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  • Question 1 - An older man tries to lift a heavy shopping bag but experiences sudden...

    Incorrect

    • An older man tries to lift a heavy shopping bag but experiences sudden pain in his shoulder. As a result, he feels soreness in the area of the greater tuberosity of the humerus. He notices that he cannot initiate abduction when he tries to move his shoulder, but can continue to abduct once the arm is lifted away from his side. The shoulder flexion and extension can be performed normally, and the humerus medial and lateral rotation is also unaffected. What is the most probable diagnosis for the tendon injury?

      Your Answer: Subscapularis

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      Muscles of the Shoulder: Functions and Roles

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that relies on several muscles to perform its various movements. Here are some of the key muscles involved in shoulder movement and their functions:

      Supraspinatus: This muscle initiates the first 15-20 degrees of abduction of the arm. After this point, the middle fibers of the deltoid take over. The supraspinatus is also part of the rotator cuff.

      Infraspinatus: Along with the teres minor, the infraspinatus is a lateral rotator of the humerus. It is also part of the rotator cuff.

      Deltoid: The deltoid muscle assists with shoulder abduction after the first 15-20 degrees, which is initiated by the supraspinatus.

      Subscapularis: This muscle inserts into the lesser tuberosity of the humerus and is a medial rotator of the humerus. It also helps stabilize the shoulder joint as part of the rotator cuff.

      Biceps brachii: This muscle is responsible for flexion of the arm and forearm, as well as supination of the forearm. However, it does not play a role in abduction of the humerus.

      Understanding the functions and roles of these muscles can help with injury prevention and rehabilitation, as well as improving overall shoulder strength and mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
      Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function

      Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
      Which one of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.

      A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.

      Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall on the dry ski slope. She fell with her thumb outstretched and caught it in the matting on the slope surface.
      Upon examination, the thumb is swollen and bruised, and she experiences difficulty making a pinching movement between her index finger and thumb. A palpable mass is present on the ulnar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. A plain X-ray shows no fracture or dislocation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Injuries and Diagnostic Considerations

      Ruptured Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL):
      The UCL provides stability to the ulnar side of the MCP joint of the thumb. Injuries typically occur from forced abduction of the thumb or repetitive abduction movements. Diagnosis is made through X-ray to rule out associated fractures and lateral stress testing. Ultrasound or MRI may be required for further evaluation. Surgical repair is necessary due to the functional importance of the UCL, although partial tears may be managed with a thumb spica splint and physiotherapy.

      Ruptured Radial Collateral Ligament (RCL):
      The mechanism of injury is more consistent with a UCL injury, and swelling is localized to the ulnar aspect of the MCP joint.

      Scaphoid Fracture:
      Typically caused by a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand (FOOSH), scaphoid injuries present with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain on axial compression of the thumb, tenderness over the scaphoid tubercle, or pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist.

      Simple Thumb Dislocation:
      The thumb is bruised and swollen but not deformed. X-ray does not show any fracture or dislocation.

      Undisplaced Proximal Phalanx Fracture:
      The X-ray shows no evidence of fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a hot swollen joint....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a hot swollen joint. The physician suspects septic arthritis and decides to perform synovial fluid analysis. Can you name another type of synovial joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atlantoaxial joint

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Joints in the Human Body

      Joints are the points where two or more bones meet and allow movement. There are different types of joints in the human body, each with its own unique characteristics.

      Synovial Joints: These are the most mobile joints in the body and have a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid. Examples include the Atlantoaxial joint, knee, hip, shoulder, elbow, some carpals, and the first metacarpal. Inflammation or infection of the synovial fluid can cause pain, stiffness, and limited movement.

      Fibrous Joints: These joints are immovable and are held together by fibrous tissue. The skull vault sutures are an example of this type of joint, which fuse by around the age of 20 years.

      Syndesmosis: This is a type of fibrous joint where two bones are linked by ligaments and a membrane. The inferior tibiofibular joint is an example of a syndesmosis.

      Cartilaginous Joints: These joints are held together by cartilage. The joint between the first rib and the sternum is an example of a synchondrosis, which is composed of hyaline cartilage. The pubic symphysis is an example of a secondary cartilaginous joint, made of hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage connecting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones at the midline.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of joints in the human body is important for diagnosing and treating joint-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken to the Emergency Department where X-rays were taken. A radiologist examined the films and observed a single fracture of the carpal bone that articulates with the majority of the base of the third metacarpal bone.
      Which of the following bones was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capitate

      Explanation:

      The Carpal Bones: An Overview of the Bones in the Wrist

      The wrist is composed of eight small bones known as the carpal bones. These bones are arranged in two rows, with each row containing four carpal bones. The proximal row includes the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform, while the distal row includes the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.

