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Question 1
Correct
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A 63-year old lady presents with pain in multiple bones and renal failure. On enquiry, there is history of recurrent pneumonia in the past. What will be the likely finding on her bone marrow biopsy?
Your Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that produce excessive monoclonal immunoglobulins. The disease presents with bone pains, renal dysfunction, increased calcium, anaemia and recurrent infections. Diagnosis is by demonstrating the presence of M-protein in urine or serum, lytic bone lesions, light chain proteinuria or excessive plasma cells on marrow biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 40-year old gentleman, known with past peptic ulcer disease, was brought to the clinic in a dehydrated state with persistent vomiting. His blood investigations revealed sodium = 142 mmol/l, potassium = 2.6 mmol/l, chloride = 85 mmol/l, pH = 7.55, p(CO2) = 50 mmHg, p(O2) = 107 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 40 mmol/l. This patient had:
Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:High pH with high standard bicarbonate indicates metabolic alkalosis. The pa(CO2) was appropriately low in compensation. This is hypokalaemia hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis due to prolonged vomiting. Treatment includes treating the cause and intravenous sodium chloride with potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is undergoing surgery for a left inguinal hernia. During the operation, the sac is opened to reveal a large Meckel's diverticulum. What type of hernia is this?
Your Answer: Littre's hernia
Explanation:Hernia containing Meckel’s diverticulum is termed as Littre’s hernia.
Hernias occur when a viscus or part of it protrudes from within its normal anatomical cavity. A Littre’s hernia is an abdominal wall hernia that involves the Meckel’s diverticulum which is a congenital outpouching or bulge in the lower part of the small intestine and is a leftover of the umbilical cord.
Management of Littre’s hernia includes resection of the diverticulum followed by herniorrhaphy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68 year old man who is scheduled for an amputation suddenly presents to the physician with episodes of vertigo and dysarthria. After a while he collapses and his GCS is recorded to be 3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this presentation?
Your Answer: Cerebral haemorrhage in left temporal parietal area
Correct Answer: Basilar artery occlusion
Explanation:The clinical presentation of basilar artery occlusion (BAO) ranges from mild transient symptoms to devastating strokes with high fatality and morbidity. Often, non-specific prodromal symptoms such as vertigo or headaches are indicative of BAO, and are followed by the hallmarks of BAO, including decreased consciousness, quadriparesis, pupillary and oculomotor abnormalities, dysarthria, and dysphagia. When clinical findings suggest an acute brainstem disorder, BAO has to be confirmed or ruled out as a matter of urgency. If BAO is recognised early and confirmed with multimodal CT or MRI, intravenous thrombolysis or endovascular treatment can be undertaken. The goal of thrombolysis is to restore blood flow in the occluded artery and salvage brain tissue; however, the best treatment approach to improve clinical outcome still needs to be ascertained.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 5
Correct
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A 60 year old alcoholic man is seen in the A&E department. When asked his reason for being there, he says he is looking for a place to sleep for the night. He is examined by one of the doctors and has no evidence of trauma, a skull x-ray fails to show any evidence of fracture. He is placed on observation and ten hours later, he develops a sudden onset headache, falls into a coma and then dies. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Sub arachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:The classic symptom of subarachnoid haemorrhage is thunderclap headache (a headache described as like being kicked in the head, or the worst ever, developing over seconds to minutes). This headache often pulsates towards the occiput (the back of the head). About one-third of people have no symptoms apart from the characteristic headache, and about one in ten people who seek medical care with this symptom are later diagnosed with a subarachnoid haemorrhage. Vomiting may be present, and 1 in 14 have seizures. Confusion, decreased level of consciousness or coma may be present, as may neck stiffness and other signs of meningism.
In 85 percent of spontaneous cases the cause is a cerebral aneurysm—a weakness in the wall of one of the arteries in the brain that becomes enlarged. They tend to be located in the circle of Willis and its branches. While most cases are due to bleeding from small aneurysms, larger aneurysms (which are less common) are more likely to rupture. Aspirin also appears to increase the risk.
In 15–20 percent of cases of spontaneous SAH, no aneurysm is detected on the first angiogram. About half of these are attributed to non-aneurysmal perimesencephalic haemorrhage, in which the blood is limited to the subarachnoid spaces around the midbrain (i.e. mesencephalon). In these, the origin of the blood is uncertain. The remainder are due to other disorders affecting the blood vessels (such as cerebral arteriovenous malformations), disorders of the blood vessels in the spinal cord, and bleeding into various tumours.
Genetics may play a role in a person’s disposition to SAH; risk is increased three- to fivefold in first-degree relatives of people having had a subarachnoid haemorrhage. But lifestyle factors are more important in determining overall risk. These risk factors are smoking, hypertension (high blood pressure), and excessive alcohol consumption.
The absence of trauma and skull fracture rules out the other types of haemorrhages and haematomas. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A medical student is asked to calculate the net pressure difference in a capillary wall, considering: Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = –3 mmHg, Plasma colloid osmotic pressure = 28 mmHg, Capillary hydrostatic pressure = 17 mmHg, Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure = 8 mmHg, and Filtration coefficient = 1. Which is the correct answer?
Your Answer: -3 mmHg
Correct Answer: 0 mmHg
Explanation:The rate of filtration at any point along a capillary depends on a balance of forces sometimes called Starling’s forces after the physiologist who first described their operation in detail. The Starling principle of fluid exchange is key to understanding how plasma fluid (solvent) within the bloodstream (intravascular fluid) moves to the space outside the bloodstream (extravascular space). Fluid movement = k[(pc– pi)–(Πc– Πi)] where k = capillary filtration coefficient, pc = capillary hydrostatic pressure, pi= interstitial hydrostatic pressure, Πc = capillary colloid osmotic pressure, Πi = interstitial colloid osmotic pressure. Therefore: 1 × [capillary hydrostatic pressure (17) – interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (–3)] – [plasma colloid osmotic pressure (28) – interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (8)] = 0 mmHg
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?
Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)
Explanation:The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?
Your Answer: Transpyloric plane
Correct Answer: Level of the umbilicus
Explanation:The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Correct
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Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is used in the prophylaxis and treatment of venous and arterial thrombotic disorders. Which of the following is LMWHs mechanism of action?
Your Answer: Inhibition of factor Xa
Explanation:Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is a anticoagulant that differs from normal heparin in that it has only short chains of polysaccharide. LMWH inhibits thrombin formation by converting antithrombin from a slow to a rapid inactivator of coagulation factor Xa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in the blood pressure in a 30 year old patient with a BP of 40 mmHg?
Your Answer: Baroreceptor reflex
Explanation:The baroreflex or baroreceptor reflex is one of the body’s homeostatic mechanisms for regulating blood pressure. It provides a negative feedback response in which an elevated blood pressure will causes blood pressure to decrease; similarly, decreased blood pressure depresses the baroreflex, causing blood pressure to rise. The system relies on specialised neurones (baroreceptors) in the aortic arch, carotid sinuses and elsewhere to monitor changes in blood pressure and relay them to the brainstem. Subsequent changes in blood pressure are mediated by the autonomic nervous system. Baroreceptors include those in the auricles of the heart and vena cava, but the most sensitive baroreceptors are in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch. The carotid sinus baroreceptors are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX); the aortic arch baroreceptors are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old female has undergone a total thyroidectomy for multinodular goitre. You are called to see her because of respiratory distress. On examination, she has marked stridor, her wound seems healthy but there is a swelling within the operative site. What is the most likely explanation for this problem?
Your Answer: Contained haematoma
Explanation:Airway obstruction: In the first 24 hours it is most likely from a compressive hematoma. After 24 hours consider laryngeal dysfunction secondary to hypocalcaemia.
In this patient, the most likely cause is a haematoma.
Definitive therapy is opening the surgical incision to evacuate the hematoma. Re-intubation may be lifesaving for persistent airway obstruction. Consider awake fibreoptic intubation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 12
Correct
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What best describes the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg?
Your Answer: One of the posterior compartment leg muscles laterally rotates the femur
Explanation:The muscles of the back of the leg are subdivided into two groups: superficial and deep. Superficial muscles include gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris and are the chief extensors of the foot at the ankle joint. Deep muscles include the tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus and popliteus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 58 year old lady who has had a mastectomy undergoes a breast reconstruction surgery. The breast implant is placed just anterior to her pectoralis major muscle. Which of the following methods of wound closure would be the most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer: Use of a free myocutaneous flap
Correct Answer: Use of a pedicled myocutaneous flap
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap (LDMF) is one of the most reliable and versatile flaps used in reconstructive surgery. It is known for its use in chest wall and postmastectomy reconstruction and has also been used effectively for coverage of large soft tissue defects in the head and neck, either as a pedicled flap or as a microvascular free flap.
The latissimus dorsi may be transferred as a myofascial flap, a myocutaneous flap, or as a composite osteomyocutaneous flap when harvested with underlying serratus anterior muscle and rib. For even greater reconstructive flexibility, the latissimus can be harvested for free tissue transfer in combination with any or all of the other flaps based on the subscapular vessels (the so-called subscapular compound flap or “mega-flap”), including serratus anterior, scapular, and parascapular flaps
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 14
Correct
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The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?
Your Answer: Anterior scalene
Explanation:The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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The Brunner glands secrete an alkaline product that helps maintain an optimal pH for pancreatic enzyme activity. Where are these glands located?
Your Answer: Submucosa of the duodeneum
Explanation:The Brunner glands are located in the submucosa of the duodenum. These glands are connected to the interstitial lumen by ducts that open into certain crypts. They secrete an alkaline product that protects the duodenal mucosa from the acidic chyme and helps achieve an optimal pH for the enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Correct
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A 65 year old man is scheduled to undergo an elective femoral-popliteal bypass. He presents to the physician with sudden onset of central crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. ECG is significant for some ischemic changes. The nursing staff initiates high flow oxygen and gives a spray of glyceryl trinitrate. However, this has resulted in no relief of his symptoms. Which of the following drugs should be administered next to this patient?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Explanation:Unstable angina is a common cardiovascular condition associated with major adverse clinical events. Over the last 15 years, therapeutic advances have dramatically reduced the complication and mortality rates of this serious condition. The standard of therapy in patients with unstable angina now incorporates the combined use of a potent antithrombotic (aspirin, clopidogrel, heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists) and anti-anginal (β-blockade and intravenous nitrates) regimens complemented by the selective and judicious application of coronary revascularisation strategies.
Increasingly, these invasive and non-invasive therapeutic interventions are being guided not only by the clinical risk profile but also by the determination of serum cardiac and inflammatory markers.
Moreover, rapid and intensive management of associated risk factors, such as hypercholesterolaemia, would appear to have potentially substantial benefits even within the acute in-hospital phase of unstable angina. Aspirin 300mg should be given as soon as possible. If the patient has a moderate to high risk of myocardial infarction, then Clopidogrel should be given with a low molecular weight heparin. Thrombolysis or urgent percutaneous intervention should be given if there are significant ECG changes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is due to undergo excision of a sebaceous cyst on his scalp. Which of the following agents should be used for local anaesthesia?
Your Answer: 1% lignocaine alone
Correct Answer: 1% lignocaine with 1 in 200,000 adrenaline
Explanation:Scalp wounds often bleed and the addition of adrenaline is, therefore, desirable. Lignocaine is fast acting and the preferred agent for local anaesthesia.
Lignocaine, also called lidocaine, is a local anaesthetic and a less commonly used antiarrhythmic. Its increased doses may be used when combined with adrenaline to limit systemic absorption. Adrenaline may be added to local anaesthetic drugs. It prolongs the duration of action at the site of injection and permits usage of higher doses. It is, however, contraindicated in patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants.
Other listed options are ruled out in this case because:
1. Bupivacaine: has a much longer duration of action than lignocaine and, thus, may be used for topical wound infiltration at the conclusion of surgical procedures.
2. Prilocaine: the agent of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 5-year-old child presents with fever and otalgia. Greenish pustular discharge was seen in his left ear during physical examination. The patient is diagnosed with otitis externa. Which of the following organisms most likely caused the infection?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:P. aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen recognised for its ubiquity, its advanced antibiotic resistance mechanisms and its association with serious illnesses – especially hospital-acquired infections such as ventilator-associated pneumonia and various septic syndromes. The species name aeruginosa is a Latin word meaning verdigris (copper rust), referring to the blue-green colour of laboratory cultures of the species. This blue-green pigment is a combination of two metabolites of P. aeruginosa, pyocyanin (blue) and pyoverdine (green), which impart the blue-green characteristic colour of cultures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?
Your Answer: It has thinner and fewer vascular coats
Correct Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules
Explanation:The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and is diagnosed with prostatic cancer. What is the stage of this primary tumour?
Your Answer: T1a
Correct Answer: T1c
Explanation:The AJCC uses a TNM system to stage prostatic cancer, with categories for the primary tumour, regional lymph nodes and distant metastases:
TX: cannot evaluate the primary tumour T0: no evidence of tumour
T1: tumour present, but not detectable clinically or with imaging T1a: tumour was incidentally found in less than 5% of prostate tissue resected (for other reasons)
T1b: tumour was incidentally found in more than 5% of prostate tissue resected
T1c: tumour was found in a needle biopsy performed due to an elevated serum prostate-specific antigen
T2: the tumour can be felt (palpated) on examination, but has not spread outside the prostate
T2a: the tumour is in half or less than half of one of the prostate gland’s two lobes
T2b: the tumour is in more than half of one lobe, but not both
T2c: the tumour is in both lobes
T3: the tumour has spread through the prostatic capsule (if it is only part-way through, it is still T2)
T3a: the tumour has spread through the capsule on one or both sides
T3b: the tumour has invaded one or both seminal vesicles
T4: the tumour has invaded other nearby structures.
In this case, the tumour has a T1c stage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone -particularly long bones- which worsens at night, and is typically relieved by common analgesics, such as aspirin?
Your Answer: Giant-cell tumour of bone
Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation:Osteoid osteoma, which tends to affect young adults, can occur in any bone but is most common in long bones. It can cause pain (usually worse at night) that is typically relieved by mild analgesics, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. X-ray findings include a small radiolucent zone surrounded by a larger sclerotic zone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon accidentally cuts the first aortic intercostal arteries as he mobilised the descending aorta. Which one of the following structure might be deprived of its primary source of blood supply following this injury?
Your Answer: First anterior intercostal space
Correct Answer: Right bronchus
Explanation:The right bronchus is supplied by one right bronchial artery that may branch from one of the left bronchial arteries or from the right 3rd posterior intercostal artery (this is the first intercostal artery that arises from the aorta). Damage to this artery might stop blood supply to the main bronchus. Intercostal arteries that go to the first and the second interspaces originate from the highest intercostal artery such that blood supply to either of these spaces would not be interfered with.
The left bronchus receives blood from 2 left bronchial arteries which are direct branches from the descending aorta.
Fibrous pericardium is the sac that contains the heart. Its blood supply is not a major concern.
Visceral pericardium receives its blood supply from the coronary vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Correct
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Macrolides are a group of antibiotics commonly used to treat respiratory tract and soft-tissue infections. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used in the treatment of several bacterial infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, chlamydia infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, and syphilis. It may also be used during pregnancy to prevent Group B streptococcal infection in the new-born.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents to the A&E department with a headache and odd behaviour after being hit on the side of his head by a bat. Whilst waiting for a CT scan, he becomes drowsy and unresponsive. What is the most likely underlying injury?
Your Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:Extradural haematoma is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptomology. The middle meningeal artery is prone to damage when the temporal side of the head is hit.
Patients who suffer head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Inadequate cardiac output compromises the CNS perfusion, irrespective of the nature of cranial injury.
An extradural haematoma is a collection of blood in the space between the skull and the dura mater. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of extradural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. There is often loss of consciousness following a head injury, a brief regaining of consciousness, and then loss of consciousness again—lucid interval. Other symptoms may include headache, confusion, vomiting, and an inability to move parts of the body. Diagnosis is typically by a CT scan or MRI, and treatment is generally by urgent surgery in the form of a craniotomy or burr hole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following enzymes?
Your Answer: Trypsin
Correct Answer: Pepsin
Explanation:Pepsin is a protease that is released from the gastric chief cells and acts to degrade proteins into peptides. Released as pepsinogen, it is activated by hydrochloric acid and into pepsin itself. Gastrin and the vagus nerve trigger the release of pepsinogen and HCl when a meal is ingested. Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic environment, especially at a pH of 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head trauma. Which of the following conditions is not likely to be associated with the extracellular oedema?
