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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.

      She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)

      White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)

      Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)

      Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)

      Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)

      Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)

      Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)

      Arterial blood gases on air:

      pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)

      pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)

      ECG Sinus tachycardia

      Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +++

      Protein ++

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's disease

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening back pain and stiffness over the past 5 months. He denies experiencing leg pain, loss of bladder or bowel control, or weakness in his lower extremities. The patient reports that the stiffness in his back tends to improve throughout the day. Upon examination, the physician notes mild tenderness directly over the lumbar spine and decreased range of motion with hip flexion. The patient has normal muscle strength in his lower extremities and intact sensation. X-ray results reveal sacroiliitis, vertebral squaring, and a ‘bamboo spine’. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive human leukocyte antigen HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Ankylosing Spondylitis, SLE, and Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms. However, certain laboratory tests can help differentiate between them.

      One such test is the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, which is associated with ankylosing spondylitis. This autoimmune disorder primarily affects men and is characterized by back stiffness that improves throughout the day, sacroiliitis, and a bamboo spine on radiography.

      On the other hand, positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Patients with SLE may experience joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.

      Lastly, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, and can lead to joint deformities if left untreated.

      In summary, understanding the specific laboratory tests associated with different autoimmune disorders can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
      What is the most effective treatment option at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs

      Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.

      Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back pain and painful urination. He had visited his GP two days earlier for eye problems. The patient's mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and he also reported experiencing pain in his ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is a type of arthropathy that is seronegative and has a positive HLA-B27. It typically presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, with the knee and sacroiliac joints being the most commonly affected. Enthesitis and mucocutaneous lesions may also be present. Reactive arthritis is often triggered by a previous infection, such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, or Shigella.

      Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with the distal interphalangeal joints being the most commonly affected.

      Osteoarthritis primarily affects articular cartilage, with the knee joint being the most commonly affected. It typically occurs after the age of 50 and is characterized by minimal morning stiffness, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, and crepitus on active motion. Systemic manifestations are not present in osteoarthritis, and it is more common in females, those who have experienced joint trauma, and those who are obese.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the axial skeleton and is more common in men. It is characterized by chronic lower back pain, morning stiffness lasting at least 1 hour, and improvement with exercise. Extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis include anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency, enthesitis, and restrictive lung disease.

      Enteropathic arthropathy is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can become severe during flares of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing a red rash on her face for 6-12 months and is now having joint pain in multiple areas. She also reports having chest pain that feels like it's coming from the lining of her lungs. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg, and she has a butterfly-shaped rash on her face.

      The following tests were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin: 119 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 4.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
      - Platelets: 192 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine: 160 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr (normal range: 0-10mm in the 1st hour)
      - Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): positive
      - Urine: blood and protein present

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Systemic Lupus Erythematosus from Other Connective Tissue Diseases

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can present with a variety of symptoms. Patients may experience pleuritic chest pain, arthralgia, and a typical rash, which are all indicative of SLE. Anti-nuclear antibodies are typically positive, although they are not specific to lupus. Treatment for SLE involves glucocorticoids as the mainstay, with second-line agents including cyclophosphamide, hydroxychloroquine, and azathioprine. BLyS inhibitors are also showing promise in clinical trials.

      Other connective tissue diseases, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease, have distinct features that differentiate them from SLE. GPA is a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs, with palpable purpura on the extremities. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with joint pain and swelling, but without a butterfly rash or hypertension. Systemic sclerosis affects the skin on the face, forearms, and lower legs, with Raynaud’s, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Mixed connective tissue disease has features of SLE, but without any other connective tissue disease symptoms.

      It is important to differentiate between these diseases to provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms

      A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 60-year-old hypertensive teacher complains of pain, redness, and swelling in the left knee that began 10 hours ago. The patient has a family history of hypertension and joint issues. What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of the knee symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Joint aspiration for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy

      When a patient presents with acute monoarthropathy, it is important to identify the cause of their symptoms. The most important investigation in this case is joint aspiration. This procedure involves taking a sample of fluid from the affected joint and examining it under a microscope to identify any infective organisms. This is crucial in cases where septic arthritis is suspected, as appropriate therapy can be guided based on the results. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, joint aspiration can reveal the presence of crystals in the fluid. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - In which joint would the presence of osteoarthritic changes be atypical? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which joint would the presence of osteoarthritic changes be atypical?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shoulder joint

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthrosis and Common Deformities in the Hand