      The capitate bone is located in the center of the wrist and articulates with the base of the third metacarpal bone. The trapezium bone is the most lateral bone in the distal row and articulates with the base of the first metacarpal bone. The hamate bone is the most medial bone in the distal row and articulates with the fourth and fifth metacarpal bones.

      The pisiform bone is a small, seed-shaped bone located on the medial side of the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones. The triquetrum bone is also located in the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones.

      Understanding the anatomy of the carpal bones is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated his right shoulder. X-rays showed an anterior dislocation but no fractures. The shoulder was easily reduced without complications, and post-reduction radiographs were satisfactory. At his 2-week follow-up with his general practitioner, he reports difficulty in abducting his right arm. There are no neurovascular defects, and he has full sensation and good radial pulses. What imaging modality would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the shoulder

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging for Shoulder Injuries: MRI, Bone Scans, CT Scans, X-rays, and EMG

      Shoulder injuries in patients over 40 years old are often associated with acute avulsion injuries and rotator cuff tears. These tears can be degenerative and not related to trauma. The incidence of rotator cuff tears after acute dislocation in patients over 40 years old is high. Ultrasound and MRI are the preferred diagnostic tools for rotator cuff disease.

      Bone scans are not useful in this scenario, and CT scans with iv contrast may reveal bony pathology but are not necessary. Repeat shoulder X-rays are also not beneficial if the post-reduction X-rays are normal.

      Axillary nerve and brachial plexus injuries can occur after acute shoulder dislocation, but EMG is not necessary if there is no sensory deficit or distal weakness. Overall, MRI is the most effective diagnostic tool for shoulder injuries in this patient population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 8 - In elderly patients with acute limb compartment syndrome, which symptom is a late...

    Incorrect

    • In elderly patients with acute limb compartment syndrome, which symptom is a late sign indicating a poor prognosis and is associated with local tissue hypoxia caused by increased pressure within an unyielding osseo-fascial compartment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Recognizing and Treating Compartment Syndrome: Early Signs and Prognosis

      Compartment syndrome occurs when tissue pressure within an enclosed fascial compartment rises above capillary pressure, leading to reduced blood flow to distal tissues. While direct measurement of compartmental pressures is possible, clinical assessment is crucial. Treatment involves removing occlusive dressings, elevating the affected area, and performing fasciotomy if necessary. Complete anesthesia is a late sign and indicates poor prognosis due to myoneural necrosis. Paraesthesia, or abnormal sensation, is a relatively late sign, and progression to complete anesthesia indicates a worse prognosis. Distal pulses and capillary refill may be present even with significant increases in compartmental pressure. The earliest sign is severe pain on passive muscle stretch, followed by pink shiny skin and a feeling of pressure. Swollen leg is an early sign, and prompt diagnosis and treatment at this stage can lead to a good prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did not respond to over-the-counter analgesics. Pain is increasing in the night and is constant. It is not subsiding with rest. There is no history of trauma. She is a known diabetic and hypertensive. She had an episode of deep vein thrombosis 1 month ago and was on heparin for 3 weeks. She had no children and her husband passed away a year ago. Her current medications include captopril, metformin, warfarin, atorvastatin and aspirin 375 mg. X-ray of the spine shows a fracture of C6 vertebra.
      Which one of the following is the most likely underlying disease causing the fracture at this vertebral level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Causes of Vertebral Fractures: A Guide for Clinicians

      When a patient presents with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the underlying cause. Fractures at or above the T4 level are suggestive of cancer, rather than osteoporosis. This is especially true if the patient has no known primary cancer, as it may be a case of metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary.

      postmenopausal osteoporosis and heparin-induced osteoporosis typically do not cause fractures at or above T4. Instead, fractures below T4 are more commonly seen in osteoporosis. However, a higher fracture associated with thoracic back pain is a red flag feature that should be investigated further with imaging, such as an MRI spine, as cancer is suspected.

