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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness of pincer grip and pain and laxity on valgus stress of his thumb. What is the most probable injury?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury, also known as skier’s/gamekeeper’s thumb. This injury occurs when the thumb is forcefully abducted, causing damage to the UCL of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Symptoms include weak pincer grip, reduced range of motion, swelling, and burning pain. Treatment involves immobilization with a thumb spica, and surgery may be necessary for complete UCL rupture.

      Another injury is a scaphoid fracture, which often occurs in older individuals who fall onto outstretched arms. Symptoms include pain and swelling in the anatomical snuff box, reduced range of motion, and pain with wrist and thumb movement. Fractures in the proximal one-third of the bone or displaced fractures may require surgery to prevent avascular necrosis.

      Extensor pollicis longus strain is another injury that can occur from repetitive thumb and wrist extension, such as in manual labor or gardening. Symptoms include pain over the thumb and dorsal wrist, worsened with palpation and extension. Treatment involves rest, ice, and pain relief.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons, which pass through the first dorsal compartment. Symptoms include pain and swelling on the lateral aspect of the wrist, and pain is reproduced with Finkelstein’s test.

      Finally, Bennett’s fracture is a less common injury that often occurs in boxing and can lead to osteoarthritis later in life. It is an intra-articular fracture of the first metacarpal bone, causing pain, bruising, swelling, and difficulty with pincer grip. Treatment may involve open reduction and fixation if there is significant displacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      18
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of right shoulder pain over the past few months. He reports that the pain increases with overhead movement of the shoulder. Upon examination, the patient displays weakness and pain during abduction and forward flexion of the shoulder. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles: Functions and Injuries

      The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Among these muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, deltoid, and teres minor. Each muscle has a specific function and can be affected by different types of injuries.

      The supraspinatus muscle is commonly affected in rotator cuff syndrome, which is caused by repetitive use of the shoulder joint. This muscle is responsible for abduction of the shoulder and is vulnerable to chronic repetitive trauma due to its location between the humeral head and the acromioclavicular joint.

      The infraspinatus muscle, which is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, is the second most common rotator cuff muscle to be involved in a tear after the supraspinatus.

      The subscapularis muscle, which is mainly involved in internal rotation of the shoulder, is also a rotator cuff muscle but is seldom involved in rotator cuff tears.

      The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is not a rotator cuff muscle but is responsible for abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane. Deltoid tears are unusual and are related to traumatic shoulder dislocation or can be associated with large rotator cuff injuries.

      Finally, the teres minor muscle, which is mainly involved in external rotation of the shoulder, can tear alongside other rotator cuff muscles in injury.

      Understanding the functions and potential injuries of each rotator cuff muscle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of shoulder pain and dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      18.6
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  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an outstretched hand and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to Accident and Emergency and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture. The skin is intact and there is only minor swelling below the elbow, with normal distal pulses.
      Which of the following problems is this child most likely to experience?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Supracondylar Humeral Fractures

      Supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, depending on the location and severity of the fracture. The following are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion: This is most likely due to damage to the median nerve, which innervates these fingers and the flexors in the forearm.

      2. Loss of cutaneous sensation over the area over the shoulder: This is unlikely to be caused by a closed supracondylar fracture, as the cutaneous innervation in that area is a branch of the axillary nerve.

      3. Atrophy of the extensor muscles of the forearm: This is a result of damage to the radial nerve, which is responsible for the extensor mechanisms of the arm.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is most likely due to an ulnar nerve injury, which could occur due to an injury of the medial humeral epicondyle.

      5. Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist): This is caused by lack of circulation in the forearm due to brachial artery damage, leading to tissue death and fibrosis of the muscles. However, this diagnosis can be ruled out if there are distal pulses and lack of excessive swelling.

      In summary, supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, and it is important to identify and manage them appropriately to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      12.7
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  • Question 4 - A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a...

