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Question 1
Correct
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A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past two months. He reports that the pain is at its worst in the morning. He also experiences intermittent pain and swelling in his right ankle, which he injured while running a year ago. Two weeks ago, he visited the Emergency department with a painful red eye, which was treated with eye drops. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 45 cigarettes a day, and drinks five pints of beer every weekend. He denies any skin rashes or mucosal ulceration. His mother had rheumatoid arthritis, and his father had severe gout. On direct questioning, he admits to being diagnosed with chlamydia four months ago. During the examination, his right ankle was swollen at the site of Achilles' tendon insertion, but all other joints were unremarkable. Flexion of the lumbar spine was reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man?
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Spondyloarthritis: A Group of Related Disorders
The patient’s history suggests the presence of spondyloarthritis, which is a group of related but distinct disorders. These include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and a subgroup of juvenile idiopathic arthritis. HLA-B27 is a predisposing factor for all these disorders and is present in a high percentage of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis. Ankylosing spondylitis is a severe form of spondyloarthritis that mainly affects the entheses and leads to spinal immobility. TNF-antagonists are the primary treatment, but physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents also have a role.
Reactive arthritis is the most common type of inflammatory polyarthritis in young men and is an important differential diagnosis in this case. It typically follows genitourinary infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or enteric infections with certain strains of Salmonella or Shigella. Treatment with doxycycline can sometimes shorten the course of the disease if associated with Chlamydia infection. In general, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are used for treatment, with intra-articular corticosteroids if large joints are involved.
In conclusion, spondyloarthritis is a group of related disorders that share a common predisposing factor and can cause significant morbidity. Ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis are two of the most common types, and their diagnosis should be considered in patients with suggestive symptoms. Treatment options include TNF-antagonists, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment
Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.
Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.
If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult to get out of her chair. She also complains of a right-sided temporal headache, which is often triggered when she brushes her hair. A diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis is suspected.
Which of the following blood tests is most useful in supporting the diagnosis?Your Answer: Bence Jones proteins
Correct Answer: Plasma viscosity
Explanation:Diagnostic Markers for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Temporal arthritis
Polymyalgia rheumatica and temporal arthritis are inflammatory conditions that can cause significant morbidity if left untreated. Here are some diagnostic markers that can help support or rule out these conditions:
Plasma viscosity: A raised plasma viscosity can support a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis, but it is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.
Creatine kinase: A raised creatine kinase is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Monospot test: A positive monospot test is supportive of a diagnosis of Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Whole cell count (WCC): A raised WCC is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Bence Jones proteins: Presence of Bence Jones protein is supportive of a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
If temporal arthritis is suspected, immediate treatment with prednisolone is crucial to prevent permanent loss of vision. A temporal artery biopsy can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Man with Purpura and Haematuria
The patient in question presents with a purpuric rash on the back, buttocks, and extensor surfaces of the lower limbs, as well as haematuria. The following is a differential diagnosis of possible conditions that could be causing these symptoms.
Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
The clinical presentation is entirely typical of HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria. It should be noted that platelet numbers are usually normal or raised in HSP, so thrombocytopaenia is not expected.Haemophilia A
This condition is not likely as it results in joint and muscle bleeding, which is not present in this case. Additionally, haemophilia would not cause haematuria.Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
While purpura is a symptom of ITP, a reduced platelet count is typically present. Without a discussion of platelet levels, it is difficult to justify a diagnosis of ITP. Additionally, ITP would not result in haematuria.Leukaemia
If acute leukaemia were causing the symptoms, thrombocytopaenia might be expected. However, the clinical presentation is more compatible with HSP, and thrombocytopaenia alone would not result in haematuria.Thalassaemia trait
There is no indication in the history to suggest this condition, and it would not result in purpura. Thalassaemia trait is typically asymptomatic.In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee which is asymmetrical and has been going on for the past few months. She has developed a rash on her face and has developed a dry cough and pain on inspiration. She has a child but has had two previous miscarriages (Gravida 3, Para 1). She has no other concurrent medical problems or medications.
Testing for which one of the following autoantibodies is most likely to reveal the diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Anti-centromere
Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA
Explanation:Understanding Autoantibodies: Differentiating Connective Tissue Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. These antibodies can be used as diagnostic markers for various connective tissue diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of autoantibodies and their association with specific diseases.
Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem connective tissue disease that can affect the heart, lungs, kidneys, and brain. Patients with SLE may present with a malar rash, polyarthritis, and pleuritis, as well as an increased rate of miscarriage.
