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Question 1
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing a red rash on her face for 6-12 months and is now having joint pain in multiple areas. She also reports having chest pain that feels like it's coming from the lining of her lungs. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg, and she has a butterfly-shaped rash on her face.
The following tests were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 119 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 4.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
- Platelets: 192 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
- Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine: 160 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr (normal range: 0-10mm in the 1st hour)
- Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): positive
- Urine: blood and protein present
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Differentiating Systemic Lupus Erythematosus from Other Connective Tissue Diseases
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can present with a variety of symptoms. Patients may experience pleuritic chest pain, arthralgia, and a typical rash, which are all indicative of SLE. Anti-nuclear antibodies are typically positive, although they are not specific to lupus. Treatment for SLE involves glucocorticoids as the mainstay, with second-line agents including cyclophosphamide, hydroxychloroquine, and azathioprine. BLyS inhibitors are also showing promise in clinical trials.
Other connective tissue diseases, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease, have distinct features that differentiate them from SLE. GPA is a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs, with palpable purpura on the extremities. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with joint pain and swelling, but without a butterfly rash or hypertension. Systemic sclerosis affects the skin on the face, forearms, and lower legs, with Raynaud’s, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Mixed connective tissue disease has features of SLE, but without any other connective tissue disease symptoms.
It is important to differentiate between these diseases to provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?
Your Answer: Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine
Correct Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis
When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.
Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.
If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower back, calves and neck. He takes regular paracetamol but this has not helped his symptoms. For the past four weeks, he has become increasingly agitated and reports that he can no longer sleep for more than a few hours because the pain wakes him up. He feels increasingly lethargic and helpless. He also reports that as a result of his pain, he feels that his memory has worsened and he reports a low mood. A Kessler Psychological Distress Scale screening questionnaire is performed and he has a score of 30. His laboratory blood tests are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Pharmacological Treatments for Fibromyalgia Pain: Choosing the Right Option
Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that can be challenging to manage. Duloxetine, pregabalin, and tramadol are all appropriate pharmacological treatments for severe pain disturbance in fibromyalgia. However, the choice of which treatment to use depends on the patient’s co-morbidities, clinical presentation, and patient preference.
In this case, the patient has comorbid low mood and possible depression, making duloxetine a reasonable choice. Venlafaxine, another serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be theoretically useful, but there is insufficient evidence for its use. Codeine and paracetamol have been shown to be ineffective in treating fibromyalgia pain.
While psychotherapy may be considered for patients with pain-related depression and adverse coping mechanisms, it is not the correct answer for this patient. Overall, choosing the right pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:NSAIDs for Gout Treatment
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening back pain and stiffness over the past 5 months. He denies experiencing leg pain, loss of bladder or bowel control, or weakness in his lower extremities. The patient reports that the stiffness in his back tends to improve throughout the day. Upon examination, the physician notes mild tenderness directly over the lumbar spine and decreased range of motion with hip flexion. The patient has normal muscle strength in his lower extremities and intact sensation. X-ray results reveal sacroiliitis, vertebral squaring, and a ‘bamboo spine’. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive human leukocyte antigen HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Ankylosing Spondylitis, SLE, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms. However, certain laboratory tests can help differentiate between them.
One such test is the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, which is associated with ankylosing spondylitis. This autoimmune disorder primarily affects men and is characterized by back stiffness that improves throughout the day, sacroiliitis, and a bamboo spine on radiography.
On the other hand, positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Patients with SLE may experience joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.
Lastly, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, and can lead to joint deformities if left untreated.
In summary, understanding the specific laboratory tests associated with different autoimmune disorders can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of warm, swollen, and painful knuckles, as well as large subcutaneous nodules near her elbows. She also reports experiencing joint stiffness lasting more than an hour in the morning. Upon examination, her PIP joints are hyperextended, and her DIP joints are flexed. If a biopsy were performed on the nodules, what would be the most likely histological appearance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells
Explanation:Differentiating Connective Tissue Pathologies: Histological Characteristics
Connective tissue pathologies can present with a variety of clinical features, making it important to understand their histological characteristics for accurate diagnosis.
