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Question 1
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. He has a history of lung cancer for which he is currently undergoing radiation therapy. His observations are as follows: HR 92 bpm, BP 130/80, SaO2 98% on air, temperature 38.9°C. A diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis is suspected.
Which of the following antibiotics are recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the initial empiric treatment of neutropenic sepsis?Your Answer: Tazocin alone
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can occur when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is often caused by factors such as chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies.
To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have a temperature higher than 38°C or show other signs and symptoms of significant sepsis.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the recommended initial antibiotic treatment for suspected neutropenic sepsis is monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin 4.5 g IV). It is important to note that aminoglycosides should not be used as monotherapy or in combination therapy unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological reasons to do so.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe, widespread, bright red rash covering her entire torso, face, arms and upper legs. The skin is scaling and peeling in places and feels hot to touch. She was recently prescribed a new medication by her doctor a few days ago and is concerned that this might be the cause.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Exfoliative erythroderma
Explanation:Erythroderma is a condition characterized by widespread redness affecting more than 90% of the body surface. It is also known as exfoliative erythroderma due to the presence of skin exfoliation. Another term used to describe this condition is the red man syndrome.
The clinical features of exfoliative erythroderma include the rapid spread of redness to cover more than 90% of the body surface. Scaling of the skin occurs between days 2 and 6, leading to thickening of the skin. Despite the skin feeling hot, patients often experience a sensation of coldness. Keratoderma, which is the thickening of the skin on the palms and soles, may develop. Over time, erythema and scaling of the scalp can result in hair loss. The nails may become thickened, ridged, and even lost. Lymphadenopathy, or enlarged lymph nodes, is a common finding. In some cases, the patient’s overall health may be compromised.
Exfoliative erythroderma can be caused by various factors, including eczema (with atopic dermatitis being the most common underlying cause), psoriasis, lymphoma and leukemia (with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma being the most common malignant causes), certain drugs (more than 60 drugs have been implicated, with sulphonamides, isoniazid, penicillin, antimalarials, phenytoin, captopril, and cimetidine being the most commonly associated), idiopathic (unknown cause), and rare conditions such as pityriasis rubra pilaris and pemphigus foliaceus. Withdrawal of corticosteroids, underlying infections, hypocalcemia, and the use of strong coal tar preparations can also precipitate exfoliative erythroderma.
Potential complications of exfoliative erythroderma include dehydration, hypothermia, cardiac failure, overwhelming secondary infection, protein loss and edema, anemia (due to loss of iron, B12, and folate), and lymphadenopathy.
Management of exfoliative erythroderma should involve referring the patient to the medical on-call team and dermatology for admission. It is important to keep the patient warm and start intravenous fluids, such as warmed 0.9% saline. Applying generous amounts of emollients and wet dressings can help alleviate
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient complained of feeling sick. On checking the patient's medication, the son suspects he may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. Which electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to triggering digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Digoxin toxicity can be triggered by hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the body. This occurs because digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites, and when potassium levels are low, there is less competition for digoxin to bind to these sites. Additionally, other factors such as hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, and acidosis can also contribute to digoxin toxicity.
Further Reading:
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.
ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity.
Which of the following symptoms is MOST likely to be present?Your Answer: Reduced muscle tone
Correct Answer: Clonus
Explanation:Lithium toxicity presents with various symptoms, including nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, tremor, ataxia, confusion, increased muscle tone, clonus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, convulsions, coma, and renal failure. One notable symptom associated with digoxin toxicity is xanthopsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 3 year old is brought into the emergency department by his father who is concerned as the child was bitten on the arm by his 6 year old sister whilst they were playing together. You examine the bite wound and measure the intercanine distance as 3.8cm. What is the significance of this?
Your Answer: Patient has likely been bitten by a dog and requires antibiotics
Correct Answer: Patient should be referred to child protection team
Explanation:If the distance between the canines is less than 3 cm, it indicates that the bite was likely caused by a child. On the other hand, if the distance is greater than 3 cm, it suggests that the bite was likely caused by an adult. In this particular case, the intercanine distance does not support the mother’s explanation of the injury, indicating that a child is not responsible. Therefore, measures should be taken to ensure the safety of the child, as the story provided by the mother does not align with the injury. In most hospitals, the child protection team is typically led by paediatricians. It is usually possible to differentiate between dog bites and human bites based on the shape of the arch, as well as the morphology of the incisors and canines.