Anti-Jo is associated with myositis, such as polymyositis or dermatomyositis, which present with muscle pain and a rash but no pleuritic pain or an associated history of miscarriage.
Anti-Ro is associated with Sjögren syndrome, which can have similar features to SLE, including myalgia or polyarthralgia in 50% of patients, as well as skin features of purpura and annular erythema. However, it will not cause pleuritic pain.
Anti-centromere is associated with limited cutaneous scleroderma, a multisystem autoimmune disease resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue. It can cause nonspecific musculoskeletal pain but not an associated history of pleuritic and miscarriage.
Anti-Rh is an antibody to a receptor on blood cells and is not associated with connective tissue disease.
In conclusion, the presence or absence of autoantibodies does not confirm or exclude a diagnosis of connective tissue disease. A diagnosis is based on a combination of clinical presentation and laboratory tests. Understanding the association between autoantibodies and specific diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these complex conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling on her right knee for the past month. She denies any fevers and is generally in good health. During the examination of her right knee, the doctor notices a slightly tender swelling in front of the patella that feels fluctuant. Although the knee is not red, it is warm to the touch, and the patient experiences some discomfort when flexing it. What are the probable results of joint aspiration?
Your Answer: Gram-positive cocci
Correct Answer: Clear/milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture
Explanation:Diagnosing Prepatellar Bursitis: Understanding Joint Aspirate Results
Prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, is a common condition caused by inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This can result from repetitive microtrauma, such as prolonged kneeling. Patients typically present with localised, mildly tender swelling over the patella, which can be warm but not hot. Aspiration of the aseptic bursa will reveal a clear and/or milky aspirate that has negative Gram staining and normal microscopy.
When examining joint aspirate results, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses. Gram-positive cocci, for example, would be grown in the case of Staphylococcus aureus infection, a common cause of septic bursitis. However, in the absence of fever, erythema, and reduced range of motion, septic arthritis is unlikely. Similarly, needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in gout, but this condition typically presents with acute pain, redness, and inflammation.
Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in pseudogout, which can affect the knee. However, this condition typically affects the entire knee joint and is more common in the elderly.
In summary, a clear or milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture is consistent with prepatellar bursitis. Other potential diagnoses should be considered based on the patient’s history and examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student midwife presents with increasing pain and swelling of the ring finger of her left hand. The pain and swelling started two days ago and is now extremely uncomfortable to the point the patient has been avoiding using the left hand altogether. She cannot remember injuring the affected area, and is usually fit and well, without medical conditions to note except an allergy to peanuts.
On examination, the affected finger is markedly swollen and erythematosus, with tenderness to touch – especially along the flexor aspect of the finger. The patient is holding the finger in slight flexion; attempts at straightening the finger passively causes the patient extreme pain. The patient is diagnosed with tenosynovitis.
About which one of the following conditions should the presence of acute migratory tenosynovitis in young adults, particularly women aged 20, alert the doctor?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Correct Answer: Disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:Migratory tenosynovitis can be caused by disseminated gonococcal infection in younger adults, particularly women. It is important to test for C6-C9 complement deficiency. Rheumatoid arthritis can also cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory and is usually found in the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints. Scleroderma can cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory either. Fluoroquinolone toxicity may increase the risk of tendinopathy and tendon rupture, but it does not cause migratory tenosynovitis. Reactive arthritis can cause tendinitis, but it is more prevalent in men and is not migratory. It is a rheumatoid factor-seronegative arthritis that can be linked with HLA-B27.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?Your Answer: Anti-Jo-1 antibody
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody
Explanation:Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases
Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:
1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).
2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.
3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.
4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.
5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.
By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic complaining of cramp-like pain in the forefoot that has been bothering them for the past week. During the examination, tenderness was noted over the dorsal distal portion of the second metatarsal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture
Correct Answer: March fracture
Explanation:Common Foot Injuries and Their Causes
March fracture, Lisfranc injury, Hallux Rigidus, Jones fracture, and proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture are all common foot injuries that can cause significant pain and discomfort. A March fracture is a stress fracture of one of the metatarsal bones caused by repetitive stress, often seen in soldiers and hikers. Lisfranc injury occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus due to excessive kinetic energy, such as in a traffic collision. Hallux Rigidus is degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, resulting in stiffness and pain. Jones fracture is a fracture in the fifth metatarsal of the foot, while proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion.