Your Answer: All answers are associated
Correct Answer: Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Explanation:Cerebral oedema is extracellular fluid accumulation in the brain. Increased capillary permeability, increased capillary pressure, increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure and lymphatic blockage would increase fluid movement into the interstitial spaces. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure, however, would oppose fluid movement from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 35 year-old female developed food poisoning 24H after eating canned food. She complained of abdominal cramps, with nausea and vomiting. Shortly after she suddenly developed weakness, blurring of vision, difficulty in swallowing and breathing. Which of the following organisms is most likely associated with fatal food poisoning?
Your Answer: Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:C. botulinum is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, spore-forming bacterium. It is an obligate anaerobe, meaning that oxygen is poisonous to the cells. Only botulinum toxin types A, B, E, and F cause disease in humans. Types A, B, and E are associated with foodborne illness. Botulism poisoning can occur due to preserved or home-canned, low-acid food that was not processed using correct preservation times and/or pressure. Signs and symptoms of foodborne botulism typically begin between 18 and 36 hours after the toxin gets into the body, but can range from a few hours to several days, depending on the amount of toxin ingested. Botulinum that is produced by Clostridium botulinum can cause respiratory and muscular paralysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 34 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy. Post-operatively, it is discovered that he is only able to make a gargling noise. On examination, his voice sounds breathy. What is the best explanation for this symptom?
Your Answer: Bilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury
Correct Answer: Unilateral inferior laryngeal nerve injury
Explanation:Unilateral vocal fold paralysis (UVFP) occurs from a dysfunction of the recurrent laryngeal (inferior laryngeal nerve) or vagus nerve innervating the larynx. It causes a characteristic breathy voice often accompanied by swallowing disability, a weak cough, and the sensation of shortness of breath. This is a common cause of neurogenic hoarseness. When this paralysis is properly evaluated and treated, normal speaking voice is typically restored. Specifically, thyroidectomy, carotid endarterectomy, anterior cervical spine surgery, thoracic, or mediastinal surgery most often result in a presentation of UVFP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 30
Correct
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Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?
Your Answer: Middle rectal
Explanation:Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 26 year old policewoman is admitted with bloody diarrhoea. She has been passing 10 stools per day, Hb-8.1, albumin-21. Her stool culture is negative and there is evidence of colitis on endoscopy. She has been on intravenous steroids for 5 days and has now developed megacolon. Her haemoglobin is falling and inflammatory markers are static. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Undertake a pan proctocolectomy
Correct Answer: Undertake a sub total colectomy and end ileostomy
Explanation:The operation aims to remove most of your large bowel including the blood supply and associated lymph glands and leave the rectum behind. It is most commonly recommended for inflammatory bowel disease like ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
It is also recommended for other bowel conditions like familial adenomatous polyposis, and when there is more than one bowel cancer.
In inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis the small bowel is brought out to the skin of the tummy as an ileostomy and the remaining bowel (rectum) is closed off and left inside. In other conditions where possible, the two ends of the remaining healthy bowel (small bowel to rectum) are re-joined (an anastomosis). Most
people therefore do not require a stoma. However some people benefit from having a stoma made depending on circumstances regarding:
1) Their general state of health (heart disease, lung disease, diabetes, vascular disease, smoking, steroid medications, being undernourished);
2) Factors which cannot be seen until the surgeon can see inside your tummy (more extensive disease than originally thought, extensive pelvic scarring from previous surgery or other treatment, excessive bleeding).
Temporary stomas are made to divert faeces away from the join (de-functioning) to give the best chance to heal if there is concern it may be slow to heal.Emergency indications for surgical intervention in severe UC include free perforation, haemorrhage or systemic instability. An urgent indication for colectomy is a severe attack that is unresponsive to medical therapy.
In the setting of severe UC, the procedure of choice is subtotal colectomy and ileostomy. The residual rectal disease is controllable in most patients. In general, there are advantages to the subtotal colectomy approach, including a lower morbidity if pelvic dissection is not performed, preservation of the rectum so that reconstructive procedures can be performed later, and allowing the definitive procedure to be deferred to an optimal situation when the patient is off immunosuppressive medications and has improved nutritional status. Usually, the staged reconstruction with IPAA or definitive total proctocolectomy is performed several months later.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 32
Correct
-
What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?
Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 20 year old lady is involved in a motor vehicle accident in which her car crashes head on into a truck. She complains of severe chest pain and a chest x-ray performed as part of a trauma series shows widening of the mediastinum. Which of the following is the most likely injury that she has sustained?
Your Answer: Rupture of the aorta proximal to the left subclavian artery
Correct Answer: Rupture of the aorta distal to the left subclavian artery
Explanation:Answer: Rupture of the aorta distal to the left subclavian artery
Aortic rupture is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. After traumatic brain injury, blunt aortic rupture is the second leading cause of death following blunt trauma. Thus, this condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock, exsanguination, and death.
Traumatic aortic transection or rupture is associated with a sudden and rapid deceleration of the heart and the aorta within the thoracic cavity. Anatomically, the heart and great vessels (superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins, and aorta) are mobile within the thoracic cavity and not fixed to the chest wall, unlike the descending abdominal aorta. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?
Your Answer: Anterior ulnar recurrent artery
Correct Answer: Radial recurrent artery
Explanation:The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 35
Correct
-
Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?
Your Answer: Clostridium tetani
Explanation:Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.
Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?
Your Answer: Terminal bronchiole of the right lung, lower lobe
Correct Answer: Right main bronchus
Explanation:Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 37
Correct
-
A 58 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower backache refractory to medicine. He is a known case of metastatic prostate carcinoma, with spinal involvement. However, up until recently, he has had no problems with pain control. He takes 1g qds paracetamol daily. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Add non steroidal anti inflammatory drug
Explanation:Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, and opiates are recommended in the basic approach to cancer pain associated with bone metastases. They should provide patients with adequate analgesia when used appropriately. NSAIDs including COX2 inhibitors are especially useful for patients with bone pain. Acetaminophen is an effective analgesic but is a weak anti-inflammatory agent. Ketorolac tromethamine is a potent NSAID capable of relieving moderate to severe acute bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 38
Correct
-
A 33-year-old man with a 4cm lipoma on his flank is due for its surgical removal, as a day case. He is, otherwise, completely asymptomatic.According to the above description, what is his physical status according to the ASA classification?
Your Answer: 1
Explanation:Absence of comorbidities and a small procedure with no likelihood of systemic compromise will equate to an ASA score of 1.
The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It has six grades, as described below:
ASA 1: No physiological, biochemical, or psychiatric disturbance. The surgical pathology is localised and has not invoked systemic disturbance.
ASA 2: Mild or moderate systemic disruption caused either by the surgical disease process or through an underlying pre-existing disease.
ASA 3: Severe systemic disruption, not life-threatening, caused either by the surgical pathology or a pre-existing disease.
ASA 4: Patient has severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.
ASA 5: Patient is moribund and will not survive without surgery.
ASA 6: A brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed with the intention of transplanting them into another patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 39
Correct
-
During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?
Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.
The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.
The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.
Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.
Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 40
Correct
-
A 50 year old lawyer is admitted to the medical ward for an endarterectomy. His CT report confirms a left temporal lobe infarct. Which visual defect is most likely to be encountered?
Your Answer: Right superior quadranopia
Explanation:Quadrantanopia refers to an anopia affecting a quarter of the field of vision. While quadrantanopia can be caused by lesions in the temporal and parietal lobes, it is most commonly associated with lesions in the occipital lobe.
A lesion affecting one side of the temporal lobe may cause damage to the inferior optic radiations (known as the temporal pathway or Meyer’s loop) which can lead to superior quadrantanopia on the contralateral side of both eyes (colloquially referred to as pie in the sky).Therefore, a left temporal lobe infarct will affect the right superior quadrantanopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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Question 41
Correct
-
An intern is attempting to put in an arterial line in an ICU patients left foot. Which is the best site to feel for the pulsation of the dorsalis pedis artery in the foot?
Your Answer: Just lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus
Explanation:The dorsalis pedis artery is the continuation of the anterior tibial artery. The pulse of the posterior tibial artery, which comes from the posterior compartment of the leg, may be felt behind the medial malleolus just lateral to the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?
Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:
1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
2. LH (luteinizing hormone)
3. Growth hormone
4. Prolactin
5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).
The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:
1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)
2. Oxytocin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 43
Correct
-
Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%
Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%
Monocytes: 2 to 8%
Eosinophils: 1 to 4%
Basophils: 0.5 to 1%
Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 44
Correct
-
A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus. The consultant supervising explains that caution is required when placing a clamp on the ductus to avoid injury to an important structure immediately dorsal to it. To which structure is the consultant referring?
Your Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The left recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus and wraps around the aorta, posterior to the ductus arteriosus/ligamentum arteriosum from whence it courses superiorly to innervate the laryngeal muscles.
Accessory Hemiazygous vein is on the left side of the body draining the posterolateral chest wall and emptying blood into the azygos vein.
The left internal thoracic artery is branch of the left subclavian artery supplying blood to the anterior wall of the thorax.
Left phrenic nerve is lateral to the vagus nerve.
Thoracic duct: is behind the oesophagus, coursing between the aorta and the azygos vein in the posterior chest.
Right recurrent laryngeal nerve: loops around the right subclavian artery and is not in danger in this procedure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 45
Correct
-
The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?
Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus
Explanation:The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.
The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.
The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.
The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.
The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.
The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 46
Correct
-
A 50-year-old male is recovering on the high dependency unit following a long and complex laparotomy. His preoperative medication includes an ACE inhibitor for blood pressure control. For the past two hours, he has been oliguric with a urine output of 10ml/hr-1. What the most appropriate immediate course of action?
Your Answer: Administer a fluid challenge
Explanation:Using fluids to correct hypovolaemia is a dynamic process that requires ongoing evaluation of clinical and haemodynamic indices. Thus, the use of the fluid challenge provides a successful method of adjusting the fluid volume to the patient’s need.
The fluid challenge is a method of safely restoring circulating volume according to physiological need rather than using fixed haemodynamic end-points. The fluid is given in small aliquots to produce a known increment in circulating volume with an assessment of the dynamic haemodynamic response to each aliquot. No fixed haemodynamic end-point is assumed and the technique provides a diagnostic test of hypovolaemia (via an appropriate positive response of the circulation to fluid) and a method of titrating the optimal dose of fluid to the individual’s requirement.
The response of SV and/or CVP (or PAWP) should be monitored during a fluid challenge. The basis of the fluid challenge is to achieve a known increase in intravascular volume by rapid infusion of a bolus of colloid fluid (200 ml).
In the inadequately filled left ventricle, a fluid challenge will increase SV. Failure to increase SV with a fluid challenge may indicate a circulation that is unresponsive to fluid or an inadequate challenge. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 47
Correct
-
Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance vessels?
Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Explanation:Gastric vasoconstrictors include catecholamines, angiotensin II and vasopressin. Vasodilators include vasoactive intestinal peptide and the hormones; gastrin, cholecystokinin and glucagon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
Perforin are present in the granules of which cell?
Your Answer: Kupffer cell
Correct Answer: Natural killer cell
Explanation:Perforins are characteristically found In the granules of CD8+ T cells and natural killer cells. They are cytolytic proteins that insert into the target plasma membrane forming a hole and resulting in lysis. They along with granzyme B induce apoptosis in the target cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 49
Correct
-
A 64 year old diabetic man presents with a deep laceration of his lateral thigh which measures 3cm in depth by 7cm in length, that penetrates to the bone. There are no signs of fracture. His diabetes is diet controlled and is on low dose prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following options should be employed most safely for the wound management of this patient?
Your Answer: Delayed primary closure
Explanation:Delayed primary closure is often intentionally applied to lacerations that are not considered clean enough for immediate primary closure. The wound is left open for 5-10 days; then, it is sutured closed to decrease the risk of wound infection. Improved blood flow at the wound edges, which develops increasingly over the first few days, is another benefit of this style of wound healing and can be associated with progressive increases in resistance to infections. The combination of diabetes and steroids makes wound complications more likely. Despite his high risk, a primary skin graft or flap is unlikely to be a safer option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 50
Correct
-
A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2 weeks. What will his liver biopsy done after 6 months show?
Your Answer: Normal architecture
Explanation:Hepatitis A is the most common acute viral hepatitis, more common in children and young adults. It is caused by Hepatitis A virus, which is a single-stranded RNA picornavirus. The primary route of spread of Hepatitis A is the faecal-oral route. Consumption of contaminated raw shellfish is also a likely causative factor. The shedding of the virus in faecal matter occurs before the onset of symptoms and continues a few days after. Hepatitis A does not lead to chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis, and there is no known chronic carrier state. Hence, a biopsy performed after recovery will show normal hepatocellular architecture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 51
Correct
-
The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:
– The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.
– The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.
– The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.
– The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.
– The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 52
Correct
-
A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10 hour history of pelvic pain. Her last normal menstrual cycle was 14 days ago and she is otherwise well. Her abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic pain on examination. What is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Mittelschmerz
Explanation:Answer: Mittelschmerz
Mittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.
Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered.
Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.
As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.
Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 53
Correct
-
Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer: Gastric
Explanation:The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 54
Correct
-
An 8 month old baby girl presents with a spiral fracture of her left humerus. Her father states that he grabbed her arm because she was falling off the park slide. He noticed that something was wrong and he rushed to the hospital with her. Which of the following is the most likely issue?
Your Answer: Accidental fracture
Explanation:In this case, there is no delay in treatment and the mechanism by which the fracture occurred fits accidental fracture.
A statement from the parent or guardian and any witnesses regarding how the child sustained the injury will help determine whether the injury is accidental or abusive. A statement from the parent or guardian explaining why he or she delayed in seeking medical treatment is important to the investigation because caretakers often postpone medical treatment or fail to provide treatment for an injured child to hide physical abuse. The abusing parent or caregiver may also put a child in oversized clothing or keep the child inside a residence for extended periods of time in an attempt to conceal the child’s injuries.
Parents who inflict fractures on their children tend to minimize the severity of the accident purported to cause the fracture, whereas many parents of children with accidental fractures will relate a history of high-energy events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 55
Correct
-
At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid arteries?
Your Answer: C4
Explanation:The common carotid arteries are present on the left and right sides of the body. These arteries originate from different sources, but follow symmetrical courses. The right common carotid originates in the neck from the brachiocephalic trunk; the left from the aortic arch in the thorax. These split into the external and internal carotid arteries at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, at around the level of the fourth cervical vertebra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 56
Correct
-
A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at C8 level. What would likely be seen in this patient?
Your Answer: The hypothenar muscles would be completely paralysed
Explanation:The eighth cervical nerve is one of the contributors of the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve supplies the hypothenar muscles which include the opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and palmaris brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 57
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man sustains a severe facial fracture, and reconstruction is planned. Which of the following investigations will facilitate preoperative planning?
Your Answer: Computerised tomography of the head
Explanation:Significant facial fractures may have an intracranial effect. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head allows delineation of the injury extent, and a 3D reconstruction of images can be done. An Orthopantomogram (OPT) provides good images of mandible and surrounding bony structures but cannot give intracranial details. X-ray of the skull lacks the details important in modern practice.
Craniomaxillofacial (CMF) injuries in the UK are due to:
1. Interpersonal violence (52%)
2. Motor vehicle accidents (16%)
3. Sporting injuries (19%)
4. Falls (11%) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 58
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man who is a known case of von Willebrand disease has started bleeding following the excision of a sebaceous cyst.Administration of which of the following agents is most likely to be beneficial?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Desmopressin is useful in managing mild to moderate episodes of bleeding in von Willebrand disease (vWD).
vWD is the most common hereditary coagulopathy resulting from the deficiency or abnormal function of von Willebrand factor (vWF). vWF promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and other platelets and is also involved in the transport and stabilization of factor VIII.
There are seven subtypes of vWD. Type 1 vWD (autosomal dominant) is the most common and accounts for 80% of the cases. Type 2 vWD (autosomal dominant or recessive) accounts for 15% of the cases. There is a significant spectrum of severity ranging from spontaneous bleeding and epistaxis through to troublesome excessive bleeding following minor procedures.