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by swan neck deformity, subcutaneous nodules, and enlarged knuckles. The histological composition of subcutaneous nodules is areas of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells.
Gouty tophi, on the other hand, present as an amorphous crystalline mass surrounded by macrophages.
A cystic space caused by myxoid degeneration of connective tissue is more typical of a ganglion cyst.
Nodular tenosynovitis is a well-encapsulated nodule of polygonal cells within a tendon sheath.
Lastly, pigmented villonodular synovitis is characterized by a darkly pigmented synovium with an exuberant, villous growth.
Understanding the histological characteristics of these connective tissue pathologies can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis
Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.
The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which joint is usually spared from osteoarthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elbow joint
Explanation:Osteoarthritis in the Hand and Elbow
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a prevalent form of arthritis that commonly affects the hand, particularly the joints. The joints may exhibit several deformities, including the development of small bone spurs called nodes. These nodes are referred to as Heberden’s nodes when they occur at the joint next to the fingernail and Bouchard’s nodes when they occur at the middle joints. The base of the thumb may also appear squared off, accompanied by swelling and tenderness. Soft tissue laxity can result in instability at the base of the thumb.
In contrast, elbow OA is relatively uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Explanation:Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy
The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.
Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.
On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.
Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.
In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her fingers and wrists. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few months, and she is having difficulty opening jars at home. She reports that her fingers are stiff when she wakes up but gradually loosen throughout the morning.
Upon examination, the GP notes symmetrical swelling of the MCP and PIP joints, which are tender to pressure and have stress pain on passive movement. The patient also has swan neck and boutonnière deformities of the fingers. The GP diagnoses the patient with rheumatoid arthritis and refers her to a rheumatologist. The GP prescribes anti-inflammatory medications and advises the patient to rest her fingers and wrists.
What is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient who is 63 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory polyarthropathy that primarily affects small joints, causing symmetrical joint tenderness and swelling. It is an autoimmune disease with genetic and environmental risk factors. RA can result in marked physical disability, and extra-articular features are more common in rheumatoid factor-positive patients with long-standing disease. Ocular manifestations of RA include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome, which is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation. Scleromalacia perforans, a thinning of the sclera, is associated with RA but presents less often than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Episcleritis and scleritis are also associated with RA but are less common than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Orbital apex syndrome may involve the optic nerve, causing a palsy, but this is very rare. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these ocular manifestations and monitor patients with RA for any changes in their vision or eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints
Explanation:Heberden’s Nodules
Heberden’s nodules are bony growths that form around the joints at the end of the fingers. These nodules are most commonly found on the second and third fingers and are caused by calcification of the cartilage in the joint. This condition is often associated with osteoarthritis and is more common in women. Heberden’s nodules typically develop in middle age.
Overall, Heberden’s nodules can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for those who experience them. However, the causes and symptoms of this condition can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms effectively. With proper care and attention, it is possible to minimize the impact of Heberden’s nodules on daily life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left knee. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history includes haemochromatosis for which he receives regular venesection.
Examination reveals a hot, tender, swollen left knee.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Knee aspirate: 12 000 white blood cells/ml (majority neutrophils); rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. No growth on culture.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Knee Aspirate: Pseudogout, Gout, prepatellar Bursitis, Septic Arthritis, Osteoarthritis
A knee aspirate was performed on a patient who presented with knee pain. The aspirate revealed positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals, indicating pseudogout. This condition is associated with haemochromatosis and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, corticosteroid injections, or short courses of oral corticosteroids. Colchicine may also be an option for some patients. Familial pyrophosphate arthropathy, a rare form of the condition, may be linked to mutations in genes related to inorganic phosphate transport.
