-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A patient suffered from a chest injury while working out in the gym. As a consequence of his injury, his pectoralis minor muscle was damaged.Which of the following statements regarding the pectoralis minor muscle is considered correct?
Your Answer: It is thicker than pectoralis major
Correct Answer: It stabilises the scapula
Explanation:The pectoralis minor, in comparison to the pectoralis major, is much thinner and triangular in shape and resides below the major. It originates from the margins of the third to fifth ribs adjacent to the costochondral junction. The fibres consequently pass upward and laterally to insert into the medial border and superior surface of the coracoid process. It is crucial in the stabilization of the scapula by pulling it downward and anteriorly against the thoracic wall.Arterial supply to the pectoralis minor also derives from the pectoral branch of the thoracoacromial trunk. Nerve supply of the pectoralis minor is a function of the lateral pectoral nerve and the medial pectoral nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?
Your Answer: 25% of the systolic pressure over the first hour
Correct Answer: 25% of the mean arterial pressure over the first hour
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which cervical interspace is most likely injured if a patient presents with difficulty of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, pain in the right shoulder and lateral arm, and decreased sensation over the deltoid and lateral arm?
Your Answer: C6-C7
Correct Answer: C4-C5
Explanation:In the setting of cervical radiculopathy, because the nerve root of a spinal nerve is compressed or otherwise impaired, the pain and symptomatology can spread far from the neck and radiates to arm, neck, chest, upper back and/or shoulders. Often muscle weakness and impaired deep tendon reflexes are noted along the course of the spinal nerve.Cervical radiculopathy is almost always unilateral, although, in rare cases, both nerves at a given level may be impacted. Those rare presentations can confound physical diagnosis and require acceleration to advanced imaging especially in cases of trauma. If there is nerve impingement, the affected side will be reduced relative to the unaffected side. Reduction in strength of muscles innervated by the affected nerve is also significant physical finding.For a C4-C5 injury, the following symptoms may present:Weakness in the deltoid muscle (front and side of the shoulder) and upper armShoulder painNumbness along the outside of the upper arm
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 4-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after a sudden onset of coughing and wheezing. Further investigation reveals that he was drawing quietly in his room, when suddenly, he became anxious and started coughing. The parents also noted that the eraser on top of the pencil was missing.A plain radiographic chest imaging is conducted, and confirmed foreign body aspiration.Which of the following areas in the tracheobronchial tree is the most probable location of the aspirated eraser?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right main bronchus
Explanation:In foreign body aspiration, the foreign body is more likely to enter the right main bronchus because it is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left main bronchus. In a patient who is standing or sitting, the foreign body tends to become lodged in the posterobasal segment of the inferior lobe of the right lung.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the lymphatic system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphatic vessels contain both smooth muscle and unidirectional valves.
Explanation:Fluid filtration out of the capillaries is usually slightly greater than fluid absorption into the capillaries. About 8 L of fluid per day is filtered by the microcirculation and returns to the circulation by the lymphatic system. Lymphatic capillaries drain into collecting lymphatics, then into larger lymphatic vessels. Both of these containing smooth muscle and unidirectional valves. From this point, lymph is propelled by smooth muscle constriction and vessel compression by body movements into afferent lymphatics. It then goes to the lymph nodes where phagocytes remove bacteria and foreign materials. It is here that most fluid is reabsorbed by capillaries, and the remainder returns to the subclavian veins via efferent lymphatics and the thoracic duct. The lymphatic system has a major role to play in the body’s immune defence and also has a very important role in the absorption and transportation of fats.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A novel anti-tuberculosis medicine was compared to standard treatment and shown to cut the risk of death from 30 to 10 per 1000 people. How many patients would need to be treated (number need to treat (NNT)) in order to prevent ten additional tuberculosis deaths:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 500
Explanation:The risk of mortality in the control group (usual therapy) minus the risk of death in the treatment group equals the absolute risk reduction (ARR) of treatment.30/1000 minus 10/1000 = 20/1000 = 0.02NNT = 1/ARR = 1/0.02 = 50As a result, 50 people would need to be treated in order to prevent one additional fatality, and 500 people would need to be treated in order to avoid 10 additional deaths.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A blood culture was performed from a sample taken from a patient. It was noted that a Gram-positive coccus organism was grown.Among the following microorganisms, which is considered an example of a Gram-positive coccus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Bacillus cereus = Gram-positive bacillusNeisseria meningitidis = Gram-negative coccusSalmonella enterica & Escherichia coli = Gram-negative bacilliIn Gram staining, crystal violet is a purple stain that is used to stain the bacteria first. The stained bacteria are decolorized and then stained with a red stain, which is safranin. Bacteria with thick cell walls keep the purple stain and are called Gram-positive. Thin-walled bacteria are easily decolorized so when safranin, the red stain, is placed on the organisms, they become red or Gram-negative. The Staphylococci that are associated with infections in humans are colonizers of various skin and mucosal surfaces. Because the carrier state is common among the human population, infections are frequently acquired when the colonizing strain gains entrance to a normally sterile site as a result of trauma or abrasion to the skin or mucosal surface.