Bleeding time is mostly used as a diagnostic test for vWD. Treatment options include administration of tranexamic acid for minor cases undergoing minor procedures. More significant bleeding or procedures respond well to desmopressin (DDAVP). It is most effective in type 1 vWD, less effective in type 2 and contraindicated in type 2B. Individuals who cannot have desmopressin or in whom it is contraindicated usually receive factor VIII concentrates containing vWF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa?
Your Answer: Secretin
Correct Answer: Lactase
Explanation:Lactase, an enzyme belonging to β-galactosidase family of enzymes, brings about the hydrolysis of the disaccharide lactose into galactose and glucose. In humans, it is present along the brush border membrane of the cells lining the small intestinal villi. Deficiency of lactase causes lactose intolerance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 60
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male presents to the urology department for investigation of pyelonephritis. He reports malaise, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a maculopapular rash. The monospot test is negative. Due to a given history of recent high-risk sexual behaviour, you are asked to exclude HIV seroconversion illness in this patient. Which of the following should be the most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: p24 antigen test
Explanation:P24 antigen test is used as one of the main investigations in diagnosing HIV seroconversion illness.
Some people experience a short illness soon after they contract HIV. This is known as seroconversion illness, or primary or acute HIV infection. It is the period when someone with HIV is at their most infectious.
HIV seroconversion is symptomatic in 60%–80% of the patients and typically presents as a glandular fever-type illness. Increased symptomatic severity is associated with poorer long-term prognosis. It typically occurs 2–3 weeks after contracting the virus.
Signs and symptoms include:
1. Sore throat
2. Malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia
3. Diarrhoea
4. Maculopapular rash
5. Oral ulcers
6. Lymphadenopathy
7. Meningoencephalitis (rarely)HIV PCR and p24 antigen test can confirm the diagnosis. The former is the most common and accurate test and consists of both a screening ELISA and a confirmatory western blot assay. P24 antigen test is also used as the mainstay of diagnosis and is usually positive from about 1 week to 3–4 weeks after an infection with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 61
Correct
-
What forms the pelvic diaphragm?
Your Answer: Levator ani and coccygeus muscles
Explanation:The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the levator ani and the coccygeus muscles. The levator ani forms the greater part of the pelvic floor supporting the viscera in the pelvic cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 62
Correct
-
A 56-year-old woman weighs 75 kg. In this patient, total body water, intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid are respectively:
Your Answer: 45 l, 30 l, 15 l
Explanation:The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. The total body water (TBW) content of humans is approximately 60% of body weight. Two-thirds is located in the intracellular and one-third in the extracellular compartment. So, in a 75-kg individual, TBW = 60 × 75/100 = 45 l. Intracellular content = 2/3 × 45 = 30 l and extracellular content = 1/3 × 45 = 15 l.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 63
Correct
-
A 40-year-old man presents to the acute surgical unit with acute pancreatitis. Over the next few days, he becomes dyspnoeic and his saturations are 89% on air and CVP is 16 mmHg. CXR shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is known to precipitate acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which is characterised by bilateral pulmonary infiltrates and severe hypoxaemia in the absence of evidence for cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. Pulmonary oedema is excluded by the CVP reading of <18 mmHg in this scenario. ARDS is subdivided into two stages. Early stage consists of an exudative phase of injury with associated oedema. The later stage is one of repair and consists of fibroproliferative changes. Subsequent scarring may result in poor lung function. ARDS can also lead to multiple organ failure. Various causes of ARDS include:
1. Sepsis
2. Direct lung injury
3. Trauma
4. Acute pancreatitis
5. Long bone fracture or multiple fractures (through fat embolism)
6. Head injury (sympathetic nervous stimulation which leads to acute pulmonary hypertension)Management options are:
1. Treat the underlying cause
2. Antibiotics (if signs of sepsis)
3. Negative fluid balance, i.e. diuretics
4. Recruitment manoeuvres such as prone ventilation and use of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
5. Mechanical ventilation strategy using low tidal volumes, as conventional tidal volumes may cause lung injury (only treatment found to improve survival rates) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the following cytokines?
Your Answer: Interleukin-10
Correct Answer: Interleukin-5
Explanation:IL-5 is produced by TH2 helper cells and by mast cells. They stimulate increased secretion of immunoglobulins and stimulate B cell growth. They are the major regulators in eosinophil activation and control. They are also released from eosinophils and mast cells in asthmatic patients and are associate with a many other allergic conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 65
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?
Your Answer: Anasarca
Explanation:Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 66
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for several years. She recently suffered from a focal seizure for the first time a few days ago. A CT scan shows a mass in the left hemisphere of the brain. The most likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are a common benign intracranial tumour, and their incidence is higher in women between the ages of 40-60 years old. Many of these tumours are asymptomatic and are diagnosed incidentally, although some of them may have malignant presentations (less than 2% of cases). These benign tumours can develop wherever there is dura, over the convexities near the venous sinuses, along the base of the skull, in the posterior fossa and, within the ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 67
Correct
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What's the nodal stage of a testicular seminoma if several lymph nodes between 2cm and 5cm are found?
Your Answer: N2
Explanation:According to the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 2002 guidelines, the nodal staging of testicular seminoma is the following:
N0: no regional lymph node metastases
N1: metastasis with lymph nodes 2 cm or less in their greatest dimension or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2 cm
N2: metastasis with lymph nodes greater than 2 cm but not greater than 5 cm in their greatest dimension, or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm, but not more than 5 cm
N3: metastasis with lymph nodes greater than 5 cm in their greatest dimension.
The patient in this case has N2 testicular seminoma. This TNM staging is extremely important because treatment options are decided depending on this classification. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 68
Correct
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A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.
The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.
The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.
The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 3 month old infant is taken to the hospital after she is observed to have jaundice. Tests show an elevated conjugated bilirubin level. Diagnosis is confirmed by cholangiography during surgery. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: ERCP
Correct Answer: Roux-en-Y portojejunostomy
Explanation:In most cases of atresia, dissection into the porta hepatis and creation of a Roux-en-Y anastomosis with a 35 to 40-cm retro colic jejunal segment is the procedure of choice.
In the unusual circumstance of distal patency of the common duct with acceptable proximal luminal calibre, a modified portoenterostomy may be considered in place of the traditional Kasai procedure. However, the clinician must be aware that progression of disease pathophysiology may occur.Biliary atresia is characterized by obliteration or discontinuity of the extrahepatic biliary system, resulting in obstruction to bile flow. Regardless of aetiology, the clinical presentation of neonatal cholestasis is remarkably similar in most infants.
Typical symptoms include variable degrees of jaundice, dark urine, and light stools. In the case of biliary atresia, most infants are full-term, although a higher incidence of low birthweight may be observed. In most cases, acholic stools are not noted at birth but develop over the first few weeks of life. Appetite, growth, and weight gain may be normal.
Physical findings do not identify all cases of biliary atresia. No findings are pathognomonic for the disorder. Infants with biliary atresia are typically full term and may manifest normal growth and weight gain during the first few weeks of life.
Hepatomegaly may be present early, and the liver is often firm or hard to palpation. Splenomegaly is common, and an enlarging spleen suggests progressive cirrhosis with portal hypertension.
Direct hyperbilirubinemia is always an abnormal finding and it is typically present from birth in the foetal/embryonic form. Consider biliary atresia in all neonates with direct hyperbilirubinemia.
In the more common postnatal form, physiologic jaundice frequently merges into conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The clinician must be aware that physiologic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia rarely persists beyond 2 weeks. Infants with prolonged physiologic jaundice must be evaluated for other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a swelling over his left elbow after a fall on an outstretched hand. On examination, he has tenderness over the proximal part of his forearm and has severely restricted supination and pronation movements. What is the most likely injury?
Your Answer: Galeazzi fracture
Correct Answer: Fracture of the radial head
Explanation:The patient has an injury due to falling on outstretched hands (FOOSH). Putting his clinical picture into consideration, he is most likely to have a fracture of the radial head.
Radial head fractures often occur with FOOSH injuries. Patients will complain of wrist pain, as well as elbow pain, and be hesitant to perform a range of motion. However, pain with supination and pronation at the elbow is imperative for diagnosis. Palpation at the lateral aspect of the elbow will elicit pain; you also may feel crepitus at the radial head with supination pronation. X-rays should be ordered, with a minimum of two views (AP and lateral). Radial head fractures can be difficult to recognize on x-ray. Assess for a sail sign or effusion on the image. A positive fat pad sign aids in diagnosis, as well. If the image is inconclusive, but the exam is consistent, treat until proven otherwise.
Management should include intensive patient education. Compression wrapping for comfort and stability may be used along with a sling. Please note, early light motion is imperative for these patients, as elbow contracture and stiffness are very common after injury, possibly leading to long-term complications. These patients need to be seen by an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible to begin management. Be aware that if displacement or step-off of the radial head is present, this may require surgical intervention, and motion could worsen alignment if not managed meticulously.
Other INJURIES TO THE UPPER EXTREMITY DUE TO (FOOSH):
Radial Styloid Fracture
Distal Radius Fracture
Scaphoid Fracture
Scapholunate Tear
Distal Radioulnar Joint
Cellulitis
Synovitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 71
Correct
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A 32-year-old female is injured in a skiing accident. She suffers a blow to the occiput and is concussed for 5 minutes. On arrival in the ED, she is confused with a GCS 10/15. A CT scan shows no evidence of acute bleed or fracture but some evidence of oedema with the beginnings of mass effect. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol
Explanation:Effective management of intracranial hypertension involves meticulous avoidance of factors that precipitate or aggravate increased intracranial pressure. When intracranial pressure becomes elevated, it is important to rule out new mass lesions that should be surgically evacuated. Medical management of increased intracranial pressure should include sedation, drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, and osmotherapy with either mannitol or hypertonic saline. For intracranial hypertension refractory to initial medical management, barbiturate coma, hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy should be considered. Steroids are not indicated and may be harmful in the treatment of intracranial hypertension resulting from traumatic brain injury.
Mannitol is the most commonly used hyperosmolar agent for the treatment of intracranial hypertension.
Intravenous bolus administration of mannitol lowers the ICP in 1 to 5 minutes with a peak effect at 20 to 60 minutes. The effect of mannitol on ICP lasts 1.5 to 6 hours, depending on the clinical condition. Mannitol usually is given as a bolus of 0.25 g/kg to 1 g/kg body weight; when an urgent reduction of ICP is needed, an initial dose of 1 g/kg body weight should be given. Arterial hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg ) should be avoided. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 57 year old male who had previously undergone a sigmoid colectomy for carcinoma returns to the clinic for a follow up. Imaging shows that he has a 3.1cm foci of metastatic disease in segment IV of the liver. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Surgical resection alone
Correct Answer: Chemotherapy followed by surgical resection
Explanation:Colorectal cancer is one of the most common types of cancer in Western populations. The liver is the first location of metastatic disease; as the main mechanism of dissemination is through the portal system. In addition, the liver may be the sole site of metastasis in 30 to 40% of patients with advanced disease.
Unfortunately, 20% of these patients will develop metastasis in the lungs and >50% in liver. In 20 to 25% of patients at the time of diagnosis, hepatic metastatic disease can be identified clinically, and 40 to 50% will develop during the first 3 years after the primary tumour is diagnosed.
When metastatic lesions are localized in the liver, which corresponds to 30% of patients, there are several options for localized treatment, such as hepatic partial resection, localized ablative therapy, administration of chemotherapy by infusion of the hepatic artery, systemic chemotherapy, and isolated hepatic fusion for patients with high doses of chemotherapy. Surgical resection is the most effective treatment for hepatic metastasis in colorectal cancer, but only a few patients are candidates for initial surgery. Patients with hepatic metastasis that cannot be surgically resected are managed initially with chemotherapy and later are subject to surgery, and these patients present a similar survival rate to those undergoing surgery initially.
Prior to hepatic resection, patients with hepatic metastatic disease frequently receive neoadjuvant chemotherapy, which can aid in disappearing or hidden radiological lesions.
The 5-year survival rate after hepatic resection is 25-40%. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 73
Correct
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A 3 month old baby boy is taken to the hospital for recurrent colicky abdominal pain and intermittent intestinal obstruction. The transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this is shown when imaging is done. What is the cause of this defect?
Your Answer: Morgagni hernia
Explanation:Morgagni hernias are one of the congenital diaphragmatic hernias (CDH), and are characterized by herniation through the foramen of Morgagni. When compared to Bochdalek hernias, Morgagni hernias are:
-anterior
-more often right-sided (,90%)
-small
-rare (,2% of CDH)
-at low risk of prolapseOnly ,30% of patients are symptomatic. Newborns may present with respiratory distress at birth similar to a Bochdalek hernia. Additionally, recurrent chest infections and gastrointestinal symptoms have been reported in those with previously undiagnosed Morgagni hernia.
The image of the transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this indicates that it is a Morgagni hernia since the foramen of a Morgagni hernia occurs in the anterior midline through the sternocostal hiatus of the diaphragm, with 90% of cases occurring on the right side.Clinical manifestations of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) include the following:
Early diagnosis – Right-side heart; decreased breath sounds on the affected side; scaphoid abdomen; bowel sounds in the thorax, respiratory distress, and/or cyanosis on auscultation; CDH can often be diagnosed in utero with ultrasonography (US), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or bothLate diagnosis – Chest mass on chest radiography, gastric volvulus, splenic volvulus, or large-bowel obstruction
Congenital hernias (neonatal onset) – Respiratory distress and/or cyanosis occurs within the first 24 hours of life; CDH may not be diagnosed for several years if the defect is small enough that it does not cause significant pulmonary dysfunction
Congenital hernias (childhood or adult onset) – Obstructive symptoms from protrusion of the colon, chest pain, tightness or fullness the in chest, sepsis following strangulation or perforation, and many respiratory symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 74
Correct
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During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the following muscles will not be affected in cases where the recurrent laryngeal nerve is severed?
Your Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:All muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except for the cricothyroid which is supplied by the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true of Colles’ fracture?
Your Answer: Results in palmar displacement of the distal fractured fragment
Correct Answer: Is a cause of carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Colles’ fracture is a distal fracture of the radius that is a known cause of carpal tunnel syndrome (compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel). It rarely results in ulnar nerve compression. A Colles’ fracture is extra-articular and does not extend into the wrist joint, otherwise this would make it an intra-articular fracture (Barton’s fracture). The distal fragment in a Colles’ fracture is displaced dorsally, unlike in a Smith’s fracture where the distal fragment is displaced volarly (ventrally). Associated fracture of the ulnar styloid process may occur and is a common associated injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 76
Correct
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A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy. Post operatively, he is unable to sing high notes. Which muscle is likely to demonstrate impaired function?
Your Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:Thyroidectomy has been reported as the most frequent cause of external branch of superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) injury.
Diagnosis of EBSLN injury may be difficult because the symptoms are nonspecific in many cases. However, advanced diagnostic techniques have revealed the incidence to be relatively high, ranging from 5 to 28%. Paralysis of the EBSLN causes difficulty with high pitch phonation and decreased pitch range secondary to failure of cricothyroid muscle stimulation and lack of tension in the vocal cord. This symptom may be extremely serious for professional voice users. EBSLN injury can also cause vocal fatigue, hoarseness, breathy sounding voice, and vocal nodules. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 77
Correct
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While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?
Your Answer: Pubic tubercle
Explanation:At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.
Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.
The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.
The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.
The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 78
Correct
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The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:
Your Answer: Elbow joint
Explanation:The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 79
Incorrect
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The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the:
Your Answer: Transverse colon
Correct Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:The presence or absence of the mesentery determines mobility of abdominal contents. Structures like the stomach, transverse colon and appendix have mesenteries and thus are relatively mobile. In contrast, the pancreas is a retroperitoneal (behind the peritoneum) structure and therefore is fixed. The greater omentum is a large mobile fold of omentum that hangs down from the stomach .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 80
Correct
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Blood investigations of a patient with vitamin K deficiency revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. This coagulation abnormality is most probably due to:
Your Answer: Factor VII deficiency
Explanation:Factor VII deficiency is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or reduced activity of clotting factor VII. It may be inherited or acquired at some point during life. Inherited factor VII deficiency is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations of the F7 gene. Factor VII is vitamin K-dependent, as are Factors II, IX and X and therefore lack of this vitamin can cause the development of acquired factor VII deficiency. Other causes of acquired deficiency of this factor include liver disease, sepsis and warfarin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart. This is characteristic of which of the following?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Persistent truncus arteriosus
Explanation:Persistent truncus arteriosus is a congenital heart disease that occurs when the primitive truncus does not divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta, resulting in a single arterial trunk. The spiral septum is created by fusion of a truncal septum and the aorticopulmonary spiral septum. Incomplete development of these septa results in incomplete separation of the common tube of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 82
Correct
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A 52-year-old female presents with pain in her proximal femur. Imaging demonstrates a bone metastasis from an unknown primary site. CT scanning with arterial phase contrast shows that the lesion is hypervascular. From which of the following primary sites is the lesion most likely to have originated?