      Osteoarthrosis (OA) is a prevalent type of arthritis that often affects the hand. Upon examination of the joints, it is common to find small bone spurs known as nodes on the tops of joints. These nodes can take on different names depending on their location. For instance, if they occur at the joint next to the fingernail, they are called Heberden’s nodes. On the other hand, if they occur at the PIP joints, they are referred to as Bouchard’s nodes. It is worth noting that shoulder joint involvement is rare in OA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with the doctor, the doctor observed a rash on both cheeks. A kidney biopsy sample showed deposits of immunoglobulin, C3, and fibrinogen in the basement membrane. Her serum analysis revealed elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that predominantly affects young women. It is characterized by a photosensitive butterfly-shaped rash on the face and joint manifestations. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, SLE does not cause severe destruction of joints. SLE is a multisystem condition that can affect many systems, including haematological, renal, respiratory, and cardiac systems. The underlying pathological mechanism of damage in SLE is immune complex deposition, which produces antibodies against several nuclear components of the body, especially against double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and dsDNA are associated with SLE, as is a low C3 and C4. The immunoglobulin, C3 and fibrinogen deposits found in this patient are classic of the immune complex deposition seen in SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach

      A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.

      prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.

      Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.

      Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For the past 2–3 months, she has suffered from increasing pain and stiffness, particularly in the early part of the day, affecting her shoulders and, most recently, her hips. There has also been low-grade fever and she has lost 4 kg in weight. Examination reveals normal proximal muscle strength.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 111 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 345 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Creatine kinase 31 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Chest X-ray (CXR) Slight cardiomegaly, otherwise normal
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Shoulder and Pelvic Girdle Pain

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with shoulder and pelvic girdle pain without muscle weakness and a markedly raised ESR. Rapid improvement of symptoms with corticosteroids and a subsequent fall in ESR confirms the diagnosis. Temporal arthritis, a vasculitis associated with PMR, should also be considered in patients over 50 presenting with headache, vision loss, and jaw claudication. Myositis and dermatomyositis are less likely diagnoses due to the patient’s normal CK and lack of muscle weakness. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely given the patient’s age and the classic joint involvement pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases

      HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.

      Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.

      Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman who has suffered many years from aggressive rheumatoid arthritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman who has suffered many years from aggressive rheumatoid arthritis presents for review. Most recently, she has suffered from two severe respiratory tract infections (which have been treated with oral clarithromycin) and has had worsening left upper quadrant pain. She currently takes low-dose prednisolone for her rheumatoid. On examination, there are obvious signs of active rheumatoid disease. Additionally, you can feel the tip of her spleen when you ask her to roll onto her right-hand side.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 1.9 × 109/l (neutrophil 0.9) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 90 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Rheumatoid factor +++
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 52 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Felty’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Splenomegaly, Neutropenia, and Active Rheumatoid Disease

      Felty’s Syndrome:
      The patient’s symptoms of splenomegaly, neutropenia, and active rheumatoid disease suggest Felty’s syndrome. This condition is thought to occur due to the sequestration and destruction of granulocytes, potentially caused by reduced granulocyte growth factors and autoantibodies/immune complexes formed against them. Felty’s syndrome affects 1-3% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and has a higher prevalence in females. Treatment typically involves the use of methotrexate as a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug, with splenectomy reserved as a last resort.

      Lymphoma:
      While lymphoma can present with lymphadenopathy, the absence of B-symptoms such as fever, night sweats, weight loss, or pruritus makes this diagnosis less likely in this case.

      Myeloma:
      Myeloma often presents with anaemia and bone pain, as well as hypercalcaemia. Serum and urine electrophoresis are important investigations for this condition.

      Sarcoidosis:
      Sarcoidosis commonly presents with respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, cough, and shortness of breath, as well as erythema nodosum and lymphadenopathy on examination. While the patient has a history of lower respiratory tract infections, her response to clarithromycin suggests an infective cause rather than sarcoidosis.

      Tuberculosis:
      The patient does not have any clinical features or risk factors for tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history of recurrent episodes of asymmetrical joint pains involving his knees, ankles and elbows. Two to four joints tend to be affected at any one time and each joint may be affected from two to four weeks each time.

      In the last decade he has also had recurrent painful mouth sores. On this occasion, he also complains of a severe occipital headache, mild abdominal pain and some discomfort on passing urine.

      On examination, his temperature is 38°C. His left knee and right ankle joints are painful, swollen and tender. Superficial thrombophlebitis is noted in the right leg.