    Correct

    • A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a lag screw fixation of a medial malleolar fracture. The student attempts to remember the structures in the vicinity of the medial malleolus.
      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure passing behind the malleolus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Medial Malleolus: Clarifying Structures Passing Behind

      The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass behind it, and their precise arrangement can be confusing. Here are some clarifications:

      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most posterior structure passing behind the malleolus.
      – The structures passing behind the medial malleolus, from anterior to posterior, are: the tendon of the tibialis posterior, the tendon of the flexor digitorum longus, the posterior tibial vein, the posterior tibial artery, the tibial nerve, and the flexor hallucis longus.
      – The tendon of the flexor digitorum longus lies immediately posterior to that of the tibialis posterior.
      – The great saphenous vein passes in front of the medial malleolus where it can be used for emergency venous access.
      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior lies anterior to the posterior tibial vascular bundle.
      – The posterior tibial vascular bundle lies immediately anterior to the tibial nerve in this region.

      Understanding the anatomy of the medial malleolus and the structures passing behind it is important for medical professionals who may need to access or treat these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain that has been worsening over the past 3 months. She reports that the pain is particularly severe at night and she has recently noticed a painful lump in her right thigh. Although she denies any fever or weight loss, she has been experiencing a cough. Upon examination, a radiograph reveals a characteristic blastic and destructive intramedullary lesion with periosteal reaction and a sizable soft tissue mass. What is the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radiotherapy followed by a wide excision of the lesion

      Correct Answer: Order a whole-body bone scan, computed tomography (CT) chest and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the entire femur

      Explanation:

      Approach to a Patient with Suspected Osteosarcoma

      Suspected osteosarcoma requires a systematic approach to establish a diagnosis and stage the disease before initiating treatment. The patient’s history and examination may suggest osteosarcoma, but staging is necessary to determine the extent of the disease and guide treatment decisions.

      The next step is to stage the patient, which involves a CT chest, a bone scan, and an MRI of the involved bone. Biopsy is required to obtain tissue diagnosis and institute therapy. Treatment of osteosarcoma involves a multidisciplinary team approach and may require preoperative multi-agent chemotherapy to downstage the tumour. The aim of surgical resection is to aim for limb salvage and limb preservation.

      Offering amputation of the affected limb is not appropriate before staging the disease and obtaining a tissue diagnosis. Biopsy will ultimately provide tissue diagnosis and guide subsequent treatment. Repeating radiographs in 3 months to look for progression would be inappropriate. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and wide excision should not be performed prior to staging the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the Emergency Department with a painful and deformed wrist that looks like a dinner fork. A radiograph shows a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Her past medical history includes osteoporosis, type II diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this fracture?

      Your Answer: Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Distal Radial Fracture in an Elderly Patient

      Distal radial fractures, commonly known as Colles’ fractures, are often seen in elderly patients with poor bone quality. There are several treatment options available for this type of fracture, but the choice of treatment depends on various factors, including the patient’s age, overall health, and the severity of the fracture.

      Closed Reduction and Below-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      This is the most common treatment option for distal radial fractures. The fracture can be reduced with closed manipulation following a haematoma block, and then immobilized with a below-elbow backslab (half cast).

      Skeletal Traction
      Skeletal traction is not practical for distal radial fractures as it can cause stiffness in the limb.

      Open Reduction and Internal Fixation
      While open reduction and internal fixation can provide the most anatomical reduction, it comes with risks that may outweigh the benefits, especially in elderly patients with poor bone quality and co-morbidities.

      Intramedullary Rod
      An intramedullary rod is rarely used for upper limb fractures.

      Closed Reduction and Above-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      Although an above-elbow backslab can stabilize the joint above and below the fracture, it is not recommended as it can cause stiffness and difficulty in regaining full use after removal.

      In conclusion, the treatment of distal radial fractures in elderly patients should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s overall health and the severity of the fracture. Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast) is the most common treatment option, while other options should be considered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - De Quervain's syndrome is a condition that involves the stenosing tenosynovitis of the...