Your Answer: Renal
Explanation:In females, the breasts and lungs are the most common primary disease sites; approximately 80% of cancers that spread to bone arise in these locations. In males, cancers of the prostate and lungs make up 80% of the carcinomas that metastasize to bone. The remaining 20% of primary disease sites in patients of both sexes are the kidney, gut, and thyroid, as well as sites of unknown origin.
On contrast-enhanced CT scans, RCC is usually solid, and decreased attenuation suggestive of necrosis is often present. Sometimes, RCC is a predominantly cystic mass, with thick septa and wall nodularity.
RCC may also appear as a completely solid and highly enhancing mass -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 83
Correct
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The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:
Your Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix
Explanation:The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 84
Correct
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A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:
Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements
Explanation:Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 85
Correct
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A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation to India. She had no erythema or tenderness. Her skin colour returned to normal over a period of 1 month. Which of the these substances is related to the biochemical change mentioned above?
Your Answer: Tyrosine
Explanation:The tanning process can occur due to UV light exposure as a result of oxidation of tyrosine to dihydrophenylalanine with the help of the tyrosinase enzyme within the melanocytes. Hemosiderin can impart a brown colour due to breakdown of RBC but its usually due to a trauma and is known as haemochromatosis.
Lipofuscin gives a golden brown colour to the cell granules not the skin.
Homogentisic acid is part of a rare disease alkaptonuria, with characteristic black pigment deposition within the connective tissue.
Copper can impart a brown golden colour, but is not related to UV light exposure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 86
Correct
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The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?
Your Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Explanation:One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?
Your Answer: VLDL
Correct Answer: Chylomicron
Explanation:Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 88
Correct
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A 30 year old female chef is taken to the hospital after complaining of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa with fever and diarrhoea. She is taken to the theatre for an appendicectomy but her appendix appears normal. However, her terminal ileum appears thickened and engorged. Which of the following has most likely caused her infection?
Your Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica
Explanation:Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica
Yersinia enterocolitica (see the image below) is a bacterial species in the family Enterobacteriaceae that most often causes enterocolitis, acute diarrhoea, terminal ileitis, mesenteric lymphadenitis, and pseudo appendicitis but, if it spreads systemically, can also result in fatal sepsis. Symptoms of Y enterocolitica infection typically include the following:
Diarrhoea – The most common clinical manifestation of this infection; diarrhoea may be bloody in severe cases
Low-grade fever
Abdominal pain – May localize to the right lower quadrant
Vomiting – Present in approximately 15-40% of cases
Mesenteric adenitis, mesenteric ileitis, and acute pseudo appendicitis
These manifestations are characterized by the following symptoms (although nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and aphthous ulcers of the mouth can also occur):Fever
Abdominal pain
Tenderness of the right lower quadrant
Leucocytosis
Pseudo appendicitis syndrome is more common in older children and young adults. Patients with Y enterocolitica infection often undergo appendectomy; several Scandinavian studies suggested a prevalence rate of 3.8-5.6% for infection with Y enterocolitica in patients with suspected appendicitis.
Analysis of several common-source outbreaks in the United States found that 10% of 444 patients with symptomatic, undiagnosed Y enterocolitica infection underwent laparotomy for suspected appendicitis.
Human clinical Y enterocolitica infections ensue after ingestion of the microorganisms in contaminated food or water or by direct inoculation through blood transfusion.
Y enterocolitica is potentially transmitted by contaminated unpasteurized milk and milk products, raw pork, tofu, meats, oysters, and fish. Outbreaks have been associated with raw vegetables; the surface of vegetables can become contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms through contact with soil, irrigation water, fertilizers, equipment, humans, and animals.
Pasteurized milk and dairy products can also cause outbreaks because Yersinia can proliferate at refrigerated temperatures.
Animal reservoirs of Y enterocolitica include swine (principle reservoir), dogs, cats, cows, sheep, goats, rodents, foxes, porcupines, and birds.
Reports of person-to-person spread are conflicting and are generally not observed in large outbreaks. Transmission via blood products has occurred, however, and infection can be transmitted from mother to new-born infant. Faecal-oral transmission among humans has not been proven.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 89
Correct
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A 33 year old mechanic presents to the A&E department with epigastric pain. An endoscopy is done which shows that he has a punched out ulcer on the anterior wall of the stomach which is shallow and measures 0.8cm in diameter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute peptic ulcer
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease can involve the stomach or duodenum. Gastric and duodenal ulcers usually cannot be differentiated based on history alone, although some findings may be suggestive. Epigastric pain is the most common symptom of both gastric and duodenal ulcers, characterized by a gnawing or burning sensation and that occurs after meals—classically, shortly after meals with gastric ulcers and 2-3 hours afterward with duodenal ulcers.
Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic test in the evaluation of patients with suspected peptic ulcer disease. At endoscopy, gastric ulcers appear as discrete mucosal lesions with a punched-out smooth ulcer base, which often is filled with whitish fibrinoid exudate. Ulcers tend to be solitary and well circumscribed and usually are 0.5-2.5 cm in diameter.
Treatment of peptic ulcers varies depending on the aetiology and clinical presentation. The initial management of a stable patient with dyspepsia differs from the management of an unstable patient with upper gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage. In the latter scenario, failure of medical management not uncommonly leads to surgical intervention.Treatment options include empiric antisecretory therapy, empiric triple therapy for H pylori infection, endoscopy followed by appropriate therapy based on findings, and H pylori serology followed by triple therapy for patients who are infected. Breath testing for active H pylori infection may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 90
Correct
-
Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:
Your Answer: Reduced active transport of sodium
Explanation:The loop of Henlé leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. Its primary function uses a counter current multiplier mechanism in the medulla to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. It can be divided into four parts:
1. Descending limb of loop of Henlé – low permeability to ions and urea, while being highly permeable to water 2. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henlé – not permeable to water, but it is permeable to ions
3. Medullary thick ascending limb of loop of Henlé – sodium (Na+), potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl–) ions are reabsorbed by active transport. K+ is passively transported along its concentration gradient through a K+ channel in the basolateral aspect of the cells, back into the lumen of the ascending limb.
4. The cortical thick ascending limb – the site of action where loop diuretics such as furosemide block the K+/Na+/2Cl− co-transporters = reduced active transport. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity from the bottom of the external acoustic meatus. The interior of the tympanic membrane is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves?
Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Explanation:The glossopharyngeal nerve, known as the ninth cranial nerve (CN IX), is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information. The glossopharyngeal nerve has five distinct general functions:
– The branchial motor (special visceral efferent), supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.
– The visceral motor (general visceral efferent), provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.
– The visceral sensory (general visceral afferent), carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.
– The general sensory (general somatic afferent), provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx (GVA), and the posterior one-third of the tongue.
– The visceral afferent (special visceral afferent), provides taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, including the circumvallate papillae. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 92
Correct
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The primary motor cortex is located in the:
Your Answer: Precentral gyrus
Explanation:The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 93
Correct
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A 51-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urethral injury
Explanation:Pelvic fractures may cause laceration of the urethra. Urinary retention, blood at the urethral meatus, and a high-riding prostate on digital rectal examination are the typical features of urethral injury.
Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.
1.Bulbar rupture:
a. most common
b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus2. Membranous rupture:
a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 94
Correct
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A 55-year-old man is recovering following an elective right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. His surgery is uncomplicated, when should oral intake resume?
Your Answer: Within 24 hours of surgery
Explanation:It has been well established that any delay in the resumption of normal oral diet after major surgery is associated with increased rates of infectious complications and delayed recovery. Early oral diet is safe 4 h after surgery in patients with a new non-diverted colorectal anastomosis. Some report that low residue diet, rather than a clear liquid diet, after colorectal surgery is associated with less nausea, faster return of bowel function, and a shorter hospital stay without increasing postoperative morbidity when administered in association with prevention of postoperative ileus. Spontaneous food intake rarely exceeds 1200–1500 kcal/day. To reach energy and protein requirements, additional oral nutritional supplements are useful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 23 year old woman falls from the roof of her house while putting up Christmas lights and hits the right side of her head. She is rushed to the A&E department and she has a GCS of 7. After eleven hours of observation, she develops an increasing headache and becomes confused. A crescent shaped collection of fluid between her brain and dura with associated midline shift is seen on the CT scan. What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute sub dural haematoma
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Answer: Acute subdural haematoma
An acute subdural haematoma (SDH) is a clot of blood that develops between the surface of the brain and the dura mater, the brain’s tough outer covering, usually due to stretching and tearing of veins on the brain’s surface. These veins rupture when a head injury suddenly jolts or shakes the brain.
Traumatic acute SDHs are among the most lethal of all head injuries. Associated with more severe generalized brain injury, they often occur with cerebral contusions.
SDHs are seen in 10 percent to 20 percent of all traumatic brain injury cases and occur in up to 30 percent of fatal injuries.
Diagnosis:SDHs are best diagnosed by computed tomography (CT) scan. They appear as a dense, crescent-shaped mass over a portion of the brain’s surface.
Most patients with acute SDHs have low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) scores on admission to the hospital.Acute traumatic subdural haematoma often results from falls, violence, or motor vehicle accidents. Suspect acute subdural haematoma whenever the patient has experienced moderately severe to severe blunt head trauma. The clinical presentation depends on the location of the lesion and the rate at which it develops. Often, patients are rendered comatose at the time of the injury. A subset of patients remain conscious; others deteriorate in a delayed fashion as the haematoma expands.
A GCS score less than 15 after blunt head trauma in a patient with no intoxicating substance use (or impaired mental status baseline) warrants consideration of an urgent CT scan. Search for any focal neurologic deficits or signs of increased ICP. Any abnormality of mental status that cannot be explained completely by alcohol intoxication or the presence of another mind-altering substance should increase suspicion of subdural hematoma in the patient with blunt head trauma.The clinical presentation of a patient with an acute subdural haematoma depends on the size of the hematoma and the degree of any associated parenchymal brain injury. Symptoms associated with acute subdural haematoma include the following:
Headache
Nausea
Confusion
Personality change
Decreased level of consciousness
Speech difficulties
Other change in mental status
Impaired vision or double vision
Weakness
On noncontrast CT scan, an acute subdural haematoma appears as a hyperdense (white), crescent-shaped mass between the inner table of the skull and the surface of the cerebral hemisphere.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid?
Your Answer: Phenylalanine
Correct Answer: Tyrosine
Explanation:Tyrosine is the precursor to adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine to DOPA, which is in turn converted to dopamine, then to noradrenaline and finally adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 97
Correct
-
During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from hypercholesterolaemia and is prescribed atorvastatin. What is the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?
Your Answer: Inhibits cholesterol synthesis
Explanation:Atorvastatin is a member of the drug class of statins, used for lowering cholesterol. The mode of action of statins is inhibition of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase. This enzyme is needed by the body to make cholesterol. The primary uses of atorvastatin is for the treatment of dyslipidaemia and the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 98
Correct
-
upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was noted. This is likely to be accompanied with:
Your Answer: Spasticity
Explanation:An upper motor neuron lesion affects the neural pathway above the anterior horn cell or motor nuclei of the cranial nerves, whereas a lower motor neurone lesion affects nerve fibres travelling from the anterior horn of the spinal cord to the relevant muscles. An upper motor neurone lesions results in the following:
– Spasticity in the extensor muscles (lower limbs) or flexor muscles (upper limbs).
– ‘clasp-knife’ response where initial resistance to movement is followed by relaxation
– Weakness in the flexors (lower limbs) or extensors (upper limbs) with no muscle wasting
– Brisk tendon jerk reflexes
– Positive Babinski sign (on stimulation of the sole of the foot, the big toe is raised rather than curled downwards) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 99
Correct
-
A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed with meralgia parasthetica. The condition was discovered to be caused by the pinching of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Injuries at what spinal levels usually affect this nerve?
Your Answer: L2, L3
Explanation:The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh arises from the dorsal division of the lumbar plexus of the second and the third lumbar nerves (L2 – L3). Spinal injuries at this level are likely to affect the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve innervates the skin on the lateral aspect of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?
Your Answer: Levator scapulae
Correct Answer: Trapezius
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 101
Correct
-
A 57 year old man, known case of schizophrenia, undergoes a cholecystectomy. He is administered metoclopramide for post operative nausea. Twenty minutes later, he presents with agitation, marked oculogyric crises and oromandibular dystonia. Which of the following drugs would most likely alleviate his symptoms?
Your Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:An acute dystonic reaction is characterized by involuntary contractions of muscles of the extremities, face, neck, abdomen, pelvis, or larynx in either sustained or intermittent patterns that lead to abnormal movements or postures. The symptoms may be reversible or irreversible and can occur after taking any dopamine receptor-blocking agents.
The aetiology of acute dystonic reaction is thought to be due to a dopaminergic-cholinergic imbalance in the basal ganglia. Reactions usually occur shortly after initiation of an offending agent or an increased dose of a possible offending agent.
Anticholinergic agents and benzodiazepines, procyclidine are the most commonly used agents to reverse or reduce symptoms in acute dystonic reaction. Acute dystonic reactions are often transient but can cause significant distress to the patient. Although rare, laryngeal dystonia can cause life-threatening airway obstruction. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 102
Correct
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Question 103
Correct
-
Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in a young women who suffered serious burns to her chest and hands?
Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency
Explanation:Healing can be sped-up or slowed down due to various reasons: 1. blood supply, 2. infection, 3. denervation, 4. collection of blood/hematoma, 5. mechanical stress, 6. foreign body, 7. techniques used during surgery and 8. dressing of the wound. Other systemic factors include 1. nutrition e.g. deficiency of zinc, vitamin C, protein deficiency, 2. metabolic status, 3. circulatory status and 4. hormonal influence
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:
Your Answer: Anger
Correct Answer: Confusion
Explanation:Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells?
Your Answer: Muscle
Correct Answer: Skin
Explanation:Dendritic cells are part of the immune system and they function mainly as antigen presenting cells. They are present in small quantities in tissues which are in contact in the external environment. Mainly in the skin and to a lesser extent in the lining of the nose, lungs, stomach and intestines. In the skin they are known as Langerhans cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?
Your Answer: Auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3)
Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Explanation:Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 107
Correct
-
The most likely cause of prominent U waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient is:
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:The U-wave, not always visible in ECGs, is thought to represent repolarisation of papillary muscles or Purkinje fibres. When seen, it is very small and occurs after the T-wave. Inverted U-waves indicate myocardial ischaemia or left ventricular volume overload. Prominent U-waves are most commonly seen in hypokalaemia. Other causes include hypercalcaemia, thyrotoxicosis, digitalis exposure, adrenaline and class 1A and 3 anti-arrhythmic agents. It can also be seen in congenital long-QT syndrome and in intracranial haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?
Your Answer: IX
Correct Answer: X
Explanation:The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 109
Correct
-
During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric
Explanation:The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.
The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.
The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 46-year-old male is involved in a polytrauma and requires a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. Three hours later he develops marked hypoxia and his CVP is noted to be 10mm Hg. A chest x-ray shows bilateral diffuse pulmonary infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fluid overload
Correct Answer: Transfusion associated lung injury
Explanation:A massive blood transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in <24 h
The abnormalities which result include effects upon coagulation status, serum biochemistry, acid-base balance and temperature homeostasis.