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man who has a history of asthma arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that have been going on for 5 days. Which of the following beta-blockers is the safest for an asthmatic patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Atenolol is a beta blocker, which is a type of medication that works by preventing certain natural substances in the body, such as epinephrine, from acting on the heart and blood vessels. This effect reduces heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac strain. Atenolol, bisoprolol fumarate, metoprolol tartrate, nebivolol, and (to a lesser extent) acebutolol have a lower action on beta2 (bronchial) receptors and are thus cardio selective but not cardiac specific. They have a lower effect on airway resistance, although they are not without this adverse effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretin
Explanation:Pancreatic exocrine secretion is controlled by:Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous componentsSympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretionSecretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cellsCholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cellsSomatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cellsGastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
In a VF arrest, a 6-year-old child is brought to your Emergency Department resuscitation area. He weighs 16 kilogrammes. He's had three DC shocks, but he's still in VF and doesn't have an output.What amiodarone dose should he get now, according to the most recent APLS guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80 mg
Explanation:In a shockable (Vf/pVT) paediatric cardiac arrest, amiodarone should be administered after the third and fifth shocks. The dose is 5 mg/kg (maximum 300 mg) and should be administered over a three-minute period. If at all possible, administration via a central line is recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Regarding ciprofloxacin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin decreases plasma concentrations of theophylline.
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline. There is an increased risk of convulsions when quinolones are given with NSAIDs or theophylline. There is an increased risk of tendon damage when quinolones are given with corticosteroids. Quinolones are known to increase the QT-interval and should not be taken with concomitantly with other drugs that are known to cause QT-interval prolongation. There is an increased risk of myopathy when erythromycin or clarithromycin are taken with simvastatin or atorvastatin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refractory ventricular fibrillation in cardiac arrest
Explanation:IV Lidocaine is indicated in Ventricular Arrhythmias or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (after defibrillation, attempted CPR, and vasopressor administration)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following study designs is considered the most appropriate to safely determine whether an association exists between a well-established, commonly used, anti-hypertensive medication and causing type II diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A meta-analysis
Explanation:Evidence-based medicine may be defined as the systematic, quantitative, preferentially experimental approach to obtaining and using medical information. Therefore, meta-analysis, a statistical procedure that integrates the results of several independent studies, plays a central role in evidence-based medicine.Meta-analysis is a quantitative, formal, epidemiological study design used to systematically assess previous research studies to derive conclusions about that body of research. Outcomes from a meta-analysis may include a more precise estimate of the effect of treatment or risk factor for disease, or other outcomes, than any individual study contributing to the pooled analysis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Gastrin release from antral G-cells is stimulated by all but which one of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretin
Explanation:Gastrin secretion is stimulated by: The presence of small peptides and amino acids in chymeGastric distensionVagal stimulation directly via acetylcholine and indirectly via gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)Raised gastric pH
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with symptoms of headache, tiredness, and muscle weakness. His blood test today shows a low potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L, and a slightly raised sodium level at 147 mmol/L.What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome
Explanation:When there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:Conn’s syndromeAdrenal hyperplasiaAdrenal cancerFamilial aldosteronismCauses of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:Renal vasoconstrictionOedematous disordersDrugs – diureticsObstructive renal artery diseaseAlthough patients are usually asymptomatic, when clinical features are present, classically hyperaldosteronism presents with:HypokalaemiaSodium levels can be normal or slightly raisedHypertensionMetabolic alkalosisLess common, clinical features are:LethargyHeadachesIntermittent paraesthesiaPolyuria and polydipsiaMuscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)Tetany and paralysis (rare)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
One of these statements about significance tests is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A p value of less than 1 in 20 is considered ‘statistically significant’
Explanation:The p value is statistically significant when it is less than 0.05 (5% or 1 in 20).Statistical significance is not the same as clinical significance. The null hypothesis states that there is no difference between the groups.The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false.A type I error occurs when the null hypothesis has been rejected when it is true. A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis has been accepted when it is actually false.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Regarding propofol, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A lower induction dose of propofol is required in children.