Based on the onset of symptoms and tenderness over the distal portion of the second metatarsal, a March fracture is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention for any foot injury to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For the past 2–3 months, she has suffered from increasing pain and stiffness, particularly in the early part of the day, affecting her shoulders and, most recently, her hips. There has also been low-grade fever and she has lost 4 kg in weight. Examination reveals normal proximal muscle strength.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 111 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 345 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Creatine kinase 31 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Chest X-ray (CXR) Slight cardiomegaly, otherwise normal
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyositis
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Shoulder and Pelvic Girdle Pain
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with shoulder and pelvic girdle pain without muscle weakness and a markedly raised ESR. Rapid improvement of symptoms with corticosteroids and a subsequent fall in ESR confirms the diagnosis. Temporal arthritis, a vasculitis associated with PMR, should also be considered in patients over 50 presenting with headache, vision loss, and jaw claudication. Myositis and dermatomyositis are less likely diagnoses due to the patient’s normal CK and lack of muscle weakness. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely given the patient’s age and the classic joint involvement pattern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful right knee. Upon examination, there is joint effusion and pyrexia, and frank pus is aspirated. What is the most probable infecting organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Septic Arthritis
Septic arthritis is a serious condition that occurs when a joint becomes infected. The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas spp can also cause septic arthritis, but it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users. Escherichia coli is another pathogen that can cause septic arthritis, but it is less common than S. aureus. In children under the age of two, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common organism causing septic arthritis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a common cause of arthritis in the United States, but it is uncommon in Western Europe. It is important to identify the causative organism in order to provide appropriate treatment for septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 70-year-old woman who presents with bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness, fatigue, weight loss, and elevated ESR levels?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differentiating between Rheumatic Diseases: A Case Study
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common inflammatory rheumatic disease in the elderly population, presenting as pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips. In contrast, polymyositis is an autoimmune connective tissue disease that results in proximal muscle weakness. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells, causing bone pain, renal failure, and anaemia. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory, symmetrical polyarthropathy that tends to cause joint stiffness and pain within the small joints, as well as causing fatigue. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative arthritis that commonly affects the knee, hip, spine, and hands.
In this case study, the patient presented with shoulder stiffness, fatigue, low-grade fever, and anaemia. A diagnosis of PMR was made clinically and with the aid of a raised ESR. Treatment is with oral prednisolone, which should be reduced gradually once symptoms are controlled to avoid the risks of chronic steroid use.
It is important to differentiate between these rheumatic diseases as they have different underlying causes, presentations, and treatments. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations are necessary for accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he developed diarrhoea that lasted for 1 week. He returned to the United States and, a few weeks later, visited his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of pain in his knee and both heels. His eyes have become red and he has developed some painless, red, confluent plaques on his hands and feet, which his PCP has diagnosed as psoriasis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Reactive Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Reactive arthritis is a condition characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It typically occurs 1-3 weeks after an initial infection, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter being the most common causative agents. In addition to the classic triad of symptoms, patients may also experience keratoderma blennorrhagica and buccal and lingual ulcers.
When considering differential diagnoses, it is important to note that inflammatory arthritides can be seropositive or seronegative. Seronegative spondyloarthritides include ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and gonococcal arthritis.
Gonococcal arthritis is a form of septic arthritis that typically affects a single joint and presents with a hot, red joint and systemic signs of infection. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, does not present with any clinical features in this patient. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, which is less likely in a patient with a recent history of travel and diarrhea. Psoriatic arthritis is unlikely to present simultaneously with psoriasis in a young, previously healthy patient without any prior history of either condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer: Infliximab
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of breath during light activity and has developed a dry cough. Upon testing, her oxygen saturation was found to be 87% while breathing normally. A chest x-ray revealed a diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrate. Despite an extensive infection screening, no infections were found, leading doctors to believe that her symptoms are a result of a drug she is taking. Which medication is the most likely culprit for this adverse reaction?
Your Answer: Cyclosporin
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Potential Side Effects of Common Rheumatoid Arthritis Medications
Methotrexate, a commonly prescribed medication for rheumatoid arthritis, has been known to cause acute pneumonitis and interstitial lung disease. Although this is a rare complication, it can be fatal and should be closely monitored. Azathioprine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression and increase the risk of infection. Cyclosporin, often used in combination with other medications, can cause neurological and visual disturbances. Hydroxychloroquine, while generally well-tolerated, can lead to abdominal pain and visual disturbances in cases of toxicity. Sulfasalazine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can affect liver function tests and cause bone marrow suppression, requiring careful monitoring.