One of the complications is Transfusion-related acute lung injury
(TRALI) which is the most common cause of major morbidity and death after transfusion. It presents as an acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) either during or within 6 h of transfusion.Clinical features
Hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, cyanosis, fever, tachycardia and hypotension result from non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. The radiographic appearance is of bilateral pulmonary infiltration, characteristic of pulmonary oedema. It is important to differentiate TRALI from other causes of ARDS such as circulatory overload or myocardial or valvular heart disease. Invasive monitoring in TRALI demonstrates normal intracardiac pressuresPathogenesis
Two different mechanisms for the pathogenesis of TRALI have been identified: immune (antibody-mediated) and non-immune. Immune TRALI results from the presence of leucocyte antibodies in the plasma of donor blood directed against human leucocyte antigens (HLA) and human neutrophil alloantigens (HNA) in the recipient. Antibodies present in the recipient only rarely cause TRALI. In up to 40% of patients, leucocyte antibodies cannot be detected in either donor or recipient. In these cases, it is possible that reactive lipid products released from the membranes of the donor blood cells act as the trigger. This is known as non-immune TRALI.
The target cell in both forms of TRALI is the neutrophil granulocyte. On activation of their acute phase cycle, these cells migrate to the lungs where they become trapped within the pulmonary microvasculature. Oxygen-free radicals and other proteolytic enzymes are then released which destroy the endothelial cells of the lung capillaries. A pulmonary capillary leak syndrome develops with the exudation of fluid and protein into the alveoli resulting in pulmonary oedema. The majority of reactions are severe, and often life-threatening; 70% require mechanical ventilation and 6–9% are fatal. A definitive diagnosis requires antibody detection. The mortality in non-immune TRALI is lower, and the syndrome is encountered predominantly in critically ill patients.
Other Complications of blood transfusion
Early:
– Haemolytic reactions
Immediate
Delayed
– Non-haemolytic febrile reactions
– Allergic reactions to proteins, IgA
– Reactions secondary to bacterial contamination
– Circulatory overload
– Air embolism
– Thrombophlebitis
– Hyperkalaemia
– Citrate toxicity
– Hypothermia
– Clotting abnormalities (after massive transfusion)
Late:
– Transmission of infection
– Viral (hepatitis A, B, C, HIV, CMV)
– Bacterial (Treponeum pallidum, Salmonella)
– Parasites (malaria, toxoplasma)
– Graft-vs-host disease
– Iron overload (after chronic transfusions)
– Immune sensitization (Rhesus D antigen) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
Which of these infectious agents tends to affect people under 20 and over 40 years old, can cause acute encephalitis with cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages, along with haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe. A lumbar puncture will reveal clear cerebrospinal fluid with an elevated lymphocyte count?
Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Explanation:Haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe are typical of Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE). It tends to affect patients aged under 20 or over 40 years, and is often fatal if left untreated. In acute encephalitis, cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages occur and direct viral invasion of the brain usually damages neurones. The majority of cases of herpes encephalitis are caused by herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), and about 10% of cases of herpes encephalitis are due to HSV-2, which is typically spread through sexual contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:
Your Answer: Enterocolic reflex
Correct Answer: Gastrocolic reflex
Explanation:The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman is admitted with right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant region. Imaging shows signs of acute cholecystitis due to gallstones. The common bile duct appears normal and liver function tests are normal as well. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 months following resolution of the attack
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy during the next 24–48 hours
Explanation:In most cases, the treatment of choice for acute cholecystitis is cholecystectomy performed early in the illness. The procedure can be carried out laparoscopically even when acute inflammation is present. Delayed surgery particularly around five to seven days after presentation is much more technically challenging and is often best deferred.
Up to 24% of women and 12% of men may have gallstones. Of these, up to 30% may develop local infection and cholecystitis. The classical symptom of cholecystitis is colicky right upper quadrant pain that occurs postprandially. Others include swinging pyrexia, and general feeling of being unwell. They are usually worst following a fatty meal when cholecystokinin levels are highest and gallbladder contraction is maximal.
Murphy’s sign is positive on examination. The standard diagnostic work-up consists of abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests. For management, cholecystectomy should ideally be done within 48 hours of presentation. In patients unfit for surgery, percutaneous drainage may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?
Your Answer: It permits carbon dioxide to pass via facilitated diffusion
Correct Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected
Explanation:The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 115
Correct
-
A young man is brought to the doctor and a lesion is seen on the dorsal surface of his right hand. It is examined and it is found to be a soft fluctuant swelling which is more pronounced when he is making a fist. What is the possible nature of the lesion?
Your Answer: Ganglion
Explanation:Answer: Ganglion
A ganglion cyst is a fluid-filled swelling that usually develops near a joint or tendon. The cyst can range from the size of a pea to the size of a golf ball. Ganglion cysts look and feel like a smooth lump under the skin.
They’re made up of a thick, jelly-like fluid called synovial fluid, which surrounds joints and tendons to lubricate and cushion them during movement.
Ganglions can occur alongside any joint in the body, but are most common on the wrists (particularly the back of the wrist), hands and fingers.
Ganglions are harmless, but can sometimes be painful. If they do not cause any pain or discomfort, they can be left alone and may disappear without treatment, although this can take a number of years.
It’s not clear why ganglions form. They seem to happen when the synovial fluid that surrounds a joint or tendon leaks out and collects in a sac.
They are most common in younger people between the ages of 15 and 40 years, and women are more likely to be affected than men. These cysts are also common among gymnasts, who repeatedly apply stress to the wrist. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 116
Correct
-
A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm left lower lobe well-defined round opacity. Which of the following conditions is most probably responsible for this finding?
Your Answer: Pulmonary hamartoma
Explanation:An asymptomatic healthy patient with no history of smoking and a lesion of small size most probably has a benign lung lesion. Hamartomas are one of the most common benign tumours of the lung that accounts for approximately 6% of all solitary pulmonary nodules. Pulmonary hamartomas are usually asymptomatic and therefore are found incidentally when performing an imaging test for other reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 117
Correct
-
The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and the duodenum, is a branch of the:
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery together with the right gastroepiploic artery form the two branches of the gastroduodenal artery which divides at the lower border of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 118
Correct
-
A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?
Your Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Answer: Rickets
Rickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person.
The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily; the child’s walk may look different (waddling)
skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spine
dental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavities
poor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than average
fragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.
A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture.Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.
Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 119
Correct
-
The uterine artery arises from the?
Your Answer: Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 120
Correct
-
The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test should be done on this patient to screen for cervical cancer?
Your Answer: Pap smear
Explanation:Worldwide, approximately 500,000 new cases of cervical cancer and 274,000 deaths are attributable to cervical cancer yearly. This makes cervical cancer the second most common cause of death from cancer in women. The mainstay of cervical cancer screening has been the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 121
Correct
-
Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted or absorbed by the kidney. In these cases, their clearance rate is equal to:
Your Answer: Glomerular filtration rate
Explanation:If a substance passes through the glomerular membrane with perfect ease, the glomerular filtrate contains virtually the same concentration of the substance as does the plasma and if the substance is neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubules, all of the filtered substance continues on into the urine. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) describes the flow rate of filtered fluid through the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 122
Correct
-
After being admitted to the hospital, a 60-year-old man is administered sodium nitroprusside. Which class of drugs does nitroprusside belong to?
Your Answer: Vasodilators
Explanation:Sodium nitroprusside is a potent peripheral vasodilator that affects both arterioles and venules. It is often administered intravenously to patients who are experiencing a hypertensive emergency. It reduces both total peripheral resistance as well as venous return, so decreasing both preload and afterload. For this reason it can be used in severe cardiogenic heart failure where this combination of effects can act to increase cardiac output. It is administered by intravenous infusion. Onset is typically immediate and effects last for up to ten minutes. The duration of treatment should not exceed 72 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 123
Correct
-
A 20 year old man is involved in a car accident where he is thrown out of the car. He is seen with distended neck veins and a weak pulse on admission. The trachea is central. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Hemopericardium
Explanation:Answer: Hemopericardium
Hemopericardium refers to the presence of blood within the pericardial cavity, i.e. a sanguineous pericardial effusion. If enough blood enters the pericardial cavity, then a potentially fatal cardiac tamponade can occur. There is a very long list of causes but some of the more common are:
-ruptured myocardial infarction
-ruptured left ventricular aneurysm
-aortic dissection
-pericarditis
-trauma
-blunt/penetrating/deceleration
-iatrogenic, e.g. pacemaker wire insertion
-cardiac malignancies
-ruptured coronary artery aneurysm
-post-thrombolysisCardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent hemodynamic compromise. The condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.
Symptoms vary with the acuteness and underlying cause of the tamponade. Patients with acute tamponade may present with dyspnoea, tachycardia, and tachypnoea. Cold and clammy extremities from hypoperfusion are also observed in some patients. Other symptoms and signs may include the following:
Elevated jugular venous pressurePulsus paradoxus
Chest pressure
Decreased urine output
Confusion
Dysphoria
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 124
Correct
-
A patient with chronic renal disease, missed a day of his dialysis schedule., His serum potassium was 7.6 mmol/L when his electrolytes were checked. What is the ECG finding expected in this patient?
Your Answer: Tented T waves
Explanation:ECG characteristics of hyperkalaemia may show the following changes: P-waves are widened and of low amplitude due to slowing of conduction, widened QRS complex, QRS-T fusion, loss of ST segment and tall tented T waves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 125
Correct
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Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is known as:
Your Answer: Phimosis
Explanation:Phimosis is the inability to fully retract the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male. It can be physiological in infancy, in which it could be referred to as ‘developmental non-retractility of the foreskin. However, it is almost always pathological in older children and men. Causes include chronic inflammation (e.g. balanoposthitis), multiple catheterisations, or forceful foreskin retraction. One of the causes is chronic balanitis xerotica obliterans. It leads to development of a ring of indurated tissue near the tip of the prepuce, which prevents retraction. Contributory factors include infections, hormonal and inflammatory factors. The recommended treatment includes circumcision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 126
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:
Your Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II
Explanation:Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A suspected recreational drug user was brought to the Emergency department in an unconscious state, and was found to be hypoventilating. Which of the following set of arterial blood gas analysis report is most consistent with hypoventilation as the primary cause? pH, pa(CO2) (mmHg), pa(O2) (mmHg).
Your Answer: 7.45, 25, 71
Correct Answer: 7.28, 55, 81
Explanation:Hypoventilation (or respiratory depression) causes an increase in carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) and respiratory acidosis. It can result due to drugs such as alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, opiates, mechanical conditions or holding ones breath. Strong opioids such as heroin and fentanyl are commonly implicated and can lead to respiratory arrest. In recreational drug overdose, acute respiratory acidosis occurs with an increase in p(CO2) over 45 mm Hg and acidaemia (pH < 7.35)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 128
Correct
-
Injury to this nerve will affect the function of the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles:
Your Answer: Cranial nerve X
Explanation:The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) innervates both the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 62 year old woman who has undergone a right hip hemiarthroplasty for a fractured femoral neck, is found to have low serum sodium of 124mmol/L a few days postoperatively. Which of the following is the least likely cause of her deranged labs?
Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH)
Correct Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:Vomiting usually results in hypokalaemia, and hyponatremia would least likely occur as a result of it. Hyponatremia is a common postoperative finding among patients and hence serum sodium must be carefully monitored. Addison disease, SIADH, diuretic therapy can all cause hyponatremia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 130
Correct
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A 50-year old gentleman was recently diagnosed with hypertension, with no other abnormality on physical examination. Further investigations revealed the following : Na+ 144 mmol/l, K+ 3.0 mmol/l, Cl- 107 mmol/l, Bicarbonate 25 mmol/l. Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conn syndrome
Explanation:Overproduction of aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid) by the adrenal glands is known as Conn’s syndrome. It can be either due to an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma (50-60% cases) or adrenal gland hyperplasia (40-50% cases). Excess aldosterone leads to sodium and water retention, along with potassium excretion. This leads to arterial (non-essential) hypertension. Conn’s syndrome is the commonest cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Other symptoms include muscle cramps, headache (due to hypokalaemia) and metabolic alkalosis, which occurs due to increased secretion of H+ ions by the kidney. The raised pH of the blood traps calcium leading to symptoms of hypocalcaemia, which can be mimicked by liquorice ingestion and Liddle syndrome. To diagnose Conn’s syndrome, the ratio of renin and aldosterone is measured. Due to suppression of renin secretion, there is low renin to aldosterone ratio (<0.05). However, anti-hypertensives may affect the test results and should be withdrawn for 6 weeks. Computed tomography can also be done to detect the presence of adrenal adenoma.
Cushing’s syndrome does not cause hypokalaemia with normal serum glucose levels. Nelson’s syndrome refers to increased ACTH secretion due to pituitary adenoma. Pheochromocytoma will not lead to hypokalaemia even though hypertension can be seen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to the stomach?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal
Correct Answer: Splenic
Explanation:The splenic artery is the large artery that would be found running off the posterior wall of the stomach. It is a branch of the coeliac trunk and sends off branches to the pancreas before reaching the spleen. The gastroduodenal artery on the other hand is found inferior to the stomach, posterior to the first portion of the duodenum. The left gastroepiploic artery runs from the left to the right of the greater curvature of the stomach. The common hepatic artery runs on the superior aspect of the lesser curvature of the stomach, and is a branch of the coeliac trunk. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta just below the junction of the coeliac trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old lady who is a known case of Graves' disease presents with a relapse on stopping the antithyroid drugs. Radioiodine is offered as the next treatment by the endocrinologists. Which of the following statements regarding such treatment is false?
Your Answer: Up to 80% of patients will become hypothyroid
Correct Answer: It increases the risk of parathyroid carcinoma
Explanation:All of the listed options are true regarding radioiodine therapy, except for the first option. Treatment with radioiodine does not increase the risk of parathyroid carcinoma.
Recurrence of Graves’ disease is treated similar to normal Graves’ disease. However, some patients may need definitive treatment with radioiodine or thyroidectomy. These patients are usually hypothyroid post treatment and are treated with L-thyroxine until their TSH values are within normal parameters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?
Your Answer: Milk-alkali syndrome
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 134
Correct
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A 50 year old man develops a colocutaneous fistula after having reversal of a loop colostomy fashioned for the defunctioning of an anterior resection. Pre-operative Gastrografin enema showed no distal obstruction or anastomotic stricture. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Provide local wound care and await spontaneous resolution
Explanation:Containment of fistula output and skin protection should be instituted as soon as the diagnosis is made as it will decrease local skin excoriation and inflammation, pain and infection. While low output fistulas may be controlled with a simple absorbent dressing, complex fistulas often require advanced techniques including barrier creams, powders, and sealants to protect the skin from auto-digestion as well as bridging for fistula isolation, topographical enhancements, and complex pouching systems with or without sump drainage
Fistulas arising from the oesophagus, duodenal stump after gastric resection, pancreaticobiliary tract, and jejunum are more likely to close without operative intervention. Additionally, those with long tracts and small enteric wall defects are associated with higher spontaneous closure rates. Fistulas in the colon show favourable rates of spontaneous resolution. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 135
Correct
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a crush injury to his right forearm. On examination, the arm is tender, red, and swollen. There is clinical evidence of an ulnar fracture, and the patient cannot move his fingers. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Fasciotomy
Explanation:The combination of a crush injury, limb swelling, and inability to move digits raises suspicion of compartment syndrome that would require a fasciotomy.
Compartment syndrome is a particular complication that may occur following fractures, especially supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries. It is characterised by raised pressure within a closed anatomical space which may, eventually, compromise tissue perfusion, resulting in necrosis.
The clinical features of compartment syndrome include:
1. Pain, especially on movement
2. Paraesthesia
3. Pallor
4. Paralysis of the muscle group may also occurDiagnosis is made by measurement of intracompartmental pressure. Pressures >20mmHg are abnormal and >40mmHg are diagnostic.
Compartment syndrome requires prompt and extensive fasciotomy. Myoglobinuria may occur following fasciotomy, resulting in renal failure. Therefore, aggressive IV fluids are required. If muscle groups are frankly necrotic at fasciotomy, they should be debrided, and amputation may have to be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 136
Correct
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A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy, complains of swinging pyrexia over the past 48 hours. Clinical examination is significant for an ileus. Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Abdominal CT scan with IV contrast
Explanation:Abdominal CT with IV contrast would be carried out in this case and this presentation has most likely resulted due to an anastomotic leak with abscess formation which is a common complication following surgery. This can occur in any of the branches and anticipating the likely complication and appropriate avoidance will minimize their occurrence. Detailed imaging is required to allow accurate diagnosis and further planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 137
Correct
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A 63 year old woman reports colicky abdominal pain and foul smelling diarrhoea on the 4th day following a cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis. Her surgery was complicated as the gallbladder spilled stones intraoperatively. She has been on ciprofloxacin therapy ever since her surgery. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile; formerly known as Clostridium difficile) is a gram-positive rod-shaped bacillus that is commonly involved in antibiotic-associated diarrhoea. As the bacterial spores are difficult to eradicate and easily transmitted (via faecal-oral transmission), the C. difficile infection rate is particularly high among hospitalized patients and residents in long-term care facilities.