Explanation:Elderly patients have a reduced volume of distribution and slower clearance of the drug. They are therefore more sensitive to the effects of propofol and the drug wears off more slowly. They need less of the drug, which should be injected slowly, monitoring its effect on the patient. The opposite is true in children, who need larger doses of propofol. This is particularly so in children under three years of age. Propofol is not recommended for induction of anaesthesia in children under one month of age or for maintenance of anaesthesia in children under three years old.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old female presents with fatigue, easy bruising and repeated chest and skin infections for five months. She also complains about several episodes of nosebleeds over the last few days without any history of trauma. Her complete blood count shows the following results: Hb 9 g/dlTotal leukocyte count: 2.5x10^9/L, 1100 neutrophils/ųLMCV 100platelet count of 90,000/ųL. Which one of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelodysplastic syndrome
Explanation:Myelodysplastic syndromes are a group of clonal haematopoietic disorders which are characterised by anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Patients will complain of fatigue, symptoms of thrombocytopenia such as nosebleeds and easy bleeding and a history of repeated infections due to low white blood cells (especially Neutrophils). In Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia production of hematopoietic cells goes on for a longer time. Folate and B12 deficiency would result in hypersegmented neutrophils and a raised MCV. Iron deficiency anaemia would not cause neutropenia or thrombocytopenia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
You're examining a 58-year-old male who has cellulitis in his left leg. Because he is allergic to penicillin, you start him on erythromycin.Which of the following statements about erythromycin is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be used to treat Legionnaire’s disease
Explanation:Bacteriostatic antibiotics include erythromycin and other macrolide antibiotics. They work by attaching to the bacterial ribosome’s 50S subunit, preventing translocation and thereby protein synthesis. Macrolide antibiotics are actively concentrated inside leukocytes and delivered to the infection site as a result.Erythromycin is an orally active antibiotic that can also be given intravenously. It is metabolized in the liver and eliminated in the bile and has a biological half-life of 1.5 hours.It has a similar antibacterial spectrum to benzylpenicillin (i.e., a narrow spectrum, primarily against Gram-positive pathogens) and can be used as a penicillin substitute in people who are allergic to penicillin.Erythromycin is unsuccessful in the treatment of meningitis because it does not penetrate the central nervous system well enough. It is efficient against a variety of unusual pathogens, unlike penicillin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to fracture of the head of the fibula?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biceps femoris
Explanation:Avulsion fractures of the fibular head are rare and are so-called the arcuate signal. The “arcuate signal” is used to describe an avulsed bone fragment related to the insertion site of the tendon of the biceps femoris associated with the arcuate complex, which consists of the fabellofibular, popliteofibular, and arcuate ligaments. Such lesions are typically observed in direct trauma to the knee with excessive varus and internal rotation forces or indirect trauma with the same direction of the force.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students about skeletal muscle physiology and its use in clinical medicine. They pose a series of difficult questions to you.Which of the following definitions for the A-band of the sarcomere is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A band that contains the entire length of a single thick filament (myosin)
Explanation:Myofibrils, which are around 1 m in diameter, make up each myofiber. The cytoplasm separates them and arranges them in a parallel pattern along the cell’s long axis. These myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin filaments that are repeated in sarcomeres, which are the myofiber’s basic functional units.Myofilaments are the filaments that make up myofibrils, and they’re made mostly of proteins. Myofilaments are divided into three categories:Myosin filaments are thick filaments made up mostly of the protein myosin.Actin filaments are thin filaments made up mostly of the protein actin.Elastic filaments are mostly made up of the protein titin.The sarcomere is a Z-line segment that connects two adjacent Z-lines.The I-bands are thin filament zones that run from either side of the Z-lines to the thick filament’s beginning.Between the I-bands is the A-band, which spans the length of a single thick filament.The H-zone is a zone of thick filaments that is not overlaid by thin filaments in the sarcomere’s centre. The H-zone keeps the myosin filaments in place by surrounding them with six actin filaments each.The M-band (or M-line) is a disc of cross-connecting cytoskeleton elements in the centre of the H-zone.The thick filament is primarily made up of myosin. The thin filament is primarily made up of actin. Actin, tropomyosin, and troponin are found in a 7:1:1 ratio in thin filaments.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Bordetella pertussis is spread via which of the following routes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory droplet route
Explanation:Bordetella pertussis is a Gram negative coccobacillus that causes whooping cough. B. pertussis is spread via the respiratory droplet route and expresses fimbriae that aid their adhesion to the ciliated epithelium of the upper respiratory tract, and produce a number of exotoxins, causing the characteristic thickened bronchial secretions, paralysis of cilia and lymphocytosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