      Statin-induced myopathy is another condition that can cause muscle pain and weakness, but it does not typically present with back pain or vertebral fractures. Similarly, renal osteodystrophy due to diabetic nephropathy can affect the spine, but this patient does not have chronic renal failure. If diabetic nephropathy is present, it may progress to renal failure, which can lead to renal osteodystrophy.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the location of the fracture and any other symptoms or risk factors. This can help clinicians distinguish between potential causes and guide appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury sustained during a football game. He cannot recall the exact cause of the injury. During the examination, you note a positive McMurray's's test and tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. What imaging modality would be the most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI scan of the knee

      Explanation:

      Best Imaging Modality for Knee Injury: MRI Scan

      When a patient presents with knee pain, a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. In this case, a young patient with a positive McMurray’s’s test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint suggests a lateral meniscal tear. The best imaging modality for this patient is an MRI scan of the knee. This scan allows for visualization of soft tissues in the knee, making it more sensitive than a CT scan or X-ray. An ultrasound scan may also be useful for diagnosing soft tissue injuries, but a joint aspirate would not be indicated. A CT scan with contrast would not be helpful in this situation. Overall, an MRI scan is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing a knee injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor after undergoing a mastectomy to remove a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor after undergoing a mastectomy to remove a cancerous lump in her breast. She reports experiencing weakness in her left shoulder and difficulty lifting her arm above her head since the surgery. Her husband has also observed that her left scapula is protruding, indicating a winged scapula. Which muscle is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Scapula Winging: Understanding the Relationship

      The serratus anterior muscle plays a crucial role in stabilizing the scapula. Damage to this muscle can result in winging of the scapula, which can be caused by direct damage or damage to the long thoracic nerve. On the other hand, damage to the infraspinatus, deltoid, teres major, or pectoralis minor muscles does not cause winging of the scapula. Understanding the relationship between these muscles and scapula winging can help diagnose and treat injuries or conditions affecting the shoulder and upper back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 12 - Given that John, an 18-year-old rugby player, has suffered a complete tear in...

    Incorrect

    • Given that John, an 18-year-old rugby player, has suffered a complete tear in his anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) after being tackled sideways, what would be the most effective course of treatment for him? He experienced a popping sound and now has a swollen, unstable and painful knee that cannot bear weight. MRI results confirmed the injury.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Operative repair with anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction

      Explanation:

      Managing Anterior Cruciate Ligament Tears: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears are common injuries among athletes and active individuals. The best management option for a fit and active sportsman or sportswoman is an ACL reconstruction, which reduces the risk of further injury to the cartilage and meniscus and may prevent future osteoarthritis. Reconstruction can be performed using various grafts, such as bone-patella-bone autograft, quadruple hamstring autograft, quadriceps tendon autograft, or allograft. Physical therapy and avoidance of contact sports may be an option for patients with low physical demand, but not for those who wish to return to their previous level of activity. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE) can provide symptomatic relief but do not address the underlying issue. Knee bracing with an immobilizer, analgesia, and physiotherapy may be an option for incomplete tears of the medial and lateral collateral ligament. Ligament repair has a high failure rate and is rarely used. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the injury, the patient’s goals and expectations, and the potential risks and benefits of each option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 13 - A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
      These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the waist after a coughing fit. She is not taking any medications and her clinical observations are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporotic wedge fracture

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Back Pain in a 72-Year-Old Woman

      Back pain is a common complaint in primary care, and its differential diagnosis can be challenging. In this case, a 72-year-old woman presents with back pain after a coughing fit. The following conditions are considered and ruled out based on the available information:

      – Osteoporotic wedge fracture: postmenopausal women are at increased risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to vertebral fractures from minor trauma. This possibility should be considered in any older patient with back pain, especially if there is a history of osteoporosis or low-trauma injury.
      – Herniated lumbar disc prolapse: This condition typically causes sciatica, which is pain that radiates down the leg to the ankle. The absence of this symptom makes it less likely.
      – Mechanical back pain: This is a common cause of back pain, especially in older adults. It is usually aggravated by heavy lifting and prolonged standing or sitting, but not necessarily by coughing.
      – Osteoarthritis: This condition can cause back pain, especially in the lower back, but it is not typically associated with coughing. It tends to worsen with activity and improve with rest.
      – Osteomyelitis: This is a serious infection of the bone that can cause severe pain and fever. It is less likely in this case because the patient’s clinical observations are normal.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for back pain in a 72-year-old woman includes several possibilities, such as osteoporotic fracture, herniated disc, mechanical pain, osteoarthritis, and osteomyelitis. A thorough history and physical examination, along with appropriate imaging and laboratory tests, can help narrow down the possibilities and guide the management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old accountant complains of chronic pain on the lateral aspect of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old accountant complains of chronic pain on the lateral aspect of his right elbow that worsens during tennis, particularly when executing a backhand. Upon examination, it is observed that the pain is triggered by resisted wrist extension while the elbow is fully extended.
      Which muscle attachment is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis: The Role of Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB)

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a prevalent overuse injury that causes tendinosis and inflammation at the origin of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) muscle. While several muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the elbow, the ECRB is the most commonly affected in this condition.

