoring and management can help to alleviate these symptoms and ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been running a fever and has been refusing to eat. His mother has observed some spots on his hands and buttocks. Upon examination, the child has a mild vesicular rash on his hands, buttocks, face, and a few spots on his ankles. His temperature is 38.1ºC. According to your records, he had Chickenpox when he was 10 months old. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease

      Explanation:

      Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a viral infection that typically impacts children who are under the age of 10. The symptoms include fever, loss of appetite, coughing, stomach pain, and a sore throat. Following these symptoms, mouth ulcers often develop, along with a rash that typically affects the hands and feet, but can also appear on the face, buttocks, legs, and genitals. This condition is generally harmless and resolves on its own, with treatment consisting of basic pain relief.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
      Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
      Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The thiazide diuretic

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels

      Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.

      Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.

      Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.

      Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.

      Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

      Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 23 - A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up at night to use the bathroom. His PSA level is normal and a prostatic biopsy did not show any signs of cancer. What is the quickest treatment option to relieve his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are the first-line pharmacological treatment as they relax the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and improve urinary flow rates. Improvement in symptoms can be seen within a few days of therapy. Finasteride, an inhibitor of 5-alpha-reductase, can also be used to reduce prostatic volume over a period of around 6 months. However, it doesn’t provide rapid relief of symptoms. Cyproterone acetate and goserelin are not used in the treatment of BPH, as they are indicated for advanced prostate cancer. Oxybutynin, an antimuscarinic drug, can worsen symptoms of BPH and is not recommended for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 24 - A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not yet developed much speech. His ears seem abnormally large and he has a long thin face. He is quite an overactive child.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome, ADHD, Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness are genetic disorders that affect individuals in different ways. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both boys and girls, causing learning difficulties, delayed development, and other symptoms such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, autistic spectrum disorder, and speech problems. ADHD is a combination of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning and/or development. Down Syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, physical abnormalities, and a low IQ due to an additional chromosome 21. Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting connective tissue, resulting in skeletal, skin, cardiac, aortic, ocular, and dura mater malformations. Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness is most commonly inherited by autosomal-recessive genes, and children have a normal appearance and IQ. Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no high-risk signs to suggest that admission to hospital is necessary and it is decided that the child should be looked after at home.
      What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give to the parents regarding antipyretic interventions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antipyretic drugs are only needed if the child appears distressed or unwell

      Explanation:

      Antipyretic Interventions for Children with Fever

      Antipyretic drugs, such as paracetamol and ibuprofen, are recommended for children with fever if they appear distressed or unwell. However, these drugs should not be given solely to reduce body temperature or prevent febrile convulsions. Over-wrapping or underdressing a child with fever should also be avoided.

      Either paracetamol or ibuprofen can be given, but ibuprofen should be avoided if the child is dehydrated. Both drugs are equally effective and well tolerated, but they should not be given at the same time. If one drug is not effective, the other drug may be added with caution over dosing intervals.

      Aspirin should not be given to children under 16 years old due to safety concerns about the risk of developing Reye syndrome. Ibuprofen and/or paracetamol are appropriate for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has recently started citalopram and has found it effective. She prefers drug treatment to cognitive behavioural therapy, which she has had in the past. However, she has just become pregnant and is concerned about the risks of fetal malformation due to citalopram.
      Select from this list the option that seems most appropriate in these circumstances.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue citalopram

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression During Pregnancy: Considerations for Antidepressant Use

      Depression affects up to 20% of pregnant women and can have negative impacts on both maternal and fetal health. While concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus may lead some women to discontinue antidepressant medication, doing so can increase the risk of relapse for those with a history of recurrent depression. Additionally, depressed women may engage in behaviors that contribute to poorer obstetric and neonatal outcomes.

      Decisions about treating depression during pregnancy should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the severity of depression, past history of affective disorder, and maternal preference. While there are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed. While the risks are thought to be low, some severe birth defects have been reported. Tricyclics are considered safer, but carry a greater risk of overdose.