Colonization with C. difficile occurs following antibiotic treatment of other diseases, as the bacteria is particularly resistant to antibiotics. The resulting damage to the intestinal flora promotes infection, which may be accompanied by high fever, abdominal pain, and characteristically foul-smelling diarrhoea. The most severe form of C. difficile infection is pseudomembranous colitis, which may lead to ileus, sepsis, and toxic megacolon. In most cases, however, colonization results in asymptomatic carriage rather than symptomatic infection.
Diagnosis is usually made via detection of the C. difficile toxin and/or corresponding genes in stool samples. C. difficile infections are treated with oral vancomycin or oral fidaxomicin. Following diagnosis, strict adherence to hygiene measures and patient isolation is essential, especially in hospitals and other healthcare settings. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was scheduled for CT scan. If the CT scan revealed a tumour at the horn of the lateral ventricle, which of the following structures is most likely to be compressed by this tumour?
Your Answer: Thalamus
Correct Answer: Fibres of the corpus callosum
Explanation:The ventricular system of the brain is made up of four ventricles namely; two lateral and a third and forth ventricle. The ventricles are the site of the development of the cerebrospinal fluid. The left and right lateral ventricles are located in each of the brain’s hemispheres. The roof of the lateral ventricles are made up of the fibres of the corpus callosum. This is the structure that would be compressed by the a tumour on the roof of the lateral ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
Mallory bodies are characteristic of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis
Explanation:Mallory bodies (or ‘alcoholic hyaline’) are inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of liver cells, seen in patients of alcoholic hepatitis; and also in Wilson’s disease. These pathological bodies are made of intermediate keratin filament proteins that are ubiquinated or bound by proteins like heat chock protein. Being highly eosinophilic, they appear pink on haematoxylin and eosin staining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 140
Correct
-
During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical plexus of nerves that is embedded in the carotid sheath is most susceptible to injury?
Your Answer: Ansa cervicalis
Explanation:The ansa cervicalis is a loop of nerves that are part of the cervical plexus. They lie superficial to the internal jugular vein in the carotid triangle. Branches from the ansa cervicalis innervate the sternohyoid, sternothyroid and the inferior belly of the omohyoid. The superior root of the ansa cervicalis is formed by a branch of spinal nerve C1. These nerve fibres travel in the hypoglossal nerve before leaving to form the superior root. The superior root goes around the occipital artery and then descends embedded in the carotid sheath. It sends a branch off to the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle and is then joined by the inferior root. The inferior root is formed by fibres from spinal nerves C2 and C3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?
Your Answer: Pia mater and the brain
Correct Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater
Explanation:The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 142
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the doctor complaining of cough, shortness of breath, fever and weight loss. Chest X-ray revealed bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymph node enlargement and bilateral pulmonary opacities. Non-caseating granulomas were found on histological examination. The most likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease of unknown aetiology that affects multiple organs but predominantly the lungs and intrathoracic lymph nodes. Systemic and pulmonary symptoms may both be present. Pulmonary involvement is confirmed by a chest X-ray and other imaging studies. The main histological finding is the presence of non-caseating granulomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 143
Correct
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A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest X ray revealed a perihilar mass with bronchiectasis in the left mid-lung. Which of the following is most probably associated with these findings?
Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid
Explanation:Bronchial carcinoids are neuroendocrine tumours that arise from Kulchitsky’s cells of the bronchial epithelium. Kulchitsky’s cells belong to the diffuse endocrine system. Patients affected by this tumour may be asymptomatic or may present with symptoms of airway obstruction, like dyspnoea, wheezing, and cough. Other common findings are recurrent pneumonia, haemoptysis, chest pain and paraneoplastic syndromes. Chest radiographs are abnormal in the majority of cases. Peripheral carcinoids usually present as a solitary pulmonary nodule. For central lesions common findings include hilar or perihilar masses with or without atelectasis, bronchiectasis, or consolidation. Bronchial carcinoids most commonly arise in the large bronchi causing obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
A 39 year old male is identified as having gallstones after presenting with colicky right upper quadrant pain. An abdominal ultrasound scan was done. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: MRCP
Correct Answer: Liver function tests
Explanation:In patients with suspected gallstone complications, blood tests should include a complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential, liver function panel, and amylase and lipase. Up to 24% of women and 12% of men may have gallstones. Of these up to 30% may develop local infection and cholecystitis.
Acute cholecystitis is associated with polymorphonuclear leucocytosis. However, up to one third of the patients with cholecystitis may not manifest leucocytosis. In severe cases, mild elevations of liver enzymes may be caused by inflammatory injury of the adjacent liver.
Patients with cholangitis and pancreatitis have abnormal laboratory test values. Importantly, a single abnormal laboratory value does not confirm the diagnosis of choledocholithiasis, cholangitis, or pancreatitis; rather, a coherent set of laboratory studies leads to the correct diagnosis.
Choledocholithiasis with acute common bile duct (CBD) obstruction initially produces an acute increase in the level of liver transaminases (alanine and aspartate aminotransferases), followed within hours by a rising serum bilirubin level. The higher the bilirubin level, the greater the predictive value for CBD obstruction. CBD stones are present in approximately 60% of patients with serum bilirubin levels greater than 3 mg/dL.
If obstruction persists, a progressive decline in the level of transaminases with rising alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels may be noted over several days. Prothrombin time may be elevated in patients with prolonged CBD obstruction, secondary to depletion of vitamin K (the absorption of which is bile-dependent). Concurrent obstruction of the pancreatic duct by a stone in the ampulla of Vater may be accompanied by increases in serum lipase and amylase levels.
Repeated testing over hours to days may be useful in evaluating patients with gallstone complications. Improvement of the levels of bilirubin and liver enzymes may indicate spontaneous passage of an obstructing stone. Conversely, rising levels of bilirubin and transaminases with progression of leucocytosis in the face of antibiotic therapy may indicate ascending cholangitis with the need for urgent intervention. Blood culture results are positive in 30%-60% of patients with cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow area and damaging the nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. What is the most likely result from that injury?
Your Answer: Abduction of the thumb
Correct Answer: Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5
Explanation:The nerve injured in this situation is the ulnar nerve. It passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus before going between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. This nerve supplies the muscles and skin of forearm and hand. At the level of medial epicondyle, the injury will led to paralysis in flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus as well as the palmar interossei and hypothenar muscles in the hand. The correct answer will be that the boy will suffer from inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?
Your Answer: Palatopharyngeus
Correct Answer: Levator veli palatini
Explanation:The levator veli palatini is the elevator muscle of the soft palate. During swallowing, it contracts, elevating the soft palate to help prevent food from entering the nasopharynx. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 147
Correct
-
A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came to the hospital. Examination revealed multiple lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly. Investigations revealed haemoglobin 11 g/dl, haematocrit 32.4%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 93 fl, white blood cell count 63 × 109/l, and platelet count 39 × 109/l; along with characteristic Auer rods on peripheral blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)
Explanation:AML, or acute myeloid leukaemia is the commonest acute leukaemia affecting adults. increasing in incidence with age. It is a malignancy of the myeloid line of white blood cells. It results in rapid proliferation of abnormal cells, which accumulate in the marrow. Interference with normal cell production leads to a drop in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This causes symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, tendency to bleed or bruise easily and recurrent infections. AML is known to progress quickly and can lead to death in weeks and months if not treated. Leukemic blasts of AML show presence of Auer rods. These are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form needles in the cytoplasm. Composed of fused lysosomes, these contain peroxidase, lysosomal enzymes and crystalline inclusions. Auer rods are classically present in myeloid blasts of M1, M2, M3 and M4 acute leukaemia. They also help to distinguish the preleukemia myelodysplastic syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 148
Correct
-
Which of the following toxins most likely results in continuous cAMP production, which pumps H2O, sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate into the lumen of the small intestine and results in rapid dehydration?
Your Answer: Cholera toxin
Explanation:The cholera toxin (CTX or CT) is an oligomeric complex made up of six protein subunits: a single copy of the A subunit (part A), and five copies of the B subunit (part B), connected by a disulphide bond. The five B subunits form a five-membered ring that binds to GM1 gangliosides on the surface of the intestinal epithelium cells. The A1 portion of the A subunit is an enzyme that ADP-ribosylates G proteins, while the A2 chain fits into the central pore of the B subunit ring. Upon binding, the complex is taken into the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the disulphide bond is reduced, and the A1 subunit is freed to bind with a human partner protein called ADP-ribosylation factor 6 (Arf6). Binding exposes its active site, allowing it to permanently ribosylate the Gs alpha subunit of the heterotrimeric G protein. This results in constitutive cAMP production, which in turn leads to secretion of H2O, Na+, K+, Cl−, and HCO3− into the lumen of the small intestine and rapid dehydration. The gene encoding the cholera toxin was introduced into V. cholerae by horizontal gene transfer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?
Your Answer: Inferior oblique muscle
Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle
Explanation:The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman trips over a step, injuring her right ankle. Examination reveals tenderness over the lateral malleolus and X-ray demonstrates an undisplaced fracture distal to the syndesmosis. What should be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Surgical fixation
Correct Answer: Application of ankle boot
Explanation:The patient has a Weber type A fracture, based on the Danis-Weber classification system for lateral malleolar fractures. It is a stable ankle injury and can, therefore, be managed conservatively. Whilst this patient could also be treated in a below-knee plaster, most clinicians, nowadays, treat this injury in an ankle boot. Patients are also advised to mobilise with the ankle boot as pain allows and can wean themselves off as the symptoms improve.
The Danis-Weber classification system is based on the level of the fibula fracture in relation to the syndesmosis (the connection between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula). The more proximal, the greater the risk of syndesmotic injury and, therefore, fracture instability.
1. Weber type A: fracture below the level of the syndesmosis
2. Weber type B: fracture at the level of the syndesmosis/level of the tibial plafond
3. Weber type C: fracture above the level of the syndesmosis. This includes Maisonneuve fracture (proximal fibula fracture) which can be associated with ankle instability.Ankle fractures are common. They affect men and women in equal numbers, but men have a higher rate as young adults (sports and contact injuries), and women have a higher rate post-menopausal (fragility-type fractures). Patients present, following a traumatic event, with a painful, swollen ankle, and reluctance/inability to bear weight.
Radiographs of clearly deformed or dislocated joints are not necessary, and removing the pressure on the surrounding soft tissues from the underlying bony deformity is the priority. If the fracture pattern is not clinically obvious, then plain radiographs are appropriate. Antero-posterior, lateral, and mortise views are essential to evaluate fracture displacement and syndesmotic injury. Decreased tibiofibular overlap, medial joint clear space, and lateral talar shift all indicate a syndesmotic injury.
When deciding upon treatment for an ankle fracture, one must consider both the fracture and the patient. Diabetic patients and smokers are at greater risk of post-operative complication, especially wound problems and infection. Likewise, the long term outcome of post-traumatic arthritis from a malunited ankle fracture is extremely important for a young patient, but not as relevant in the elderly. Unimalleolar Weber type A fractures, by definition, are stable and therefore, can be mobilised fully in an ankle boot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 151
Correct
-
Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice?
Your Answer: Hepatic disease if plasma albumin is low and serum aminotransferase elevations > 500 units
Explanation:Jaundice can occur due to any of the possible causes and treatment depends upon diagnosing the correct condition. Mild hyperbilirubinemia with normal levels of aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase is often unconjugated (e.g., due to haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome rather than hepatobiliary disease). Moderate or severe hyperbilirubinemia along with increased urinary bilirubin (bilirubinuria), high alkaline phosphatase or aminotransferase levels suggest hepatobiliary disease. Hyperbilirubinemia produced by any hepatobiliary disease is largely conjugated. In this case, other blood tests include hepatitis serology for suspected hepatitis, prothrombin time (PT) or international normalised ratio (INR), albumin and globulin levels, and antimitochondrial antibody levels (suspected primary biliary cirrhosis). Low albumin and high globulin levels suggest chronic rather than acute liver disease. In cases where there is only a an elevation of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) levels should be checked – the levels of which will be found high in hepatobiliary disease, but not in bone disorder which can also lead to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. In diseases of hepatobiliary origin, aminotransferase elevations > 500 units suggest a hepatocellular cause, whereas disproportionate increases of alkaline phosphatase (e.g., alkaline phosphatase > 3 times normal and aminotransferase < 200 units) suggest cholestasis. Because hepatobiliary disease alone rarely causes bilirubin levels > 30 mg/dl, higher levels are suggestive of a combination of severe hepatobiliary disease and haemolysis or renal dysfunction. Imaging is best for diagnosing infiltrative and cholestatic causes of jaundice. Liver biopsy is rarely needed, but can be of use in intrahepatic cholestasis and in some types of hepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 152
Correct
-
The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is:
Your Answer: Hypoxic hypoxia
Explanation:Hypoxia is when the whole body or a region is deprived of adequate oxygen supply. Different types of hypoxia include the following:
– Hypoxic hypoxia, which occurs due to poor oxygen supply, as a result of low partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood. This could be due to low partial pressure of atmospheric oxygen (e.g., at high altitude), sleep apnoea, poor ventilation because of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or respiratory arrest, or shunts. The other types of hypoxia have a normal partial pressure of oxygen.
– Anaemic hypoxia occurs due to low total oxygen content of the blood, with a normal arterial oxygen pressure.
– Hyperaemic hypoxia occurs due to poor delivery of oxygen to target tissues, such as in carbon monoxide poisoning or methemoglobinemia.
– Histotoxic hypoxia results due to inability of the cells to use the delivered oxygen due to disabled oxidative phosphorylation enzymes.
– Ischaemic (or stagnant) hypoxia occurs due to local flow restriction of well-oxygenated blood, seen in cases like cerebral ischaemia, ischaemic heart disease and intrauterine hypoxia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 153
Correct
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A 62-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit was found to have a low serum phosphate level. What is the serum level of phosphate which is considered as normal in adults?
Your Answer: 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
Explanation:After calcium, phosphorus is the most plentiful mineral in the human body. It is an important and vital element which our body needs to complete many physiologic processes , such as filtering waste and repairing cells. Phosphorus helps with bone growth and approximately 85% of phosphate in the body is contained in bone. Phosphate is involved in energy storage, and nerve and muscle production. A normal range of plasma phosphate in adults teenagers generally from 0.8 mmol/l to 1.45 mmol/l. The normal range varies depending on age. Infants and children have higher phosphorus levels because more of this mineral is needed for their normal growth and bone development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?
Your Answer: The amplitude of maximal basilar membrane displacement increases
Correct Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea
Explanation:An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 155
Correct
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A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard blow to his palm that has resulted into a painful swelling over the volar aspect of his hand. On examination, pain is felt on wrist movement and longitudinal compression of the thumb. Which of the following is the most likely injury?
Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone. Fractures are most often localized in the middle third of the scaphoid bone.
Generally, scaphoid bone fractures result from indirect trauma when an individual falls onto the outstretched hand with a hyperextended and radially deviated wrist. Pain when applying pressure to the anatomical snuffbox is highly suggestive of a scaphoid bone fracture.
X-ray is the initial test of choice for diagnosis. Computer tomography and magnetic resonance imaging may be indicated, if x-ray findings are negative but clinical suspicion is high.
Treatment can be conservative (e.g., wrist immobilization) or in certain cases surgical (e.g., proximal pole fracture). Complications include non-union and avascular necrosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 156
Correct
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A 53 year old male presents with generalised right upper quadrant pain which started from the previous day. On admission, he is septic and jaundiced and there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cholangitis
Explanation:Acute cholangitis is a bacterial infection superimposed on an obstruction of the biliary tree most commonly from a gallstone, but it may be associated with neoplasm or stricture. The classic triad of findings is right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, fever, and jaundice. A pentad may also be seen, in which mental status changes and sepsis are added to the triad.
A spectrum of cholangitis exists, ranging from mild symptoms to fulminant overwhelming sepsis. Thus, therapeutic options for patient management include broad-spectrum antibiotics and, potentially, emergency decompression of the biliary tree.