      Investigations show:

      Hb 99 g/L (130-180)

      WCC 11.6 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)

      ESR 60 mm/hr (0-15)

      Plasma sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 6.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behçet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome

      Behçet’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms. These symptoms include recurrent oral and genital ulcers, uveitis, seronegative arthritis, central nervous system symptoms, fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. The condition is often marked by periods of exacerbations and remissions, which can make it difficult to manage.

      One of the most common symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome is the presence of oral and genital ulcers that recur over time. These ulcers can be painful and may make it difficult to eat or engage in sexual activity. Uveitis, or inflammation of the eye, is another common symptom of the condition. This can cause redness, pain, and sensitivity to light.

      Seronegative arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that does not show up on blood tests, is also associated with Behçet’s syndrome. This can cause joint pain and stiffness, as well as swelling and inflammation. Central nervous system symptoms, such as headaches, confusion, and seizures, may also occur.

      Other symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome include fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. These symptoms can vary in severity and may come and go over time. Managing Behçet’s syndrome can be challenging, but with proper treatment and care, many people are able to live full and active lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fever, morning stiffness, and joint pain. The patient reports a constant, dull pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints bilaterally, with an intensity of 3/10. Her medical history is unremarkable, but her family history includes a skin condition and rheumatoid arthritis. The patient consumes 15 alcoholic units per week and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.1 °C. The DIP joints are warm and swollen, and there is symmetric nail pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appearance of a silver, scaly rash

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritides: Understanding Clinical and Laboratory Findings

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, and it can be challenging to distinguish between the various types that exist. However, by considering the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis.

      For instance, psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory subtype of arthritis that often affects the DIP joints, sausage digits, and nails. The classic X-ray finding of psoriatic arthritis is the pencil in a cup appearance, although it is not specific to the disease. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by PIP and MCP joint involvement, wrist and cervical spine pain, and positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.

      Septic arthritis is a medical emergency that usually involves large joints and is associated with high fever, chills, and rapid joint destruction. Synovial fluid analysis may reveal Gram-positive cocci in cases of septic arthritis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that is associated with subchondral cyst formation, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation. It typically affects the DIP and PIP joints and large weight-bearing joints, but it is not an inflammatory arthritis.

      In summary, understanding the clinical and laboratory findings associated with different types of arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral ulcers, genital ulcers, tender nodules on the extensor surface of the tibia and arthritis of both knees and ankles for the past 3 months. He has also had episodes of severe eye pain. He had an episode of pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis of the right leg 1 month ago. On examination, the oral cavity shows the presence of small shallow ulcers with a yellow necrotic centre. Genital examination reveals ulcers on the shaft of the penis and scrotal scars. The glans is spared. Non-specific inflammatory response is observed after intradermal injection of normal saline. Investigations revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) Positive
      Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies Positive
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behçet’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome: A Multisystem Disorder with Recurrent Oral and Genital Ulcerations

      Behçet’s syndrome is a multisystem disorder that primarily affects young people from the Mediterranean region, the Middle East, and the Far East. The syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcerations, as well as ocular involvement. The main pathologic lesion is systemic perivasculitis with early neutrophil infiltration and endothelial swelling. In some patients, vasculitis of the vasa vasorum can result in the formation of pseudo-aneurysms. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies are present in patients with Behçet’s syndrome. The recurrent aphthous ulcerations are essential for the diagnosis, and a non-specific skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation. Genital ulcers are painful, do not affect the glans penis or urethra, and produce scrotal scars. Thromboembolic events are a component of the disease itself, with superficial or deep peripheral vein thrombosis seen in 30% of patients. Pulmonary emboli are a rare but possible complication.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as extra intestinal Crohn’s disease, occult malignancy, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain clinical features and the presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies.

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  • Question 19 - In which condition is pseudofracture typically observed? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is pseudofracture typically observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia: Causes and Symptoms

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin D. This condition can be caused by various factors such as malabsorption, renal disease, chronic renal failure, and anticonvulsant therapy. The most common symptom of osteomalacia is bone pain, which is often accompanied by a proximal myopathy. These symptoms are also known as Looser’s zones.

      Malabsorption, which is the inability of the body to absorb nutrients from food, can lead to osteomalacia. Renal disease, such as familial hypophosphataemic rickets, can also cause this condition. Chronic renal failure, which is the gradual loss of kidney function, can also lead to osteomalacia. Additionally, anticonvulsant therapy, which is used to treat seizures, can cause a deficiency of vitamin D and lead to osteomalacia.