    Correct

    • De Quervain's syndrome is a condition that involves the stenosing tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus of the thumb. What condition is strongly linked to De Quervain's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Associations with De Quervain’s Syndrome

      De Quervain’s syndrome is a condition that involves the stenosing tenosynovitis of the short extensor or long abductor tendon of the thumb within the first extensor compartment. While it is not associated with malignancy or cirrhosis, it does have a strong association with rheumatoid arthritis. Patients with diabetes and hypothyroidism are more likely to develop carpal tunnel syndrome rather than De Quervain’s syndrome. It is important to consider these associations when diagnosing and treating patients with hand and wrist pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old retired labourer visits his General Practitioner complaining of generalised pains in...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired labourer visits his General Practitioner complaining of generalised pains in his hands. During the consultation, he mentions that the pain is more severe in the morning and after prolonged use. What clinical indication in his hands indicates the presence of osteoarthritic changes?

      Your Answer: Heberden nodes

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Deformities and Their Causes

      Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard nodes are bony growths that indicate osteoarthritis in the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. Arachnodactyly is characterized by long, thin fingers and is often seen in patients with Marfan syndrome. Claw hand is caused by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints, usually due to an ulnar nerve lesion. Dupuytren’s contracture results in a flexion deformity of the fingers due to thickening of the palmar fascia, often affecting the little and ring fingers. Trigger finger occurs when nodules form on the tendons, causing them to get caught and leading to difficulty in extending and flexing the finger. All of these conditions can cause pain and discomfort in the hand, and may require medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 85-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing pain in his left upper leg over the past 4 months. After conducting a thorough examination and taking a detailed medical history, the GP decides to order a set of blood tests and an X-ray of the left femur. Upon reviewing the results, the GP notices that the X-ray report indicates an area of cotton-wool calcification. What condition is cotton-wool calcification on an X-ray typically linked to?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Chondrosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Bone Tumours and their Characteristics

      Bone tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of bone tumours and their features:

      Chondrosarcoma: This is a malignant tumour that arises from cartilage. It is commonly found in long bones and is characterized by popcorn or cotton wool calcification. Paget’s disease is also associated with cotton wool calcification.

      Osteoid osteoma: This is a benign, isolated lesion that is usually less than 2 cm in size and has an ovoid shape.

      Osteosarcoma: This is the most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by sun-ray spiculations and Codman’s triangle. Codman’s triangle is a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when the periosteum is raised away from the bone by an aggressive bone lesion.

      Ewing’s sarcoma: This is the second most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by onion skin periostitis and Codman’s triangle.

      Osteoclastoma: This is a well-defined, non-sclerotic area that is usually not malignant.

      In summary, bone tumours can have different characteristics and features, and their classification can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his right foot is ‘dropping’ as he walks. Upon examination, you observe that he is unable to dorsiflex his foot, although plantar flexion is normal. Additionally, he exhibits weakness of ankle eversion and some loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of his calf. After conducting a full systemic examination, you find no other abnormalities. The patient has no significant past medical history, except for a distal tibial fracture, which was in a plaster cast until 3 days ago. He works as a builder and consumes approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral ligament complex injury of the ankle

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Explanation: The patient in question is experiencing a foot drop, which is a classic symptom of common peroneal nerve palsy in the right foot. This nerve is responsible for the sensory aspect of the lateral calf and dorsal aspect of the foot, as well as the muscles that evert and dorsiflex the foot and dorsiflexion the toes. Patients with this condition are unable to walk on their heels.

      Common causes of common peroneal nerve palsy include compression of the nerve at the head of the fibula, which is often superficial. In this case, the patient’s plaster cast following a fracture may have caused the compression.

      Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are unlikely causes, as the patient has no joint pain. Peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with numbness and tingling in a glove and stocking distribution, is also unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are localized to the common peroneal nerve.

      A lateral ligament complex injury of the ankle may cause difficulty in eversion, but it would be preceded by an ankle injury and would be very painful, without any neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      27.6
      Seconds

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Orthopaedics (6/10) 60%
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