Gout is a differential diagnosis for this case, but the knee aspirate would reveal negatively birefringent crystals. prepatellar bursitis, a sterile condition not associated with crystals or raised white cell counts, can be ruled out. Septic arthritis would present with a systemic inflammatory response and rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals would not be present. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition and would not present acutely, and joint aspirate would not show rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness that improves with physical activity. As she enters her 30s, she develops arthritis in her hips and shoulders, and by her 40s, she notices reduced mobility in her lumbar spine. She has no significant medical issues. What condition is most commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:The symptoms described suggest a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, a chronic form of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton. Diagnosis is made using the modified New York criteria, which includes clinical and radiological criteria. HLA-B27 and sacroiliitis on MRI play a major role in the recently proposed ASAS diagnostic algorithm. Radiographic sacroiliitis is required for eligibility for anti-TNF treatment. Other conditions, such as pseudogout, Lyme disease, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis, are unlikely diagnoses. Timely diagnosis requires a high index of suspicion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his right elbow. He mentions feeling generally unwell for the past few days and remembers hitting his elbow while cycling the previous week. During the examination, his temperature is 37.7 °C, his heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg. There is a warm, erythematous swelling on the posterior aspect of his right elbow.
What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Explanation:Management of Suspected Infected Olecranon Bursitis
Suspected infected olecranon bursitis requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following options are available:
Option 1: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Empirical antibiotics, such as oral flucloxacillin, should be started immediately to cover for staphylococci and streptococci. However, urgent same-day aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 2: Arrange for corticosteroid injection
If there are no signs of infection, corticosteroid injection may be considered after conservative measures have failed in aseptic olecranon bursitis. However, in suspected septic olecranon bursitis, urgent antibiotics and aspiration are required.Option 3: Oral flucloxacillin only
Empirical oral flucloxacillin should be started as soon as possible in suspected infected olecranon bursitis. However, referral for urgent aspiration is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 4: Oral amoxicillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Flucloxacillin, not amoxicillin, should be given for suspected septic olecranon bursitis to cover the most common organisms. Urgent aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 5: Refer for urgent aspiration
Urgent aspiration is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility. Empirical antibiotics should be started first while awaiting culture results. If the patient is seen in the Emergency Department, aspiration may be done first before starting antibiotics. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In which joint would the presence of osteoarthritic changes be atypical?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shoulder joint
Explanation:Osteoarthrosis and Common Deformities in the Hand
Osteoarthrosis (OA) is a prevalent type of arthritis that often affects the hand. Upon examination of the joints, it is common to find small bone spurs known as nodes on the tops of joints. These nodes can take on different names depending on their location. For instance, if they occur at the joint next to the fingernail, they are called Heberden’s nodes. On the other hand, if they occur at the PIP joints, they are referred to as Bouchard’s nodes. It is worth noting that shoulder joint involvement is rare in OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in the left knee that began 10 hours ago. The patient has a family history of hypertension and joint issues. What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of the knee symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Joint aspiration for microscopy and culture
Explanation:Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy
When a patient presents with acute monoarthropathy, it is important to identify the cause of their symptoms. The most important investigation in this case is joint aspiration. This procedure involves taking a sample of fluid from the affected joint and examining it under a microscope to identify any infective organisms. This is crucial in cases where septic arthritis is suspected, as appropriate therapy can be guided based on the results. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, joint aspiration can reveal the presence of crystals in the fluid. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease has been experiencing lower back pain, stiffness, and buttock pain for the past six months. He notices that his pain improves after playing squash on Saturdays. He has tested positive for HLA-B27 and his blood tests, including C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, are normal except for a mild hypochromic microcytic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Arthritis: Ankylosing Spondylitis, Osteoarthritis, Prolapsed Intervertebral Disc, Reactive Arthritis, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the sacroiliac joints, causing pain and stiffness that improves with exercise. It may also involve inflammation of the colon or ileum, which can lead to inflammatory bowel disease in some cases. The presence of the HLA-B27 gene is often associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is unlikely in younger individuals and is not linked to bowel disease. Prolapsed intervertebral disc is characterized by severe lower back pain and sciatica, but stiffness is not a typical symptom. Reactive arthritis is usually triggered by a recent GI illness or sexually transmitted infection and is associated with arthritis, a psoriatic type rash, and conjunctivitis. Finally, rheumatoid arthritis rarely affects the sacroiliac joints as the primary site. It is important to understand the differences between these types of arthritis to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases
HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.
Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.
Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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