      Repetitive pronation and supination with the elbow in extension can cause microtears at the ECRB origin, leading to inflammation and even radial nerve entrapment syndrome. Radiographs are usually normal, and an MRI may show increased signal intensity at the ECRB tendon, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

      Non-operative treatment, including activity modification, rest, ice, NSAIDs, and physical therapy, is successful in 95% of patients. However, it may take up to a year to be effective. Operative release and debridement of the ECRB origin are only considered in rare cases when non-operative treatment fails.

      While other muscles, such as the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and anconeus, also attach to the lateral epicondyle, they are less likely to be involved in lateral epicondylitis. Understanding the role of the ECRB in this condition can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 16 - A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury to her left anatomical snuffbox. Which structures are more likely to be affected by an injury to the anatomical snuffbox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Snuffbox and Nerve and Artery Relations in the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral side of the wrist, bounded by tendons and limited above by the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the scaphoid and the trapezium and is crossed by the radial artery.

      The radial nerve can be damaged by a midshaft humerus fracture, leading to wrist drop, but it does not pass over the anatomical snuffbox. The median nerve can be compressed when passing through the carpal tunnel, causing tingling and numbness in the hand, but it has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar nerve can be compressed in the cubital fossa, leading to numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers, but it also has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar artery is on the medial side of the wrist and has no relation to the snuffbox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left shoulder. During the physical examination, he exhibits a positive belly press and lift-off test, as well as internal rotation weakness and heightened passive external rotation of the left arm.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis tear

      Explanation:

      Rotator cuff injuries can cause pain during overhead activities and have specific physical exam findings. To test for a subscapularis tear, the patient is asked to internally rotate their arm against resistance while keeping their elbows at their side in 90 degrees of flexion. A positive lift-off test is when the patient is unable to lift their hand away from their back in internal rotation. The belly press test involves the patient pressing their abdomen with their palm while maintaining internal rotation of the shoulder. If the elbow drops back, it indicates deltoid recruitment and a positive test. The supraspinatus muscle is tested with Jobe’s test, which involves abducting the arm to 90 degrees, angled forward 30 degrees and internally rotated, then pressing down on the arm while the patient maintains position. A positive drop sign is when the patient cannot slowly lower their affected arm from a 90-degree position due to weakness or pain. A SLAP tear may be associated with rotator cuff tears and instability, and the O’Brien’s test can be used to diagnose it. The infraspinatus muscle is tested by external rotation when the arm is in neutral abduction/adduction, and the teres minor muscle is tested by external rotation with the arm held in 90 degrees of abduction. Hornblower’s sign is when the patient cannot hold their shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction and 90 degrees of external rotation and falls into internal rotation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 18 - Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in a 24-year-old professional off-road motorcyclist who suffered a complete fracture during a race?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Bony Features of the Foot

      The foot is a complex structure that contains numerous muscles and bony features. Here are some important details about the muscles and their attachments:

      Flexor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates on the fibula and inserts onto the plantar surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It passes underneath the sustentaculum tali, which has a groove for the tendon of this muscle.

      Flexor Hallucis Brevis: This intrinsic muscle of the foot originates from the plantar surface of the cuboid and lateral cuneiform bones and tendon of the tibialis posterior muscle. It inserts on the lateral and medial sides of the base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Extensor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the proximal one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and related surface of the lateral tibial condyle. It inserts via dorsal digital expansions into the bases of the distal and middle phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Extensor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates from the middle one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and adjacent surface of the interosseous membrane. It inserts on the dorsal surface of the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Flexor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the medial side of the posterior surface of the tibia and inserts onto the plantar surfaces of the bases of the distal phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Understanding the muscles and bony features of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating foot injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He reports being tackled with a boot to the lateral side of his upper leg. X-ray examination shows a fracture at the neck of the fibula.
      What is the structure that is most likely impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa: Nerves and Vessels

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped area located at the back of the knee joint. It contains several important nerves and vessels that are vulnerable to injury. Here is a brief overview of the anatomy of the popliteal fossa:

      Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve runs around the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Damage to this nerve can result in foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex and evert the foot.

      Popliteal Artery: The popliteal artery is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa and can be injured in penetrating injuries to the back of the knee.

      Popliteal Vein: This vein travels with the popliteal artery and lies superficial and lateral to it.

      Small Saphenous Vein: This vein begins at the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch of the foot, winds posteriorly around the lateral malleolus, and travels up the lateral aspect of the leg. It enters the popliteal fossa between the two heads of the gastrocnemius to join the popliteal vein.

      Tibial Nerve: This nerve lies deep in the popliteal fossa and can be injured by deep lacerations.

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      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
      What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures

      Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.

      3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.

      While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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      • Orthopaedics
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