Further Reading:
Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.
Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.
When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.
Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.
The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.
Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.
Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You review a 25-year-old man who presented with a 20-minute history of epistaxis. The bleeding stopped promptly with basic first aid measures and he has remained stable for more than an hour with no signs of recurrent bleeding. You get ready to send him home.
Which of the following medications should be considered for discharge?Your Answer: Oral tranexamic acid
Correct Answer: Topical Naseptin cream
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s airway and circulation.
If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated. Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula and collect blood samples for tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting studies, and blood typing and crossmatching (depending on the amount of blood loss). These patients should be closely monitored in a majors area or a designated observation area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there are signs of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the back of the throat.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply with pinching their own nose, an alternative technique is to ask a relative or staff member to apply external pressure using a device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones of the nose will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead has not been proven to affect nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may help reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it may be beneficial to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and inflammation. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a swollen, red, and painful right knee. Septic arthritis is suspected, and a joint aspirate is sent for laboratory testing. The patient's medical history reveals that she is a known carrier of MRSA, raising concerns of an MRSA infection.
What is the recommended first-line antibiotic for septic arthritis when MRSA is suspected?Your Answer: Vancomycin
Explanation:Septic arthritis occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint, causing it to become purulent. The main symptoms of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset. The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria such as Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Escherichia coli can also be responsible.
According to the current recommendations by NICE and the BNF, the initial treatment for septic arthritis is flucloxacillin. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is a suspicion of MRSA infection, vancomycin is the recommended choice. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or a Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred treatment. The suggested duration of treatment is typically 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with an inability to close their mouth following an accidental elbow to the jaw. The suspicion is a dislocated temporomandibular joint (TMJ). Typically, in which direction does TMJ dislocation occur?
Your Answer: Posterior
Correct Answer: Anterior
Explanation:In most cases, TMJ dislocation occurs in an anterior and bilateral manner.
TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.
The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.
Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.
If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.
Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.
Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.
After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 58 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing dizziness and fainting. An ECG reveals bradycardia with a pulse rate of 44 bpm. His blood pressure is 90/60. The resident physician administers atropine. Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication for giving atropine?
Your Answer: Porphyria
Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus
Explanation:Atropine is a medication that slows down the movement of the digestive system and is not recommended for use in individuals with intestinal blockage. It works by blocking the effects of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine, which is responsible for promoting gastrointestinal motility and the emptying of the stomach. Therefore, atropine should not be given to patients with gastrointestinal obstruction as it can further hinder the movement of the intestines.
Further Reading:
Types of Heart Block:
1. Atrioventricular (AV) Blocks:
– Disrupt electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles at the AV node.
– Three degrees of AV block: first degree, second degree (type 1 and type 2), and third degree (complete) AV block.– First degree AV block: PR interval > 0.2 seconds.
– Second degree AV block:
– Type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs.
– Type 2 (Mobitz II): PR interval is constant, but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.
– Third degree (complete) AV block: no association between the P waves and QRS complexes.Features of complete heart block: syncope, heart failure, regular bradycardia (30-50 bpm), wide pulse pressure, JVP (jugular venous pressure) cannon waves in neck, variable intensity of S1.
2. Bundle Branch Blocks:
– Electrical conduction travels from the bundle of His to the left and right bundle branches.
– Diagnosed when the duration of the QRS complex on the ECG exceeds 120 ms.– Right bundle branch block (RBBB).
– Left bundle branch block (LBBB).
– Left anterior fascicular block (LAFB).
– Left posterior fascicular block (LPFB).
– Bifascicular block.
– Trifascicular block.ECG features of bundle branch blocks:
– RBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, RSR’ pattern in V1-3 (M-shaped QRS complex), wide S wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6).
– LBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, dominant S wave in V1, broad, notched (‘M’-shaped) R wave in V6, broad monophasic R wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6), absence of Q waves in lateral leads, prolonged R wave peak time > 60 ms in leads V5-6.WiLLiaM MaRROW is a useful mnemonic for remembering the morphology of the QRS in leads V1 and V6 for LBBB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 2 year old male is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The child started experiencing episodes of diarrhea and vomiting 2 days ago which have continued today. They are worried as the patient has become lethargic throughout the day and hasn't urinated for several hours. After initial assessment, you decide to administer a 10 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride fluid to treat suspected shock. After giving the fluid bolus, you repeat the patient's observations as shown below:
Initial observation observation after fluid bolus
Pulse 160 148
Respiration rate 52 42
Capillary refill time 5s 4s
Temperature 37.8ºC 37.8ºC
You notice the patient still has cool extremities and mottled skin. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Administer further 10 ml/kg 0.9% sodium chloride fluid bolus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial trauma. Imaging studies show that she has a Le Fort I fracture.
What is the characteristic injury pattern of a Le Fort I fracture?Your Answer: Horizontal fracture across the inferior aspect of the maxilla
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.
The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.
Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.
Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.
Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling in her arms and hands. Upon examination, you observe that her face is also swollen and she has multiple enlarged veins and telangiectasia on her chest. She has a known history of lung cancer.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Superior vena cava syndrome
Explanation:This patient has come in with worsening breathlessness and coughing, along with coughing up blood, all of which are occurring on top of their existing lung cancer. The diagnosis in this case is superior vena cava obstruction, which is being caused by the primary bronchial neoplasm.
The typical clinical presentation of superior vena cava obstruction includes breathlessness and coughing, chest pain, swelling in the neck, face, and arms, dilated veins and telangiectasia on the arms, neck, and chest wall, facial flushing, stridor due to laryngeal edema, and cyanosis.
Given the urgency of the situation, this man will require immediate treatment. Upon initial presentation, it is important to elevate his head and provide supplemental oxygen to alleviate symptoms. Additionally, corticosteroids and diuretics may be administered. Further investigation will be necessary through CT scanning, and radiotherapy may be recommended as a potential course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 13
Incorrect
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There are numerous casualties reported after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. What is the mode of action of sarin gas?
Your Answer: Prevention of re-uptake of adrenaline and norepinephrine
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.
The first compounds to be created are referred to as the G agents (with G representing German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).
In the 1950s, the V agents (with V standing for venomous) were synthesized, and they are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).
One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.
The nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 14
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood film.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Sickle-cell disease
Explanation:Target cells, also referred to as codocytes or Mexican hat cells, are a distinct type of red blood cells that display a unique appearance resembling a shooting target with a bullseye. These cells are commonly observed in individuals with sickle-cell disease, distinguishing it from the other conditions mentioned in the provided options. Hence, sickle-cell disease is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additionally, target cells can also be associated with other conditions such as thalassaemia, liver disease, iron-deficiency anaemia, post splenectomy, and haemoglobin C disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Correct
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You are managing a pediatric patient in the emergency department who needs sedation for suturing. You are considering using ketamine. What is an absolute contraindication to using ketamine in this case?
Your Answer: Aged less than 12 months
Explanation:Ketamine should not be used in children under 12 months old due to the increased risk of laryngospasm and airway complications. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine advises against using ketamine in children under 1 year old in the emergency department, and it should only be administered by experienced clinicians in children aged 5 and under. Ketamine may cause a slight increase in blood pressure and heart rate, making it a suitable option for those with low blood pressure. However, it is contraindicated in individuals with malignant hypertension (blood pressure above 180 mmHg). Please refer to the notes below for additional contraindications.
Further Reading:
Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.
There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.
Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.
The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.
Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.
After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old smoker with a diagnosis of advanced lung cancer with spinal metastases experiences a severe, shooting pain in his left leg. He is currently using a fentanyl patch, but it is not providing relief for the pain.
What would be the most appropriate next course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Gabapentin
Explanation:This patient is currently experiencing neuropathic pain due to spinal metastases from their lung malignancy.
The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the initial treatment is not effective or well-tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs can be considered. If the second and third drugs tried also prove to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, it may be necessary to switch to a different medication. Tramadol should only be considered as a last resort for acute rescue therapy.