      If you experience bone pain or a proximal myopathy, it is important to seek medical attention. A doctor can diagnose osteomalacia through blood tests and imaging studies. Treatment typically involves vitamin D and calcium supplements, as well as addressing the underlying cause of the deficiency. With proper treatment, the symptoms of osteomalacia can be managed and the condition can be prevented from worsening.

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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen and painful left thumb. The pain came on rapidly over the course of 24 hours, without history of trauma or injury. The patient describes the thumb as being extremely painful and particularly tender to touch. The patient is a type 2 diabetic, which is well controlled with metformin. He does not smoke, but drinks around ten pints of beer at weekends.
      Examination reveals a swelling, erythema and tenderness over the first metacarpophalangeal joint. The clinician suspects a possible crystal arthropathy.
      With regard to gout, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Gout: Clarifying Common Misconceptions

      Gout is a painful and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about gout, and the truth behind them:

      1. Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia.
      2. Gout may occur in those with elevated urate levels (although levels may be normal during an acute attack) such as those with haemolytic anaemia.
      3. Gout only affects the first metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.
      4. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, it is not the only joint affected.
      5. Allopurinol is effective in the treatment of acute gout.
      6. Acute gout is treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine or prednisolone, but not allopurinol. Allopurinol is effective in the prevention of gout because it reduces serum urate levels by blocking urate production (xanthine oxidase inhibition).
      7. A diagnosis of gout is made if there are positively birefringent crystals in the joint aspirate.
      8. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis that occurs as a result of deposition of negatively birefringent urate crystals in the joint.
      9. All cases of acute gout have an elevated serum urate.
      10. Although a raised serum urate can be used to support the diagnosis, many will not be raised. Similarly, if a patient has a raised serum urate, they do not automatically have the clinical picture of gout.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these common myths about gout in order to properly diagnose and treat this painful condition.

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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee. There has been no history of trauma. He recently had a negative sexual health check and has not had any new partners since. Upon examination, the left knee is unable to fully extend and there is a large effusion. The clinical suspicion is septic arthritis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Septic Arthritis: Causes and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a rheumatological emergency that requires urgent attention. A red, hot, swollen joint may indicate septic arthritis, which can be caused by a variety of pathogens. The most common pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, and joint destruction can occur within 24 hours if left untreated. It is important to consider and treat septic arthritis urgently or until firmly excluded by joint aspiration. The empirical antibiotic regime should be consulted in local health authority guidelines or with a microbiologist. Intravenous drugs should be used for 2 weeks and a total course of 6 weeks completed. Other pathogens that can cause septic arthritis include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus viridans, and Salmonella typhi. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the cause of septic arthritis.

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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her long-standing seropositive arthritis affecting her hands, knees, and hips. Her arthritis is linked to another chronic condition she also experiences.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) arthritis

      Explanation:

      Seropositive and Seronegative Arthritis: Types and Characteristics

      Seropositive arthritis is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid factor, an antibody targeted against the Fc portion of immunoglobulins. While rheumatoid factor can be present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seropositive SLE generally indicates more severe disease progression. On the other hand, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and enteropathic arthritis are all seronegative arthritis, meaning that rheumatoid factor is classically not present.

      Reactive arthritis is usually precipitated by a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection occurring before the onset of arthritic symptoms. The classic triad of reactive arthritis is conjunctivitis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, and urethritis. The condition may be self-limiting, but in some patients, it may become chronic or recur frequently.

      Psoriatic arthritis is classically found in patients with psoriasis, but in around 1 in 6 people, it may present many years before psoriatic skin symptoms. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder of an inflammatory nature characterized by sacroiliac joint involvement and linked to the HLA-B27 antigen. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can affect any joint, but it most commonly affects the spine and lower limb joints. Approximately 1 in 5 people with inflammatory bowel disease will develop the condition.

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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman had chronic inflammatory disease that affected her spine, sacroiliac joints...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman had chronic inflammatory disease that affected her spine, sacroiliac joints and large peripheral joints. X-rays confirmed a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.
      The majority of patients with this disease are positive for which one of the following molecules?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      The Role of Human Leukocyte Antigens in Autoimmune Diseases

      Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) play a crucial role in the development of autoimmune diseases. Different HLAs are associated with specific autoimmune conditions. For example, HLA-B27 is present in 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis, as well as reactive arthritis and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-Cw6 is associated with psoriasis vulgaris, while HLA-B8 is linked to hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease). HLA-DR4 is associated with rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes mellitus, and HLA-DR2 is linked to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in Japanese people, multiple sclerosis, and Goodpasture syndrome. Understanding the role of HLAs in autoimmune diseases can help with diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee which is asymmetrical and has been going on for the past few months. She has developed a rash on her face and has developed a dry cough and pain on inspiration. She has a child but has had two previous miscarriages (Gravida 3, Para 1). She has no other concurrent medical problems or medications.
      Testing for which one of the following autoantibodies is most likely to reveal the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoantibodies: Differentiating Connective Tissue Diseases

      Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. These antibodies can be used as diagnostic markers for various connective tissue diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of autoantibodies and their association with specific diseases.

      Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem connective tissue disease that can affect the heart, lungs, kidneys, and brain. Patients with SLE may present with a malar rash, polyarthritis, and pleuritis, as well as an increased rate of miscarriage.

      Anti-Jo is associated with myositis, such as polymyositis or dermatomyositis, which present with muscle pain and a rash but no pleuritic pain or an associated history of miscarriage.

      Anti-Ro is associated with Sjögren syndrome, which can have similar features to SLE, including myalgia or polyarthralgia in 50% of patients, as well as skin features of purpura and annular erythema. However, it will not cause pleuritic pain.

      Anti-centromere is associated with limited cutaneous scleroderma, a multisystem autoimmune disease resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue. It can cause nonspecific musculoskeletal pain but not an associated history of pleuritic and miscarriage.

      Anti-Rh is an antibody to a receptor on blood cells and is not associated with connective tissue disease.

      In conclusion, the presence or absence of autoantibodies does not confirm or exclude a diagnosis of connective tissue disease. A diagnosis is based on a combination of clinical presentation and laboratory tests. Understanding the association between autoantibodies and specific diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these complex conditions.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.

      The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.

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  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:

      1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.

      2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.

      3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.

      4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.

      5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.

      Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen left knee that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He is running a fever. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was recently diagnosed and is being treated with NSAIDs and low-dose oral corticosteroids. He reports that he visited his general practitioner 5 days ago for a painful right ear, and was prescribed antibiotics for an ear infection. Upon examination, the left knee is swollen, red, tender, and slightly flexed, leading to a diagnosis of septic arthritis. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis can be caused by a variety of bacterial organisms. Among them, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common aetiological agent in Europe and the United States. Streptococcus pyogenes is the next most commonly isolated bacteria, often associated with autoimmune diseases, chronic skin infections, and trauma. Gram-negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, account for approximately 10-20% of cases, with a higher prevalence in patients with a history of intravenous drug abuse, extremes of age, or immunocompromised status. Historically, Haemophilus influenzae, S. aureus, and group A streptococci were the most common causes of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years, but the overall incidence of H. influenzae is decreasing due to vaccination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a less common cause, may affect children, the elderly, intravenous drug users, and immunocompromised patients.

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  • Question 28 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules

      Heberden’s nodules are bony growths that form around the joints at the end of the fingers. These nodules are most commonly found on the second and third fingers and are caused by calcification of the cartilage in the joint. This condition is often associated with osteoarthritis and is more common in women. Heberden’s nodules typically develop in middle age.

      Overall, Heberden’s nodules can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for those who experience them. However, the causes and symptoms of this condition can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms effectively. With proper care and attention, it is possible to minimize the impact of Heberden’s nodules on daily life.

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  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her fingers and wrists. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few months, and she is having difficulty opening jars at home. She reports that her fingers are stiff when she wakes up but gradually loosen throughout the morning.

      Upon examination, the GP notes symmetrical swelling of the MCP and PIP joints, which are tender to pressure and have stress pain on passive movement. The patient also has swan neck and boutonnière deformities of the fingers. The GP diagnoses the patient with rheumatoid arthritis and refers her to a rheumatologist. The GP prescribes anti-inflammatory medications and advises the patient to rest her fingers and wrists.

      What is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient who is 63 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Ocular Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory polyarthropathy that primarily affects small joints, causing symmetrical joint tenderness and swelling. It is an autoimmune disease with genetic and environmental risk factors. RA can result in marked physical disability, and extra-articular features are more common in rheumatoid factor-positive patients with long-standing disease. Ocular manifestations of RA include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome, which is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation. Scleromalacia perforans, a thinning of the sclera, is associated with RA but presents less often than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Episcleritis and scleritis are also associated with RA but are less common than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Orbital apex syndrome may involve the optic nerve, causing a palsy, but this is very rare. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these ocular manifestations and monitor patients with RA for any changes in their vision or eye health.

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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases

      Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:

      1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).

      2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.

      4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.

      5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.

      By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.

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