The main factors in the pathogenesis of acute cholangitis are biliary tract obstruction, elevated intraluminal pressure, and infection of bile. A biliary system that is colonized by bacteria but is unobstructed, typically does not result in cholangitis. It is believed that biliary obstruction diminishes host antibacterial defences, causes immune dysfunction, and subsequently increases small bowel bacterial colonization. Although the exact mechanism is unclear, it is believed that bacteria gain access to the biliary tree by retrograde ascent from the duodenum or from portal venous blood. As a result, infection ascends into the hepatic ducts, causing serious infection. Increased biliary pressure pushes the infection into the biliary canaliculi, hepatic veins, and perihepatic lymphatics, leading to bacteraemia (25-40%). The infection can be suppurative in the biliary tract. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 157
Correct
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During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:
Your Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 158
Correct
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What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?
Your Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 159
Correct
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All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:
Your Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 160
Correct
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A 46-year-old male complains of sharp chest pain. He is due to have elective surgery to replace his left hip. He has been bed-bound for 3 months. He suddenly collapses; his blood pressure is 70/40mmHg, heart rate 120 bpm and his saturations are 74% on air. He is deteriorating in front of you. What is the next best management plan?
Your Answer: Thrombolysis with Alteplase
Explanation:The patient has Pulmonary embolism (PE).
PE is when a thrombus becomes lodged in an artery in the lung and blocks blood flow to the lung. Pulmonary embolism usually arises from a thrombus that originates in the deep venous system of the lower extremities; however, it rarely also originates in the pelvis, renal, upper extremity veins, or the right heart chambers. After travelling to the lung, large thrombi can lodge at the bifurcation of the main pulmonary artery or the lobar branches and cause hemodynamic compromise.
The classic presentation of PE is the abrupt onset of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia. However, most patients with pulmonary embolism have no obvious symptoms at presentation. Rather, symptoms may vary from sudden catastrophic hemodynamic collapse to gradually progressive dyspnoea.
Physical signs of pulmonary embolism include the following:
Tachypnoea (respiratory rate >16/min): 96%
Rales: 58%
Accentuated second heart sound: 53%
Tachycardia (heart rate >100/min): 44%
Fever (temperature >37.8°C [100.04°F]): 43%
Diaphoresis: 36%
S3 or S4 gallop: 34%
Clinical signs and symptoms suggesting thrombophlebitis: 32%
Lower extremity oedema: 24%
Cardiac murmur: 23%
Cyanosis: 19%
Management
Anticoagulation and thrombolysis
Immediate full anticoagulation is mandatory for all patients suspected of having DVT or PE. Diagnostic investigations should not delay empirical anticoagulant therapy.
Thrombolytic therapy should be used in patients with acute pulmonary embolism who have hypotension (systolic blood pressure< 90 mm Hg) who do not have a high bleeding risk and in selected patients with acute pulmonary embolism not associated with hypotension who have a low bleeding risk and whose initial clinical presentation or clinical course suggests a high risk of developing hypotension.
Long-term anticoagulation is critical to the prevention of recurrence of DVT or pulmonary embolism because even in patients who are fully anticoagulated, DVT and pulmonary embolism can and often do recur.
Thrombolytic agents used in managing pulmonary embolism include the following:
– Alteplase
– ReteplaseHeparin should be given to patients with intermediate or high clinical probability before imaging.
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) should be considered (a) as a first dose bolus, (b) in massive PE, or (c) where rapid reversal of effect may be needed.
Otherwise, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) should be considered as preferable to UFH, having equal efficacy and safety and being easier to use.
Oral anticoagulation should only be commenced once venous thromboembolism (VTE) has been reliably confirmed.
The target INR should be 2.0–3.0; when this is achieved, heparin can be discontinued.
The standard duration of oral anticoagulation is: 4–6 weeks for temporary risk factors, 3 months for first idiopathic, and at least 6 months for other; the risk of bleeding should be balanced with that of further VTE. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 161
Correct
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During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original size. Which of the following organelles is responsible for this regression?
Your Answer: Lysosomes
Explanation:Lysosomes are formed by budding of the Golgi apparatus and contain enzymes which digest macromolecules. They are found in both plants and animals and are active in autophagic cell death, digestion after phagocytosis and for the cells own recycling process. They fuse with the molecules and release their content resulting in digestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A patient in the intensive care unit developed hyperphosphatemia. The phosphate level is 160 mmol/L. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this abnormality?
Your Answer: Refeeding after prolonged malnutrition
Correct Answer: Renal insufficiency
Explanation:Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is an abnormally elevated level of phosphate in the blood. It is caused by conditions that impair renal phosphate excretion (ex: renal insufficiency, hypoparathyroidism, parathyroid suppression) and conditions with massive extracellular fluid phosphate loads (ex: rapid administration of exogenous phosphate, extensive cellular injury or necrosis, transcellular phosphate shifts).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?
Your Answer: Gives rise to the styloid process and hyoid bone
Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament
Explanation:The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 164
Correct
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A 50 year old man presents to the hospital with an episode of alcoholic pancreatitis. He makes progress slowly but steadily. He is reviewed clinically at 7 weeks following admission. On examination, he is seen with a diffuse fullness of his upper abdomen and on imaging, a collection of fluid is found to be located behind the stomach. Tests show that his serum amylase is mildly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Your Answer: Pseudocyst
Explanation:A pancreatic pseudocyst is a circumscribed collection of fluid rich in pancreatic enzymes, blood, and necrotic tissue, typically located in the lesser sac of the abdomen. Pancreatic pseudocysts are usually complications of pancreatitis, although in children they frequently occur following abdominal trauma. Pancreatic pseudocysts account for approximately 75% of all pancreatic masses.
Signs and symptoms of pancreatic pseudocyst include abdominal discomfort and indigestion.Diagnosis of Pancreatic pseudocyst can be based on cyst fluid analysis:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and CEA-125 (low in pseudocysts and elevated in tumours);
Fluid viscosity (low in pseudocysts and elevated in tumours);
Amylase (usually high in pseudocysts and low in tumours)The most useful imaging tools are:
-Ultrasonography – the role of ultrasonography in imaging the pancreas is limited by patient habitus, operator experience and the fact that the pancreas lies behind the stomach (and so a gas-filled stomach will obscure the pancreas).
-Computerized tomography – this is the gold standard for initial assessment and follow-up.
-Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) – to establish the relationship of the pseudocyst to the pancreatic ducts, though not routinely used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 165
Correct
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A 4 year old girl falls off the monkey bars in the park and lands on her left forearm. She is rushed to the hospital and on examination, she has bony tenderness and bruising. X-ray shows unilateral cortical disruption and development of periosteal haematoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Greenstick fracture
Explanation:A greenstick fracture is a fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and breaks. Greenstick fractures occur most often during infancy and childhood when bones are soft.
Some clinical features of a greenstick fracture are similar to those of a standard long bone fracture – greenstick fractures normally cause pain at the injured area. As these fractures are specifically a paediatric problem, an older child will be protective of the fractured part and babies may cry inconsolably. As per a standard fracture, the area may be swollen and either red or bruised. Greenstick fractures are stable fractures as a part of the bone remains intact and unbroken so this type of fracture normally causes a bend to the injured part, rather than a distinct deformity, which is problematic.
Radiographic features
-usually mid-diaphyseal
-occur in tandem with angulation
-incomplete fracture, with cortical breach of only one side of the bone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 166
Correct
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The histological exam of a tuberculous granuloma shows a periphery of multinuclear giant cells, with a central area of:
Your Answer: Caseous necrosis
Explanation:Granulomas with necrosis tend to have an infectious cause. The chronic infective lesion in this case typically presents with a central area of caseous (cheese-like) necrosis. Foam cells are the fat-laden M2 macrophages seen in atherosclerosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 167
Correct
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A 26-year-old female presents with a long history of obstructed defecation and chronic constipation. She often strains to open her bowels for long periods and occasionally notices that she has passed a small amount of blood. On examination, she has an indurated area located anteriorly approximately 3cm proximal to the anal verge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome
Explanation:Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome is a rare disorder that involves straining during defecation, a sense of incomplete evacuation, and sometimes passage of blood and mucus by rectum.
The syndrome is poorly named because associated lesions may be solitary or multiple and ulcerated or nonulcerated; they range from mucosal erythema to ulcers to small mass lesions.
Lesions are typically located in the anterior rectal wall within 10 cm of the anal verge.
It is probably caused by localized ischemic injury or prolapse of the distal rectal mucosa. Diagnosis is clinical with confirmation by flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy. Treatment is a bowel regimen for mild cases, but surgery is sometimes needed if rectal prolapse is the cause.The cardinal symptom of Fissure in ano is pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 168
Correct
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A 7 year old boy is taken to his family doctor for treatment of a painful limp. His mother states that the symptoms started 7 weeks ago. Two hip x-rays have been performed and they appear normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange a hip MRI
Explanation:Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease is a common cause of hip pain and limp in preadolescent children. Early in its course, this condition, a form of idiopathic osteonecrosis (or osteochondrosis), may be difficult to diagnose both clinically and radiographically. MRI is a useful tool for the evaluation of LCP disease that may assist with prompt diagnosis, staging, and evaluation of associated complications. In addition, a variety of MRI findings may provide valuable prognostic information. The MRI findings of LCP disease are quite variable depending on the different stages of the disease (avascular, revascularization, and healing phases).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 13 month old baby was taken to the hospital after his father saw that he had periorbital oedema for two days. He is seen by the doctor and noted to have facial oedema and a tender distended abdomen. His temperature is 39.1 and his blood pressure is 91/46 mmHg. There is also clinical evidence of poor peripheral perfusion. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch Schönlein purpura
Correct Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Explanation:Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
The presence of periorbital and facial oedema with normal blood pressure in this toddler indicates that he has nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome can be associated with a series of complications that can affect an individual’s health and quality of life:
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis can develop where there is ascites present. This is a frequent development in children but very rarely found in adults.Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is the development of a bacterial infection in the peritoneum, despite the absence of an obvious source for the infection. It is specifically an infection of the ascitic fluid – an increased volume of peritoneal fluid. Ascites is most commonly a complication of cirrhosis of the liver. It can also occur in patients with nephrotic syndrome. SBP has a high mortality rate.
The diagnosis of SBP requires paracentesis, a sampling of the peritoneal fluid taken from the peritoneal cavity. If the fluid contains large numbers of white blood cells known as neutrophils (>250 cells/µL), infection is confirmed and antibiotics will be given, without waiting for culture results. In addition to antibiotics, infusions of albumin are usually administered.
Signs and symptoms of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) include fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and tenderness, general malaise, altered mental status, and worsening ascites. Thirteen percent of patients have no signs or symptoms. In cases of acute or chronic liver failure SBP is one of the main triggers for hepatic encephalopathy, and where there is no other clear causal indication for this, SBP may be suspected.
These symptoms can also be the same for a spontaneous fungal peritonitis (SFP) and therefore make a differentiation difficult. Delay of diagnosis can delay antifungal treatment and lead to a higher mortality rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than a slowly developing loud sound. This is because:
Your Answer: The fluid pressure in the scala tympani decreases as a sound becomes louder
Correct Answer: There is a latent period before the attenuation reflex can occur
Explanation:On transmission of a loud sound into the central nervous system, an attenuation reflex occurs after a latent period of 40-80 ms. This reflex contracts the two muscles that pull malleus and stapes closer, developing a high degree of rigidity in the entire ossicular chain. This reduces the ossicular conduction of low frequency sounds to the cochlea by 30-40 decibels. In this way, the cochlea is protected from damage due to loud sounds (these are low frequency sounds) when they develop slowly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 171
Correct
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The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing tumour. The function of which of the following structures will be affected?
Your Answer: Ciliary muscle
Explanation:The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve (CNIII). It offers motor and parasympathetic innervation to many of the ocular structures. The motor fibres innervate a number of the extraocular muscles. While the parasympathetic fibres supply the sphincter pupillae and the ciliary muscles of the eye, and the sympathetic fibres innervates the superior tarsal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male presents with a 10-day history of right-sided abdominal pain. Prior to this, he was well. On examination, he has a low-grade fever and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. The rest of his abdomen is soft. An abdominal USS demonstrates matted bowel loops surrounding a thickened appendix. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Perform a laparoscopic appendicectomy
Correct Answer: Manage conservatively with antibiotics
Explanation:The patient mostly has an appendicular mass.
At present, the treatment of choice for uncomplicated acute appendicitis in adults continues to be surgical. The inflammation in acute appendicitis may sometimes be enclosed by the patient’s own defence mechanisms, by the formation of an inflammatory phlegmon or a circumscribed abscess. The management of these patients is controversial. An immediate appendectomy may be technically demanding. The exploration often ends up in an ileocecal resection or a right-sided hemicolectomy. Recently, the conditions for conservative management of these patients have changed due to the development of computed tomography and ultrasound, which has improved the diagnosis of enclosed inflammation and made drainage of intra-abdominal abscesses easier. New efficient antibiotics have also given new opportunities for nonsurgical treatment of complicated appendicitis. The traditional management of these patients is nonsurgical treatment followed by interval appendectomy to prevent a recurrence. The need for interval appendectomy after successful nonsurgical treatment has recently been questioned because the risk of recurrence is relatively small.
In patients with suspicion of contained appendiceal inflammation, based on a palpable mass or long duration of symptoms, the diagnosis should be confirmed by imaging techniques, especially CT scan. The patient should receive primary nonsurgical treatment with antibiotics and abscess drainage as needed. After successful nonsurgical treatment, no interval appendectomy is indicated in some cases, but the patient should be informed about the risk of recurrence especially in the presence of appendicolith. The risk of missing another underlying condition (cancer or CD) is low, but motivates a follow-up with a colon examination and/or a CT scan or US, especially in patients above the age of 40 years. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
A teenage Somalian boy presents with a complaint of an enlarged lower jaw. His blood film shows blast cells and macrophages. Which virus is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus
Explanation:Burkitt’s lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Histologically it is characterised by a starry sky appearance due to numerous neoplastic macrophages which are required to clear the rapidly dividing tumour cells/blast cells. Burkitt’s lymphoma commonly affects the jaw bone, forming a huge tumour mass. It is associated with translocation of c-myc gene and has three types: 1) endemic/African type, 2)sporadic and 3)immunodeficiency-associated. The first type is strongly associated with EBV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 30 year old man suffered severe blood loss, approx. 20-30% of his blood volume. What changes are most likely seen in the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) and pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) respectively following this decrease in cardiac output?
Your Answer: Decrease Decrease
Correct Answer: Increase Decrease
Explanation:Hypovolemia will result in the activation of the sympathetic adrenal discharge resulting is a decrease pulmonary artery pressure and an elevated pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 175
Correct
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A 34 year old woman of Singaporean descent arrives at clinic for a pre operative assessment of varicose veins. On auscultation, a mid diastolic murmur is heard at the apex. The murmur is accentuated when the patient lies in the left lateral position. Which of the following is the most likely underlying lesion?
Your Answer: Mitral valve stenosis
Explanation:A mid diastolic murmur at the apex is a classical description of a mitral stenosis (MS) murmur.
MS a valvular anomaly of the mitral valve that leads to obstruction of blood flow into the left ventricle. The most common cause of MS is rheumatic fever. The clinical manifestations depend on the extent of stenosis: reduced mitral opening leads to progressive congestion behind the stenotic valve. Acute decompensation can cause pulmonary oedema. Echocardiography is the main diagnostic tool for evaluating the mitral valve apparatus, left atrial size, and pulmonary pressure. In the event of high grade and/or symptomatic stenosis, percutaneous valvuloplasty or surgical valve replacement is often required.Types and causes of murmurs:
Ejection systolic: Aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, HOCM, ASD, Fallot’s
Pan-systolic: Mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation, VSD
Late systolic: Mitral valve prolapse, coarctation of aorta
Early diastolic: Aortic regurgitation, Graham-Steel murmur (pulmonary regurgitation)
Mid diastolic: Mitral stenosis, Austin-Flint murmur (severe aortic regurgitation) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 176
Incorrect
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Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in the neck, a man has the point of his shoulder (scapula) sagging and he has difficulty with full abduction of his arm. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Your Answer: Suprascapular
Correct Answer: Accessory (cranial nerve XI)
Explanation:Injury to the accessory nerve denervates the trapezius muscle so that the person will no longer be able to raise the acromion of the shoulder. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids i.e. major and minor and the levator scapulae so that injury to this nerve weakens retraction of the scapula. The greater occipital nerve is responsible for sensation of the posterior scalp. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle which is responsible for abduction of the arm and the suprascapular nerve is responsible for rotating the humerus laterally. Cutaneous nerves supply the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 177
Correct
-
A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with bladder cancer and tumour invasion of the perivesical fat. What is the stage of the patient's bladder cancer?