It is important for patients to be aware of the potential side effects of their medications and to communicate any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular monitoring and follow-up appointments can help to identify and manage any adverse effects. With proper management, the benefits of these medications can outweigh the risks for many patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
What is the most effective treatment option at this point?Your Answer: Combination of gold, leflunomide and methotrexate
Correct Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs
Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.
Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.
In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen left knee that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He is running a fever. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was recently diagnosed and is being treated with NSAIDs and low-dose oral corticosteroids. He reports that he visited his general practitioner 5 days ago for a painful right ear, and was prescribed antibiotics for an ear infection. Upon examination, the left knee is swollen, red, tender, and slightly flexed, leading to a diagnosis of septic arthritis. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Bacterial Causes of Septic Arthritis
Septic arthritis can be caused by a variety of bacterial organisms. Among them, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common aetiological agent in Europe and the United States. Streptococcus pyogenes is the next most commonly isolated bacteria, often associated with autoimmune diseases, chronic skin infections, and trauma. Gram-negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, account for approximately 10-20% of cases, with a higher prevalence in patients with a history of intravenous drug abuse, extremes of age, or immunocompromised status. Historically, Haemophilus influenzae, S. aureus, and group A streptococci were the most common causes of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years, but the overall incidence of H. influenzae is decreasing due to vaccination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a less common cause, may affect children, the elderly, intravenous drug users, and immunocompromised patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman who has suffered many years from aggressive rheumatoid arthritis presents for review. Most recently, she has suffered from two severe respiratory tract infections (which have been treated with oral clarithromycin) and has had worsening left upper quadrant pain. She currently takes low-dose prednisolone for her rheumatoid. On examination, there are obvious signs of active rheumatoid disease. Additionally, you can feel the tip of her spleen when you ask her to roll onto her right-hand side.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 1.9 × 109/l (neutrophil 0.9) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 90 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Rheumatoid factor +++
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 52 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Myeloma
Correct Answer: Felty’s syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Splenomegaly, Neutropenia, and Active Rheumatoid Disease
Felty’s Syndrome:
The patient’s symptoms of splenomegaly, neutropenia, and active rheumatoid disease suggest Felty’s syndrome. This condition is thought to occur due to the sequestration and destruction of granulocytes, potentially caused by reduced granulocyte growth factors and autoantibodies/immune complexes formed against them. Felty’s syndrome affects 1-3% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and has a higher prevalence in females. Treatment typically involves the use of methotrexate as a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug, with splenectomy reserved as a last resort.Lymphoma:
While lymphoma can present with lymphadenopathy, the absence of B-symptoms such as fever, night sweats, weight loss, or pruritus makes this diagnosis less likely in this case.Myeloma:
Myeloma often presents with anaemia and bone pain, as well as hypercalcaemia. Serum and urine electrophoresis are important investigations for this condition.Sarcoidosis:
Sarcoidosis commonly presents with respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, cough, and shortness of breath, as well as erythema nodosum and lymphadenopathy on examination. While the patient has a history of lower respiratory tract infections, her response to clarithromycin suggests an infective cause rather than sarcoidosis.Tuberculosis:
The patient does not have any clinical features or risk factors for tuberculosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over the last year. She has suffered from rheumatoid arthritis for a long time and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. On examination, there are some crepitations at the right lung base and splenomegaly. She has some abnormal discolouration on her legs.
Full blood counts showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 96 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hodgkin’s disease
Correct Answer: Felty syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and skin changes
Felty syndrome and other potential diagnoses
Felty syndrome is a rare complication of rheumatoid arthritis that affects about 1% of patients. It is characterized by the presence of three main features: splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), neutropenia (low white blood cell count), and recurrent infections. Skin changes on the lower limbs, such as ulcers or nodules, are also common in Felty syndrome. The exact cause of this syndrome is unknown, but it is thought to be related to immune dysregulation and chronic inflammation.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and drug-induced neutropenia. CLL is a type of blood cancer that affects mainly older adults and causes the accumulation of abnormal lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, and lymph nodes. However, in this case, the patient’s white blood cell count is low, which is not typical of CLL. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are types of cancer that affect the lymphatic system and may cause lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or systemic symptoms in this scenario.
Drug-induced neutropenia is a potential side effect of methotrexate, which is a commonly used medication for rheumatoid arthritis. However, splenomegaly is not a typical feature of methotrexate toxicity, and respiratory complications are more common than hematological ones. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Felty syndrome, which requires close monitoring and management of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) may be considered to improve neutropenia and reduce the risk of infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has been scheduled for a left total knee replacement in one month’s time. She has a past medical history significant for rheumatoid arthritis (RA), for which she takes methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine.