An analytical study is conducted to compare the risk of stroke between Ticagrelor therapy and Warfarin therapy among patients with atrial fibrillation. The following is obtained from the study:No. of patients who took Ticagrelor: 300No. of patients who took Ticagrelor and suffered a stroke: 30No. of patients who took Warfarin: 500No. of patients who took Warfarin and suffered a stroke: 20Compute for the risk ratio of a stroke.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.5
Explanation:Relative risk (RR) is a ratio of the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group versus the probability of the event occurring in the non-exposed group.RR can be computed as the absolute risk of events in the treatment group (ART), divided by the absolute risk of events in the control group (ARC).RR = ART/ARCRR = (30/300) / (20/500)RR = 2.5Recall that:If RR < 1, then the intervention reduces the risk of the outcome.If RR = 1, then the treatment has no effect on the outcome.If RR > 1, then the intervention increases the risk of the outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man with BPH presents to the emergency department in significant pain secondary to urinary retention. What is the location of the neuronal cell bodies that are responsible for urinary bladder discomfort sensation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord levels S2, S3 and S4
Explanation:The activation of stretch receptors with visceral afferents relayed through the pelvic nerve plexus and into the pelvic splanchnic nerves causes bladder pain. The sensory fibres of spinal nerves S2 – S4 enter the dorsal root ganglia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Adverse effects include:Antimuscarinic effects: Dry mouth, Blurred vision, Constipation, Urinary retention, Sedation, ConfusionCardiovascular effects: Heart block, Arrhythmias, Tachycardia, Postural hypotension, QT-interval prolongation, Hepatic impairment, Narrow-angle glaucoma
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Regarding iron handling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron is taken across the enterocyte apical membrane by the divalent metal transporter (DMT1).
Explanation:Dietary iron may be in the form of haem or non-haem iron. Haem iron is degraded after absorption through the cell surface to release Fe2+. Most non-haem iron is in the form Fe3+, which is reduced at the luminal surface to the more soluble Fe2+, facilitated by hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions (and enhanced by ascorbic acid). Fe2+is taken across the enterocyte apical membrane by the divalent metal transporter (DMT1). In the enterocyte, Fe2+is then either stored in enterocyte epithelial cells as ferritin, or released into portal plasma via the molecule ferroportin at the basolateral membrane.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room with a two-week history of shortness of breath, fevers, and malaise. A chest X-ray was ordered and the results confirmed the diagnosis of a right middle lobe pneumonia. Which of the following structures of the heart lies closest to the consolidation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:In its typical anatomical orientation, the heart has 5 surfaces formed by different internal divisions of the heart:Anterior (or sternocostal) – Right ventriclePosterior (or base) – Left atriumInferior (or diaphragmatic) – Left and right ventriclesRight pulmonary – Right atriumLeft pulmonary – Left ventricleThe silhouette sign of Felson is with respect to the right middle lobe. The right heart border should have a distinct appearance due to the right atrium abutting aerated right middle lobe. The consolidation in the right middle lobe has resulted in loss of this silhouette.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Water is reabsorbed in which portion of the Henle loop:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thin descending limb
Explanation:The loop of Henle consists of three functionally distinct segments: the thin descending segment, the thin ascending segment, and the thick ascending segment. About 20 percent of the filtered water is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle and almost all of this occurs in the thin descending limb. Na+ and Cl-ions are actively reabsorbed from the tubular fluid in the thick ascending limb via the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter on the apical membrane. Because the thick ascending limb is water-impermeable, ion reabsorption lowers tubular fluid osmolality while raising interstitial fluid osmolality, resulting in an osmotic difference. Water moves passively out of the thin descending limb as the interstitial fluid osmolality rises, concentrating the tubular fluid. This concentrated fluid descends in the opposite direction of fluid returning from the deep medulla still higher osmolality areas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old man presents to ED complaining of leg weakness. Your colleague has examined the patient and suspects femoral nerve palsy. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see on examination of this patient:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakness of hip extension
Explanation:Damage to the femoral nerve results in weakness of hip flexion and knee extension and loss of sensation over the anterior thigh and the anteromedial knee, medial leg and medial foot.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Beta cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:Insulin is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. Within storage granules, a connecting peptide (C peptide) is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin, but most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. The effects of insulin are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