Your Answer: T3
Explanation:Bladder cancer is the growth of abnormal or cancerous cells on the inner lining of the bladder wall. The staging is as follows; stage 0is (Tis, N0, M0): Cancerous cells in the inner lining tissue of the bladder only, stage I (T1, N0, M0): tumour has spread onto the bladder wall, stage II (T2, N0, M0): tumour has penetrated the inner wall and is present in muscle of the bladder wall, stage III (T3, N0, M0): tumour has spread through the bladder to fat around the bladder and stage IV: (T4, N0, M0): tumour has grown through the bladder wall and into the pelvic or abdominal wall. The stage of cancer in the case presented is T3 because of the invasion of perivesical fat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 178
Correct
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A middle aged woman presents with a 4 day history of sore throat, malaise and fatigue and she is seen to have a large peritonsillar abscess on examination. Which of the following would most likely be the causative agent?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Tonsillitis is inflammation of the pharyngeal tonsils. The inflammation usually extends to the adenoid and the lingual tonsils; therefore, the term pharyngitis may also be used. Most cases of bacterial tonsillitis are caused by group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes (GABHS).
Signs and symptoms
TonsillitisIndividuals with acute tonsillitis present with the following:
Fever
Sore throat
Foul breath
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Odynophagia (painful swallowing)
Tender cervical lymph nodesAirway obstruction may manifest as mouth breathing, snoring, sleep-disordered breathing, nocturnal breathing pauses, or sleep apnoea.
Peritonsillar abscess
Individuals with peritonsillar abscess (PTA) present with the following:
Severe throat pain
Fever
Drooling
Foul breath
Trismus (difficulty opening the mouth)
Altered voice quality (the hot-potato voice)Treatment of acute tonsillitis is largely supportive and focuses on maintaining adequate hydration and caloric intake and controlling pain and fever.
Corticosteroids may shorten the duration of fever and pharyngitis in cases of infectious mononucleosis (MN). In severe cases of MN, corticosteroids or gamma globulin may be helpful. GABHS infection obligates antibiotic coverage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 179
Correct
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A 6 year old boy is brought to the ER after being hit by a car. He is hemodynamically unstable with bilateral femoral shaft fractures and a suspicion of splenic rupture. Despite having thoroughly explained the risks, the parents have refused blood transfusions and any invasive measures on account of religious beliefs. What would be the most appropriate response by the physician?
Your Answer: Proceed with treatment
Explanation:In an emergency, where consent cannot be obtained, doctors should provide medical treatment that is in the patient’s best interests and is immediately necessary to save a life or avoid significant deterioration in the patient’s health. There is clearly insufficient time here to apply to a court. The GMC and common law advises that emergency life saving treatment can be given to a child irrespective of the parents views.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Management And Legal Issues In Surgery
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 180
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?
Your Answer: Sternal notch
Correct Answer: Sternal angle
Explanation:The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic with a recurrent thyroid cyst. It has been drained on three different occasions. Each time the cyst is aspirated and cytology is reassuring. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Enucleation of the cyst
Correct Answer: Resection of the ipsilateral thyroid lobe
Explanation:Aspiration is the treatment of choice in thyroid cysts, but the recurrence rates are high (60%–90% of patients), particularly with repeated aspirations and large-volume cysts.
Percutaneous ethanol injection (PEI) has been studied in several large randomized controlled studies, with reported success in 82–85% of the cases after an average of 2 sessions, with a volume reduction of more than 85% from baseline size.
PEI may also be considered for hyperfunctioning nodules, particularly if a large fluid component is present. It has a success rate ranging from 64% to 95%, with a mean volume reduction of 66%, but recurrences are more common and the number of sessions required to achieve good response is higher (about 4 sessions per patient). PEI is a safe procedure, with the most common reported adverse effects being local pain, dysphonia, flushing, dizziness, and, rarely, recurrent laryngeal nerve damage.
Surgery, Lobectomy is also a reasonable therapy for cystic lesions, as an alternative to the previously mentioned procedures. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 182
Correct
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A 35 year old gardener presents to the clinic complaining of a lesion on the dorsum of his right hand that has been present for the last 10 days. He had been pruning rose bushes before the lesion occurred. Examination shows a raised ulcerated lesion that bleeds easily on contact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Pyogenic granuloma is a vascular lesion that occurs on both mucosa and skin, and appears as an overgrowth of tissue due to irritation, physical trauma, or hormonal factors. It is often found to involve the gums, the skin and nasal septum, and has also been found far from the head such as in the thigh. Contact bleeding and ulceration are common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Skin Lesions
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Question 183
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with vasculitis and the histopathological sample revealed giant-cell arteritis. What is the most probable diagnose?
Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is the most common systemic inflammatory vasculitis that occurs in adults. It is of unknown aetiology and affects arteries large to small however the involvement of the superficial temporal arteries is almost always present. Other commonly affected arteries include the ophthalmic, occipital and vertebral arteries, therefore GCA can result in systemic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic complications. GCA usually is found in patients older than 50 years of age and should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache accompanied by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Diagnosis depends on the results of artery biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?
Your Answer: Falx inguinalis
Correct Answer: Arcuate line
Explanation:The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.
The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.
The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 185
Correct
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Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of plasma. Which microbial product is responsible for this activity?
Your Answer: Coagulase
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus is the most pathogenic species and is implicated in a variety of infections. S. aureus can be identified due to its production of coagulase. The staphylococcal enzyme coagulase will cause inoculated citrated rabbit plasma to gel or coagulate. The coagulase converts soluble fibrinogen in the plasma into insoluble fibrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 186
Correct
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A 60-year-old female has sudden onset of high-grade fever associated with cough with productive rusty-coloured sputum. Chest x-ray showed left-sided consolidation. What is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Sputum culture
Explanation:Sputum culture is used to detect and identify the organism that are infecting the lungs or breathing passages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 187
Correct
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A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department in an unconscious state, following a car collision. He was driving at a high speed of 140 km/hr, wearing a seat belt, when his car collided with a brick wall. CT scan of the brain appears to be normal. However, he remains in a persistent vegetative state. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer: Diffuse axonal injury
Explanation:This is a case of diffuse axonal injury (DAI) which occurs when the head is rapidly accelerated or decelerated.
DAI is a form of traumatic brain injury which occurs when the brain rapidly shifts inside the skull as an injury is occurring. The long connecting fibres in the brain called axons are sheared as the brain rapidly accelerates and decelerates inside the hard bone of the skull. There are two components of DAI:
1. Multiple haemorrhages
2. Diffuse axonal damage in the white matterUp to two-thirds of the changes occurs at the junction of the grey and white matter due to the different densities of the tissue. These are mainly histological and axonal damage is secondary to biochemical cascades. Often, there are no signs of a fracture or contusion. DAI typically causes widespread injury to the brain leading to loss of consciousness. The changes in the brain are often very tiny and can be difficult to detect using CT or MRI scans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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Question 188
Correct
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A 55-year-old male presents with central chest pain. On examination, he has a mitral regurgitation murmur. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V1 to V6. There is no ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior myocardial infarct
Explanation:High-probability ECG features of MI are the following:
ST-segment elevation greater than 1 mm in two anatomically contiguous leads
The presence of new Q wavesIntermediate-probability ECG features of MI are the following:
ST-segment depression
T-wave inversion
Other nonspecific ST-T wave abnormalities
Low-probability ECG features of MI are normal ECG findings. However, normal or nonspecific findings on ECGs do not exclude the possibility of MI.Special attention should be made if there is diffuse ST depression in the precordial and extremity leads associated with more than 1 mm ST elevation in lead aVR, as this may indicate stenosis of the left main coronary artery or the proximal section of the left anterior descending coronary artery.
Localization of the involved myocardium based on the distribution of ECG abnormalities in MI is as follows:
– Inferior wall – II, III, aVF
– Lateral wall – I, aVL, V4 through V6
– Anteroseptal – V1 through V3
– Anterolateral – V1 through V6
– Right ventricular – RV4, RV5
– Posterior wall – R/S ratio greater than 1 in V1 and V2, and – T-wave changes in V1, V8, and V9
– True posterior-wall MIs may cause precordial ST depressions, inverted and hyperacute T waves, or both. ST-segment elevation and upright hyperacute T waves may be evident with the use of right-sided chest leads.Hyperacute (symmetrical and, often, but not necessarily pointed) T waves are frequently an early sign of MI at any locus.
The appearance of abnormalities in a large number of ECG leads often indicates extensive injury or concomitant pericarditis.
The characteristic ECG changes may be seen in conditions other than acute MI. For example, patients with previous MI and left ventricular aneurysm may have persistent ST elevations resulting from dyskinetic wall motion, rather than from acute myocardial injury. ST-segment changes may also be the result of misplaced precordial leads, early repolarization abnormalities, hypothermia (elevated J point or Osborne waves), or hypothyroidism.
False Q waves may be seen in septal leads in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). They may also result from cardiac rotation.
Substantial T-wave inversion may be seen in left ventricular hypertrophy with secondary repolarization changes.
The QT segment may be prolonged because of ischemia or electrolyte disturbances.
Saddleback ST-segment elevation (Brugada epsilon waves) may be seen in leads V1-V3 in patients with a congenital predisposition to life-threatening arrhythmias. This elevation may be confused with that observed in acute anterior MI.
Diffuse brain injuries and haemorrhagic stroke may also trigger changes in T waves, which are usually widespread and global, involving all leads.
Convex ST-segment elevation with upright or inverted T waves is generally indicative of MI in the appropriate clinical setting. ST depression and T-wave changes may also indicate the evolution of NSTEMI.
Patients with a permanent pacemaker may confound recognition of STEMI by 12-lead ECG due to the presence of paced ventricular contractions.
To summarize, non-ischemic causes of ST-segment elevation include left ventricular hypertrophy, pericarditis, ventricular-paced rhythms, hypothermia, hyperkalaemia and other electrolyte imbalances, and left ventricular aneurysm. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 189
Correct
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On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?
Your Answer: Anterior humeral circumflex
Explanation:The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off two branches: the anterior humeral circumflex artery and the posterior humeral circumflex artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 190
Correct
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Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?
Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A significantly elevated white cell count of 50 x 109/l with 5% blasts and raised leucocyte alkaline phosphatase is seen in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia
Correct Answer: Leukaemoid reaction
Explanation:Non-neoplastic proliferation of leucocytes causes an increase in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP). This is referred to as ‘leukemoid reaction’ because of the similarity to leukaemia with an increased white cell count (>50 × 109/l) with immature forms. Causes of leukemoid reaction includes haemorrhage, drugs (glucocorticoids, all-trans retinoic acid etc), infections such as tuberculosis and pertussis, and as a paraneoplastic phenomenon. Leukemoid reaction can also be seen in infancy as a feature of trisomy 21. This is usually a benign condition, but can be a response to a disease state. Differential diagnosis include chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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Whipple's procedure involves mobilizing the head of the pancreas. As the surgeon does this, he must be careful to avoid injury to a key structure that is found lying behind the head of the pancreas. Which vital structure is this?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric vein
Correct Answer: Common bile duct
Explanation:The posterior relations of the head of the pancreas include: the inferior vena cava, the common bile duct, the renal veins, the right crus of the diaphragm and the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 193
Correct
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An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Folliculitis is the inflammation of the hair follicles. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 194
Correct
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A 63 year old man presents with recurrent colicky abdominal pain. A CT scan demonstrates a hernia lateral to the rectus muscle at the level of the arcuate line. What type of hernia would this be classified as?
Your Answer: Spigelian
Explanation:A Spigelian hernia (or lateral ventral hernia) is a hernia through the Spigelian fascia, which is the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the semilunar line laterally. These are generally interparietal hernias, meaning that they do not lie below the subcutaneous fat but penetrate between the muscles of the abdominal wall; therefore, there is often no notable swelling.
Spigelian hernias are usually small and therefore risk of strangulation is high. Most occur on the right side. (4th–7th decade of life.) Compared to other types of hernias they are rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 195
Correct
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A 32-year-old lady presents with a six-month history of an offensive discharge from the anus. She is otherwise well but is annoyed at the need to wear pads. On examination, she has a small epithelial defect in the five o'clock position, approximately three centimetres from the anal verge. Out of the following, which is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Fistula-in-ano
Explanation:This patient is a case of fistula-in-ano.
A fistula-in-ano is an abnormal hollow tract or cavity that is lined with granulation tissue and that connects a primary opening inside the anal canal to a secondary opening in the perianal skin; secondary tracts may be multiple and can extend from the same primary opening. Fistulae usually occur following previous ano-rectal sepsis. The discharge may be foul smelling and troublesome.
Fistula-in-ano is classified into two groups based on its anatomical location.
1. Low fistula: relatively close to the skin and passes through a few or no sphincter muscle fibres, crosses <30% external sphincter
2. High fistula: passes through a large amount of muscleAssessment of fistula-in-ano includes:
1. Examination of the perineum
2. Digital rectal examination (DRE)
Low, uncomplicated fistulas may not require any further assessment. Other groups will usually require more detailed investigation.
3. Endo-anal USS
4. Ano-rectal MRI scanTreatment options include:
1. Seton suture
2. Fistulotomy: Low fistulas that are simple should be treated by fistulotomy once the acute sepsis has been controlled. Fistulotomy (where safe) provides the highest healing rates.
3. Anal fistula plugs and fibrin glue
4. Ano-rectal advancement flaps: primarily for high fistulae -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 196
Incorrect
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Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?
Your Answer: Releases O2 only at high ρ(O2)
Correct Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2
Explanation:Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 197
Correct
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During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 198
Correct
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Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of cancer. Which of the following is the correct indication for this drug?
Your Answer: Lung cancer
Explanation:Etoposide phosphate is an inhibitor of the enzyme topoisomerase II. It is used as a form of chemotherapy for malignancies such as lung cancer, testicular cancer, lymphoma, non-lymphocytic leukaemia and glioblastoma multiforme. Side effects are very common and can include low blood cell counts, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, hair loss, and fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old intravenous drug user is found to have a femoral abscess. He is also febrile with a temperature of 39°C and has a pansystolic murmur loudest at the left sternal edge in the 4th intercostal space. Which of the following is the most likely underlying lesion?
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Intravenous drug users are at a high risk of right-sided cardiac valvular endocarditis. The character of the murmur described in the scenario fits with the diagnosis of tricuspid valve endocarditis.
Other listed options are ruled out because:
1. Aortic regurgitation—Early diastolic murmur
2. Mitral regurgitation—Pansystolic murmur
3. Aortic valve stenosis—Ejection systolic murmur
4. Tricuspid valve stenosis—Mid-diastolic murmur -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 200
Correct
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A 30-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the shoulder. He has recently been unwell with glandular fever from which he is fully recovered. On examination, there is some evidence of muscle wasting and a degree of winging of the scapula. Power during active movements is impaired. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation:Parsonage-Turner Syndrome (PTS), also referred to as idiopathic brachial plexopathy or neuralgic amyotrophy, is a rare disorder consisting of a complex constellation of symptoms with abrupt onset of shoulder pain, usually unilaterally, followed by progressive neurologic deficits of motor weakness, dysesthesias, and numbness. Although the aetiology of the syndrome is unclear, it is reported in various clinical situations, including postoperatively, postinfectious, posttraumatic, and postvaccination.
The most common associated risk factor is a recent viral illness.
The pain is not positional and usually worse at night and may be associated with awakenings from sleep. There are typically no constitutional symptoms associated with the syndrome. The duration of pain is almost always self-limiting, lasting 1 to 2 weeks, but on rare occasion persisting for longer periods.
In the earliest stages of this condition (the first few weeks), pain management with opiates, NSAIDs, and neuroleptics is the mainstay of treatment. Acupuncture and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) can also be adjuncts to medications. Oral steroids have been recommended by some, but there is poor literature evidence to support its efficacy.
Physical therapy plays an important role in the treatment of this condition. Modalities such as TENS can help in pain management. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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