Which of the following investigations would be most important before the patient’s operation?Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor levels
Correct Answer: Cervical spine X-rays
Explanation:The Importance of Pre-Operative Testing for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) require special considerations before undergoing elective surgery. One important test to consider is a cervical spine X-ray, as RA can lead to subluxation and instability in the cervical spine. This is particularly important for patients who will be intubated during surgery, as neck manipulation can exacerbate any underlying instability.
Another important consideration for RA patients is regular eye exams to test for retinal toxicity, especially for those taking hydroxychloroquine as part of their treatment regimen. However, this is not necessarily required before elective surgery.
While rheumatoid factor levels and anti-citrullinated protein antibody levels can be elevated in RA patients, they are not the most important tests to consider before surgery. Instead, a plain film of the cervical spine should be the primary investigation for patients with a history of RA.
Overall, pre-operative testing for RA patients should be tailored to their specific needs and potential risks during surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents for review, complaining of pain in his knees. There is also stiffness in his fingers and he finds it difficult to use his computer. There is a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 10 mg, and type II diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He had been given a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis some years ago but has had no recent symptoms. On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 34; blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and he has swelling and bony deformity of both knees. There is crepitus and anterior knee pain on flexion. Examination of the hands reveals Heberden’s nodes.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 120 g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Rheumatoid factor Negative
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
X-ray of both knees reveals reduced joint space, subchondral sclerosis and cyst formation and osteophytes within the joint space.
Which of the following fits best with the diagnosis?Your Answer: Enteropathic arthropathy
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The woman in the picture appears to have osteoarthritis, which is commonly seen in overweight individuals affecting weight-bearing joints like the knees. The changes in her hands also suggest osteoarthritis. Treatment options include weight reduction, pain relief medication like paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, or knee replacement surgery. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely as her ESR and rheumatoid factor are normal. Seronegative arthritis is also unlikely as it is associated with raised inflammatory markers, which are not present in this case. Enteropathic arthropathy is unlikely as there are no recent symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease. Osteoporosis is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause knee or finger pain, but rather presents following a fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fever, morning stiffness, and joint pain. The patient reports a constant, dull pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints bilaterally, with an intensity of 3/10. Her medical history is unremarkable, but her family history includes a skin condition and rheumatoid arthritis. The patient consumes 15 alcoholic units per week and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.1 °C. The DIP joints are warm and swollen, and there is symmetric nail pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's current presentation?
Your Answer: Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) positivity
Correct Answer: Appearance of a silver, scaly rash
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritides: Understanding Clinical and Laboratory Findings
Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, and it can be challenging to distinguish between the various types that exist. However, by considering the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis.
For instance, psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory subtype of arthritis that often affects the DIP joints, sausage digits, and nails. The classic X-ray finding of psoriatic arthritis is the pencil in a cup appearance, although it is not specific to the disease. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by PIP and MCP joint involvement, wrist and cervical spine pain, and positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.
Septic arthritis is a medical emergency that usually involves large joints and is associated with high fever, chills, and rapid joint destruction. Synovial fluid analysis may reveal Gram-positive cocci in cases of septic arthritis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that is associated with subchondral cyst formation, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation. It typically affects the DIP and PIP joints and large weight-bearing joints, but it is not an inflammatory arthritis.
In summary, understanding the clinical and laboratory findings associated with different types of arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with widespread pain for the past month. The pain radiates all over but is worse in her shoulders, neck and lower back. It tends to be worse in the mornings and in cold weather. She reports that she is not able to sleep and feels lethargic during the day. Her partner reports that she has been more forgetful recently. She has otherwise been well without recent illnesses. On examination, there is clear tenderness to the affected areas. There are no other significant findings.
Which of the following is an appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Aerobic exercise
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that causes widespread pain, increased sensitivity to pain, and psychological symptoms. Treatment options can be divided into generic and patient-focused treatments. Aerobic exercise is a first-line, generic treatment that has been shown to improve symptoms of pain and physical function. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a patient-focused treatment that may be considered for patients with pain-related depression, anxiety, catastrophizing, and/or passive or active coping strategies. Anaerobic exercise should be avoided as it may increase inflammation and oxidative stress. Duloxetine and pregabalin are pharmacotherapy options for patients with severe pain or sleep disturbance, but only after non-pharmacological treatments have failed. It is important to tailor treatment to each patient’s individual needs.
Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?
Your Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:
1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.
2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.
3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.
4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.
5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.
Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee. There has been no history of trauma. He recently had a negative sexual health check and has not had any new partners since. Upon examination, the left knee is unable to fully extend and there is a large effusion. The clinical suspicion is septic arthritis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Septic Arthritis: Causes and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a rheumatological emergency that requires urgent attention. A red, hot, swollen joint may indicate septic arthritis, which can be caused by a variety of pathogens. The most common pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, and joint destruction can occur within 24 hours if left untreated. It is important to consider and treat septic arthritis urgently or until firmly excluded by joint aspiration. The empirical antibiotic regime should be consulted in local health authority guidelines or with a microbiologist. Intravenous drugs should be used for 2 weeks and a total course of 6 weeks completed. Other pathogens that can cause septic arthritis include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus viridans, and Salmonella typhi. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the cause of septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the doctor with complaints of widespread aches, bone pains, headaches, and nerve entrapment syndromes that have been bothering him for several years. His blood work reveals an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, and his urine test shows an increased urinary hydroxyproline. The X-ray of his skull displays a mix of lysis and sclerosis with thickened trabeculae. What medication would be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Antidepressant medication
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonates to inhibit osteoclastic activity
Explanation:Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease: Oral Bisphosphonates and More
Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, which can lead to a range of symptoms including bone pain, fractures, and osteoarthritis. Diagnosis is typically made through radiograph findings and laboratory tests. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of symptoms, with physiotherapy and NSAIDs being effective for mild cases. However, for more severe cases, oral bisphosphonates and calcitonin may be necessary to inhibit osteoclastic activity. Chelation therapy, antidepressant medication, and chemotherapy for osteosarcoma are not indicated for Paget’s disease. Operative therapy may be necessary for patients with degenerative joint disease and pathological fractures, but should be preceded by treatment with oral bisphosphonates or calcitonin to reduce bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of bilateral knee pain that has persisted for 4 months, despite taking paracetamol PRN. Her recent knee X-rays reveal moderate degenerative changes, and she has requested physiotherapy. What additional treatment should be initiated while waiting for physiotherapy?
Your Answer: Capsaicin cream
Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)
Explanation:Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) are a good option for patients experiencing knee or hand symptoms. Regular paracetamol or oral NSAIDs are not provided as choices. Co-codamol is effective for moderate-to-severe pain, but should only be used after trying regular paracetamol and NSAIDs due to potential side-effects. Acupuncture is not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment as studies have shown little to no effectiveness. Capsaicin cream can be used if other treatments are ineffective. Glucosamine and chondroitin are not recommended by NICE for osteoarthritis treatment due to inconsistent research outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers, wrists and elbows. She also reports significant morning stiffness which lasts for up to 90 minutes and is finding it very difficult to get up for work in the morning. There is a history of deep vein thrombosis during her second pregnancy, but no other significant past medical history. Her only medication of note is the oral contraceptive pill.
On examination, she has evidence of active synovitis affecting her wrists and the small joints of her fingers.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 193 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Rheumatoid factor Positive
Anti-nuclear factor Weakly positive
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis: Differential Diagnosis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a common autoimmune disorder that affects the joints, causing morning stiffness and small joint polyarthritis. A positive rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of patients, while anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis and can be useful in rheumatoid factor-negative cases.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, seronegative arthritis, and polymyalgia rheumatica. However, in this case, there are no other features to suggest SLE, one episode of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is insufficient to suggest antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, the patient is seropositive for rheumatoid factor ruling out seronegative arthritis, and there is no story of proximal muscle pain which could be suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica. Therefore, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is most likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain worsens towards the end of the day. He has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. Radiographs reveal prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies and sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum. What is the most likely pathologic process occurring in this patient?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis
Degenerative osteoarthritis is a condition that becomes more prevalent and symptomatic as one ages. It is characterized by the erosion and loss of articular cartilage. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, leading to marked joint deformity due to a destructive pannus. Gouty arthritis, on the other hand, is more likely to cause swelling and deformity with joint destruction, and the pain is not related to usage. Osteomyelitis, meanwhile, is an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Lastly, Lyme disease produces a chronic arthritis, but it is typically preceded by a deer tick bite with a skin lesion. It is much less common than osteoarthritis. By the differences between these types of arthritis, proper diagnosis and treatment can be given to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms
A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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