For more information on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in adults, please refer to the NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and extending to the groin. Her urine dipstick shows the presence of blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and a diagnosis of ureteric colic is confirmed.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that increases the risk of developing urinary tract stones?Your Answer: Higher socio-economic class
Correct Answer: Excessive citrate in the urine
Explanation:There are several known risk factors for developing urinary tract stones. These include anatomical abnormalities in the renal system, such as a horseshoe kidney or ureteral stricture. Having a family history of renal stones, hypertension, gout, or hyperparathyroidism can also increase the risk. Immobilization, relative dehydration, and certain metabolic disorders that increase solute excretion, like chronic metabolic acidosis or hypercalciuria, are also risk factors. Additionally, a deficiency of citrate in the urine, cystinuria (a genetic aminoaciduria), and the use of certain drugs like diuretics or calcium/vitamin D supplements can contribute to stone formation. Residence in hot and dry climates and belonging to a higher socio-economic class have also been associated with an increased risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF) presents a small, surface-level, cut on his leg that is oozing and still bleeding despite applying pressure for approximately 30 minutes. He is currently taking warfarin for his AF and his INR today is 6.7.
What is the most suitable approach to manage the reversal of his warfarin?Your Answer: Stop warfarin and give IV vitamin K
Explanation:The current recommendations from NICE for managing warfarin in the presence of bleeding or an abnormal INR are as follows:
In cases of major active bleeding, regardless of the INR level, the first step is to stop administering warfarin. Next, 5 mg of vitamin K (phytomenadione) should be given intravenously. Additionally, dried prothrombin complex concentrate, which contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, should be administered. If dried prothrombin complex is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be given at a dose of 15 ml/kg.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 with no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Oral administration of 1-5 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with no bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld, and the subsequent maintenance dose should be reduced.
For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of warfarin therapy and the BNF guidance on the use of phytomenadione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 6-year-old child who has arrived at the emergency department displaying irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and a widespread rash. Upon further investigation, you discover that the patient is a refugee and has not received several vaccinations. The diagnosis of measles is confirmed.
What guidance should you provide regarding the exclusion of this child from school due to measles?Your Answer: 4 days from onset of rash
Explanation:The current school exclusion advice for certain infectious diseases with a rash is as follows:
– For chickenpox, children should be excluded for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash and until all blisters have crusted over.
– In the case of measles, children should be excluded for 4 days from the onset of the rash, provided they are well enough to attend.
– Mumps requires a 5-day exclusion after the onset of swelling.
– Rubella, also known as German measles, requires a 5-day exclusion from the onset of the rash.
– Scarlet fever necessitates exclusion until 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment.It is important to note that school exclusion advice has undergone changes in recent years, and the information provided above reflects the updated advice as of May 2022.
Further Reading:
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.
Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.
The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.
In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.
When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110, blood pressure 102/63, oxygen saturation 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest, reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left side of his chest. He is receiving high-flow oxygen and a blood transfusion of his specific blood type has been initiated.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer: Needle thoracocentesis
Correct Answer: Chest drain insertion
Explanation:A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.
The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.
If 1500 mL of blood is immediately drained or if the rate of ongoing blood loss exceeds 200 mL per hour for 2-4 hours, early thoracotomy should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of genital warts has observed a significant escalation in the quantity and magnitude of her lesions.
What is the PRIMARY factor most likely accountable for this deterioration?Your Answer: New sexual partner
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:During pregnancy, genital warts have the potential to grow larger in size and increase in number. This is because pregnancy causes a state of immunosuppression, which means that the patient’s immune system is unable to effectively suppress the latent HPV virus. Additionally, there are other factors that can contribute to the growth of genital warts. These include areas of moist skin, non-hair bearing skin, poor hygiene, and the presence of vaginal discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a jet skiing accident at a local lake. The patient fell off the jet ski but her leg got caught in the handlebars and she was submerged for 2-3 minutes before being freed. The patient's friends started rescue breaths and chest compressions as the patient was unconscious but were stopped after approximately 30 seconds by an off duty lifeguard who assessed the patient and determined she was breathing spontaneously and had a pulse. On examination, the patient is breathing spontaneously with intermittent coughing, oxygen saturation levels are 97% on room air, a few crackling sounds are heard in the lower parts of the lungs, and the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 13 out of 15.