      In cases where a woman wishes to discontinue antidepressant medication, a gradual reduction in dose is recommended. Alternative treatments, such as psychological therapy, may also be considered. St. John’s wort should be avoided due to insufficient data on its safety in pregnancy. Ultimately, the decision to continue or discontinue antidepressant medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node on the left side of her neck. She reports first noticing it during a cold she had about four weeks ago, and it has since increased in size, causing her to become more worried. During the examination, you observe a cervical lymph node with a diameter of 3 cm. There are no other abnormal findings. Routine blood tests reveal mild normochromic normocytic anemia and an elevated ESR of 72, but are otherwise normal.

      What is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CXR

      Explanation:

      Suspected Hodgkin’s Lymphoma in Primary Care

      This patient’s presentation of a solitary enlarged lymph node, mild anaemia, and raised ESR falls within the age range for possible Hodgkin’s lymphoma. While constitutional symptoms are only present in a minority of cases, it is important to consider this diagnosis and refer urgently for excision biopsy of the lymph node. CXR and CT are important for staging, but not for confirming the diagnosis in primary care. Rapidly enlarging neck masses of greater than three weeks duration should be referred urgently to a specialist without first arranging imaging. Upper GI pathology is less likely given the absence of symptoms, and routine referral to haematology is not appropriate. NICE guidelines recommend considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma in adults presenting with unexplained lymphadenopathy, taking into account any associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 28 - You assess a 73-year-old man with metastatic bowel cancer who is in the...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 73-year-old man with metastatic bowel cancer who is in the final stage and has a syringe driver. Regrettably, he is experiencing intestinal obstruction and is distressed with bowel colic. Which medication should be included in the syringe driver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide

      Explanation:

      Hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide can be used to treat respiratory secretions and bowel colic with syringe drivers.

      When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.

      Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.

      When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 29 - Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a patient with atrial fibrillation for rhythm control (cardioversion) if they were elderly.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Longstanding atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation: NICE Guidelines and Considerations

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends referral to a cardiologist for rhythm-control treatment (cardioversion) in certain cases of atrial fibrillation. These include atrial fibrillation with a reversible cause, heart failure primarily caused or worsened by atrial fibrillation, and new-onset atrial fibrillation. If onset is known to be within 48 hours, referral to an acute medical unit is recommended for immediate cardioversion without anticoagulation treatment. Pharmacological cardioversion is often used as a first-line therapy, with electrical cardioversion reserved for non-responders. However, cardioversion may be less successful or not recommended in cases of long-standing atrial fibrillation, significant valve problems, cardiomegaly, or multiple recurrences of atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman develops rapid, pressured speech and insomnia for five consecutive nights....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman develops rapid, pressured speech and insomnia for five consecutive nights. She says her energy levels are normal. She has had systemic lupus erythematosus for five years. For two weeks, she has been taking a large daily dose of prednisolone because of a flare-up of this condition. She has no previous personal or family history of psychiatric illness or cardiovascular disease, and she denies using illicit drugs or alcohol.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug reaction

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Psychosis in a Patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Psychosis is a rare but possible complication in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. However, in the case of a patient presenting with symptoms of psychosis, the time frame of symptoms in relation to starting corticosteroids, the patient’s age, and the lack of previous history suggest corticosteroid-induced psychosis. Corticosteroids have been associated with various psychiatric reactions, ranging from psychotic reactions and behavioral disturbances to sleep disturbances and cognitive dysfunction. Symptoms usually appear within days to weeks of starting treatment, and most patients recover after a dose reduction or withdrawal of the medication, with some requiring antipsychotic medication. In adults, severe psychiatric reactions may occur in up to 5-6% of cases.

      Other possible causes of psychosis, such as uraemia in end-stage renal failure or acute psychosis, are unlikely in this patient, as there is no history or other symptoms of renal failure, and the symptoms do not match those of acute psychosis. While systemic lupus erythematosus increases the risk of stroke, hypomania/mania after a stroke is rare, occurring in only about 1% of patients. Psychosis is also uncommon in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, occurring in only 5% of cases at some point during the course of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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