Which of the following should be included in the initial management of this patient?Your Answer: Turn patient on side with C-spine control and tilt head to floor for 30 seconds to drain water from lungs and upper airways
Correct Answer: Obtain an arterial blood gas sample for evidence of hypoxia
Explanation:It is recommended to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample from all patients who have experienced submersion (drowning) as even individuals without symptoms may have a surprising level of hypoxia. Draining the lungs is not effective and not recommended. There is no strong evidence to support the routine use of antibiotics as a preventive measure. Steroids have not been proven to be effective in treating drowning. All drowning patients, except those with normal oxygen levels, normal saturations, and normal lung sounds, should receive supplemental oxygen as significant hypoxia can occur without causing difficulty in breathing.
Further Reading:
Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.
When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.
Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.
Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.
Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they have taken an overdose. The patient states that they are unsure of the exact number of tablets consumed but estimate it to be around 100 aspirin tablets. You are concerned about the severity of the overdose and its potential consequences. Which of the following is an indication for haemodialysis in patients with salicylate poisoning?
Your Answer: Patient taking long term steroids
Correct Answer: Salicylate level of 715 mg/L
Explanation:Haemodialysis is recommended for patients with salicylate poisoning if they meet any of the following criteria: plasma salicylate level exceeding 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that does not improve with treatment (plasma pH below 7.2), acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures, coma, unresolved central nervous system effects despite correcting acidosis, persistently high salicylate concentrations that do not respond to urinary alkalinisation. Severe cases of salicylate poisoning, especially in patients under 10 years old or over 70 years old, may require dialysis earlier than the listed indications.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 24
Correct
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You are a member of the team assisting with the intubation of a pediatric patient. The initial intubation attempt is unsuccessful. Your attending physician instructs you to apply pressure on the larynx during the second attempt. With the patient positioned in a semi-recumbent position, which direction should pressure be applied to aid in intubation?
Your Answer: Backwards, upwards and rightwards
Explanation:The BURP maneuver is a technique used to assist with intubation. It involves applying pressure in a specific direction on the larynx. The acronym BURP stands for backwards (B), upwards (U), rightwards (R), and pressure (P). To perform the maneuver correctly, the thyroid cartilage is moved backwards, 2 cm upwards, and 0.5cm – 2 cm to the right in relation to the anatomical position.
Further Reading:
A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.
Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.
If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy presents with a sore throat and a dry cough that has been present for five days. He has no medical history of note, takes no medication and reports no known drug allergies. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C and has a few tender anterior cervical lymph nodes. His throat and tonsils appear red and inflamed, and you can see copious exudate on his right tonsil.
Using the FeverPAIN Score to assess his sore throat, which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE management for him at this stage?Your Answer: She should be offered a 'back-up prescription' for penicillin V
Explanation:The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, recommendations for antibiotic use are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates an unlikely streptococcal infection, with antibiotics not recommended; a score of 2-3 suggests a 34-40% chance of streptococcus, and delayed prescribing of antibiotics may be considered; a score of 4 or higher indicates a 62-65% chance of streptococcus, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended for severe cases, or a short back-up prescription may be given for 48 hours.
The Fever PAIN score was developed through a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was tested in a trial comparing three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, score-directed prescribing, and a combination of the score with a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and reduced antibiotic prescribing by one third. The addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
According to the current NICE guidelines, if antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin is recommended as the first-choice antibiotic. In cases of true penicillin allergy, clarithromycin can be used as an alternative. For pregnant women with a penicillin allergy, erythromycin is prescribed. It is important to note that the threshold for prescribing antibiotics should be lower for individuals at risk of rheumatic fever and vulnerable groups managed in primary care, such as infants, the elderly, and those who are immunosuppressed or immunocompromised. Antibiotics should not be withheld if the person has severe symptoms and there are concerns about their clinical condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and extending to the groin. The patient is agitated and unable to stay still, and she also reports significant nausea. Her urine dipstick shows positive results for blood only.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal colic
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.
The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the flank or loin area and radiating to the groin or testicle in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.
The pain experienced during renal or ureteric colic is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever felt, with many women comparing it to the pain of childbirth. Restlessness and an inability to find relief by lying still are common signs, which can help differentiate renal colic from peritonitis. Previous episodes of similar pain may also be reported by the individual. In cases where there is a concomitant urinary infection, fever and sweating may be present. Additionally, the person may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.
It is important to seek urgent medical attention if certain conditions are met. These include signs of systemic infection or sepsis, such as fever or sweating, or if the person is at a higher risk of acute kidney injury, such as having pre-existing chronic kidney disease, a solitary or transplanted kidney, or suspected bilateral obstructing stones. Hospital admission is also necessary if the person is dehydrated and unable to consume fluids orally due to nausea and/or vomiting. If there is uncertainty regarding the diagnosis, it is recommended to consult further resources, such as the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man comes in with an acute episode of gout.
Which SINGLE statement regarding the management of acute gout is accurate?Your Answer: It is appropriate to start Allopurinol at 100-300 mg per day
Correct Answer: A common first-line treatment is Naproxen as a stat dose of 750 mg followed by 250 mg TDS
Explanation:In cases where there are no contraindications, high-dose NSAIDs are the recommended initial treatment for acute gout. A commonly used and effective regimen is to administer a stat dose of Naproxen 750 mg, followed by 250 mg three times a day. It is important to note that Aspirin should not be used in gout as it hinders the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Instead, more appropriate choices include Naproxen, diclofenac, or indomethacin.
Allopurinol is typically used as a prophylactic measure to prevent future gout attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. However, it should not be initiated during the acute phase of an attack as it can worsen the severity and duration of symptoms.
Colchicine works by binding to tubulin and preventing neutrophil migration into the joint. It is just as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute gout attacks. Additionally, it has a role in prophylactic treatment if a patient cannot tolerate Allopurinol.
It is important to note that NSAIDs are contraindicated in patients with heart failure as they can lead to fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. In such cases, Colchicine is the preferred treatment option for patients with heart failure or those who cannot tolerate NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A man in his early forties who works at a steel mill is hit in the front of his abdomen by a steel girder. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the existence of free fluid within the abdominal cavity.
Which organ is most likely to have sustained an injury in this scenario?Your Answer: Colon
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Blunt abdominal trauma often leads to injuries in certain organs. According to the latest edition of the ATLS manual, the spleen is the most frequently injured organ, with a prevalence of 40-55%. Following closely behind is the liver, which sustains injuries in about 35-45% of cases. The small bowel, although less commonly affected, still experiences injuries in approximately 5-10% of patients. It is worth noting that patients who undergo laparotomy for blunt trauma have a 15% incidence of retroperitoneal hematoma. These statistics highlight the significant impact of blunt abdominal trauma on organ health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old carpenter comes in with a chief complaint of shoulder pain that worsens with repetitive overhead tasks. Additionally, he reports experiencing nighttime pain and difficulty in raising his arm. There is no history of any injuries.
Which muscle is most likely to be affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The supraspinatus tendon passes through a narrow space located between the underside of the acromion and acromioclavicular joint, as well as the head of the humerus. When the tendon becomes trapped in this space, it can cause pain and restrict movement, especially during overhead activities. This condition is known as subacromial impingement.
Impingement can occur due to various factors, such as thickening of the tendon caused by partial tears, inflammation, or degeneration. It can also be a result of the space narrowing due to osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint or the presence of bone spurs. Some individuals may have a naturally downward sloping acromion, which makes them more susceptible to impingement.
Certain professions that involve a significant amount of overhead work, like plasterers, builders, and decorators, are particularly prone to developing subacromial impingement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 30
Correct
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A 72-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after experiencing respiratory distress. You observe that the patient has a tracheostomy tube in place, which the patient's wife informs you was inserted before undergoing radiation therapy. The patient finished radiation therapy one month ago. What should be the initial step in evaluating this patient?
Your Answer: Remove inner tube
Explanation:When a patient with a tracheostomy is experiencing difficulty breathing, the first step is to assess their condition and provide them with oxygen. If there is suspected obstruction, one of the initial steps to resolve it is to remove the inner tube of the tracheostomy. After that, the mouth and tracheostomy should be examined, and if the patient is breathing, high flow oxygen should be applied to both the mouth and the tracheostomy stoma site. The next steps in managing the patient would be to pass a suction catheter. If the catheter cannot be passed, the cuff should be deflated. If the patient does not stabilize or improve, the tracheostomy tube should be removed. This order of steps is summarized in the green algorithm.
Further Reading:
Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.
When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.
Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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